CO CLASS #1 - Week of 91618FFP – Rowframes, T.B. – Arson, ERP – Haz Mat PG 1- 20 sec. 1 – 10, Safety Bull. #1 – 6Instructor DC Pat Sheridan

Question 1

1. Knowledge of construction features in Row frame buildings will assist members in successfully extinguishing fires in these buildings. Which feature is not described correctly? (Sec. 5.1.2, 5.1.3, Figures 9 & 10)
   (A) The “Brownstone type” Row frames generally have three front windows per floor with one apartment going front to rear and a rear fire escape.
   (B) An “Old Law Tenement type (OLT)” Row frame has two railroad flat apartments per floor. These buildings generally have four windows across the front, with a rear fire escape.
   (C) The depth of the “OLT type” Row frame will determine the size and number of rooms. There may be a dumbwaiter or light shaft present.
   (D) Row frames can be balloon frame or braced frame. In balloon frame construction, fire can easily extend vertically. Braced framing stops vertical extension of fire by use of a girt.

Answer 1

1. A

A. One type is similar to the Brownstone layout of rooms. They generally have three front windows per floor with one apartment going front to rear and no rear fire escape (See Figures 11 & 11A).

Question 2

2. Fire spread, both vertically and horizontally, is a major concern with Row frame buildings. Which points contain only correct information? (Sec. 5.2.2, 5.2.4, 5.2.6, 5.2.9)
3. The common cockloft, spreading over all the buildings in the row, is 2 to 3 feet high.
4. Common cornices may be present, but even in buildings in the same row there may be variations. Fire will spread via the common cornice.
5. Fire may spread vertically via: auto exposure, siding, interior walls, partitions, false fronts, bay windows, spaces between the sheathing and siding, pipe recesses and light and air shafts.
6. Light and airshafts are found in all Row frames. The taller the building the larger the shaft. Air and light shafts will reduce the severity of fire.
7. Lack of fire stopping at cellar ceilings may permit fire travel from one building to another. In Row frames with cellars common to more than one occupancy, fire will involve both when the fire is of any consequence.
   (A) 1,2,3 only
   (B) 2, 3, 5 only
   (C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
   (D) 1, 5 only

Answer 2

2. B

5.2.2
The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.

5.2.6
There are many variations in the construction of these buildings. Light and airshafts are found in some, while not in others. Usually the buildings of longer length will have the shafts. Air and light shafts are of wood, and fire in shafts rapidly assumes blowtorch proportions.

Question 3

3. The danger of collapse with fires in Row frames is a factor deserving consideration. Choose the incorrect statement concerning collapse. (Sec. 5.4 A, B, C, H)
   (A) A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.
   (B) Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section into the yard.
   (C) Collapse of sidewalls is a danger. This is especially true where buildings within the row have been demolished and removed. Even when walls bordering the gap are braced, the danger is still present.
   (D) When a serious fire burns out the entire top floor, there is danger of complete collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

Answer 3

3. D

H. When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

Question 4

Answer Questions 4 - 5 based on the following:
Ladder 100 arrives first due to fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story “Brownstone type” Row frame with a three window front. Battalion 66 is 10-84, but there is no engine on scene. The building is equipped with a self-closing entrance door with a locking device

4. The Inside Team of Ladder 100 operated correctly in which choice? (Sec. 5.5.1 E, 5.7 A, B, C)

(A) As the first member through the entrance door, the Officer chocked the door fully open.
(B) A thorough primary search was begun as soon as members entered the fire apartment.
(C) All horizontal ventilation tactics were controlled, communicated and coordinated by the Incident Commander.
(D) Initial vertical ventilation was controlled, communicated, and coordinated by the Officer of Ladder 100.

Answer 4

4. D
5. When the entrance doors are self-closing and equipped with a locking device, the first member through the door shall block the door, preventing it from fully closing or locking. The door shall be fully chocked open when hoselines are stretched through the door towards the fire area.
6. Proceed to the seat of the fire and try to contain it by shutting a door or using a portable extinguisher. A thorough primary search must be started at this point. Verify that all parts of the fire floor have been covered.
7. All horizontal ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented. Before ordering any horizontal ventilation the officer must evaluate the impact the ventilation tactic will have on interior conditions.

Question 5

Answer Questions 4 - 5 based on the following:
Ladder 100 arrives first due to fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story “Brownstone type” Row frame with a three window front. Battalion 66 is 10-84, but there is no engine on scene. The building is equipped with a self-closing entrance door with a locking device

5. Which action taken by the Chauffeur of Ladder 100 should be corrected? (Sec. 5.7 D Brownstone Layout)

(A) After raising the aerial ladder to the roof for the Roof FF to access the roof, the Chauffeur waited for the completion of the roof size-up prior to moving the ladder.
(B) When the Roof FF indicated a need for a Life Saving Rope rescue, the Chauffeur proceeded to the roof to assist.
(C) When the Roof FF indicated no need for rescue, the Chauffeur placed the aerial ladder to the window over the main entrance for immediate VEIS.
(D) Noticing that fire was lapping out of the 3rd floor windows, and entry into the top floor would be delayed, the Chauffeur waited until the lapping fire had been eliminated and then vented all windows on the top floor when permission was granted by the Officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company.

Answer 5

5. C

B. When roof firefighter indicates no need for rescue, chauffeur will place ladder to top floor for VEIS. He/she shall team up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

Question 6

6. After positioning the apparatus for complete coverage at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story “OLT type” Row frame, the LCC of the first arriving Ladder Company was correct when he? (Sec. 5.7 D Old Law Tenement Layout)

(A) After the Roof FF reached the roof using the aerial ladder, the LCC repositioned the aerial ladder to the fire apartment for VEIS with the second LCC prior to the Roof FF completing the roof size-up.
(B) The LCC teamed up with the second arriving LCC and raised a 35’ portable ladder to VEIS the fire apartment.
(C) Teamed with the 1st OV FF and VEIS the fire apartment from the rear fire escape.
(D) Told the OV FF that the only apartment above the fire floor that can have a heavy smoke condition is the apartment directly above the fire apartment.

Answer 6

6. A
7. After roof firefighter has reached the roof, reposition aerial for VEIS of the fire apartment if fire is on the 3rd floor or above when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member)
8. When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

NOTE:
Partitions that separate apartments are not fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above. This may permit lateral extension across the building and could result in an unusually heavy smoke condition in the apartment which is not directly over the fire apartment.

Question 7

7. While conducting a drill on the first arriving OV Firefighter duties at a top floor fire, Lt. Smith made several statements. Which one was correct? (Sec. 5.7 E, F)

(A) The OV FF shall carry a saw and 6’ hook to the roof.
(B) After proceeding to the roof, the OV FF shall descend the fire escape and provide VEIS.
(C) When unable to descend the fire escape from the roof, notify the IC. Vent the fire apartment windows when directed by the IC.
(D) The OV FF shall use the saw to vent the cockloft and top floor.

Answer 7

7. B

OVM
Top Floor Fire:

Proceed to roof with saw and Halligan tool. When possible, descend fire escape and provide VEIS. When unable to descend the fire escape, notify company officer. When directed by the Ladder Company Officer operating on the top floor, attempt to vent fire apartment from roof level and then assist roof firefighter with roof vent.

7. For top floor fires, pending the arrival of the saw to the roof, the roof firefighter shall open up the returns. Ventilate the top floor windows from the roof level as directed by the Ladder company officer operating on the top floor. The roof firefighter is also responsible for utilization of the saw to vent the cockloft and top floor as needed after completing initial duties.

Question 8

8. FF Jones of Ladder 200, an aerial ladder, is the first arriving OV FF at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story Row frame building. The CIDS for the building is as follows:
   MD-3 STY 25’x 50’ Cl3
   Brownstone Type Row frame –
   No Rear Fire Escape –
   1 STY Setback in rear
   After ensuring that a ladder rescue is not required in the front of the building, FF Jones immediately makes her way to the rear of the building, where she sees a person trapped on the 3rd floor. Which action taken by FF Jones should be corrected? (Sec. 5.7 E)

(A) FF Jones took a 10’ scissor ladder to the rear to assist in gaining access to the roof of the setback.
(B) FF Jones notified the Officer of Ladder 200 and the IC of the trapped victim with the following HT message: “There is a person trapped in the rear of the 3rd floor on the exposure 2 side of the building”.
(C) Due to the lack of a fire escape on the building, FF Jones returned to the front of the building to team up with the LCC for top floor VEIS.
(D) After FF Jones determined that a laddering operation was practical, she notified the IC, determined what size ladder was needed and the most accessible route to the rear.
(E) After FF Jones determined that it was impractical to get a portable ladder to the rear, she proceeded to the roof to assist with a Life Saving Rope rescue.

Answer 8

8. C
9. REAR RESCUE NEEDED

When on arrival at the rear, a person is seen trapped on an upper floor, the

OV should do the following:

A. Notify company officer and the IC of the floor and the exact location of the victim.

B. When there is a rear fire escape, ascend same and assist victim.

C. When there is no rear fire escape, reassure victim and determine if a portable laddering operation is practical.

D. When the OV determines that a laddering operation is practical, they may initiate such an attempt. Generally, there is less effort and manpower involved than a LSR rescue. It is usually a safer operation for the members involved. In this case the OV should:

1. Notify the IC.
2. Determine what size ladder is needed.
3. Determine the most accessible route to the rear.

E. When the OV determines that it is impractical to get a portable ladder to the rear due to room layout, hallways, remodeling, fences between yards, etc. the OV will have to make a decision whether to stay in the rear reassuring the victim that help is on the way or proceed to the roof and assist with a LSR rescue.

This decision should be based on:

• The emotional state of the victim
• The fire/smoke condition in the immediate vicinity of the victim.
• The location and severity of the fire.

Question 9

9. Choose the correct order of preference to gain access to the roof for the Roof Firefighter in an Aerial Ladder Company. (Sec. 5.7 F)
10. 1st Arriving Aerial Ladder
11. 2nd Arriving Aerial Ladder (when available).
12. Via Exposure 2, a similar attached Row frame building that offers easiest access to its interior.
13. Rear Fire Escape
14. Via Exposure 4A, a similar attached Row frame building.
    (A) 1,2,3,4,5
    (B) 1,2,5
    (C) 1,2,3
    (D) 3,1,4

Answer 9

9. B

D. The immediate adjoining building should not be used for access to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement

Question 10

10. If the 1st arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder Company, what would be the order of preference for roof access? (Sec. 5.9)
11. 1st Arriving Aerial Ladder
12. The basket
13. Rear fire escape
14. An adjoining building, other than the immediate adjoining building.
    (A) 1,2,4
    (B) 2,1,4
    (C) 4,1,3
    (D) 2,1,3,4

Answer 10

10. B

ROOF FIREFIGHTER: (First Arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder)

POSITION Roof of fire building.

Proceed to the roof via: (Order of Preference)

• the basket
• the 1st arriving aerial ladder
• an adjoining building, the immediate adjoining building should not be used for access to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement.

NOTE:
A visible life hazard will negate the initial use of the TL basket for roof access.

Question 11

11. The Roof FF’s responsibilities include life, communications and ventilation. Upon reaching the roof, the Roof FF would be incorrect to do what? (Sec. 5.7 F)
    (A) Survey the rear, courts and shafts of the building for trapped occupants and/or persons who may have jumped.
    (B) Notify the Officer of any life hazard, location of fire escapes, and the ventilation profile of the rear and sides of the building.
    (C) When trapped occupants are noted, after assuring the victim that help is on the way, contact the Ladder Company Officer and inform them of the exact location of the trapped occupant. An acknowledgement of this message must be received.
    (D) When a Life Saving Rope (LSR) rescue is required, contact the IC via HT for assistance on the roof. When the aerial ladder is to be used as a substantial object to tie off the LSR, notify the IC to have the ladder repositioned.

Answer 11

11. D

C. When a LSR rescue is required, contact the chauffeur via H/T for assistance on the roof. When the aerial ladder is to be used as a substantial object to tie off the LSR, notify the chauffeur to reposition when necessary.

Question 12

12. FF Green is assigned the Roof position in Ladder 300, the 1st arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story Row frame Building. After notifying the LCC that rescue operations are not needed and the Officer that he is in position to perform ventilation tactics, FF Green performed several actions. Which action should be corrected? (Sec. 5.7 F)
    (A) Prior to taking out the glass skylight over the stairs, FF Green can make a HT announcement or break out a small pane of glass as a warning to members moving up the stairs below.
    (B) Upon noticing that there was a closed door on the closet leading to the scuttle preventing adequate ventilation, and hearing the IC tell his aide via HT that the fire was “Doubtful”, FF Green did not descend the scuttle ladder to open the door.
    (C) FF Green contacted the Officer of Ladder 400, the 2nd arriving Ladder Company, for permission to vent the top floor windows.
    (D) Noticing a rear fire escape, FF Green notified his Officer that he was leaving the roof and teaming up with the OV FF from Ladder 300 to VEIS the 2nd floor.

Answer 12

12. A

A. Ventilate skylights. Take out the glass skylight over the stairs, units below shall be warned via h/t prior to breaking glass. Break out a small pane of glass as a warning to the members moving up the stairs below before breaking the remaining larger sections of glass. Members moving up the stairs shall stay close to the wall, keeping their hands off the stair rail until the glass has been dropped. Remove additional skylights as needed.

The scuttle ladder shall never be used to descend to the lower floors unless the fire is under control.

Question 13

13. Using the information in Question 12, which action taken by FF Green after completing roof duties would be correct if there was no fire escape? (Sec. 5.7 F)
    (A) If the aerial ladder is still in position at the roof, descend the aerial ladder and team up with the LCC for VEIS of the 2nd floor.
    (B) If the aerial ladder is still in position at the roof, descend the aerial ladder and team up with the LCC for VEIS of the 4th floor.
    (C) Upon noticing that the aerial ladder had been moved from the roof, contact the IC and ask where he is needed.
    (D) Remain on the roof to assist with roof ventilation.

Answer 13

13. B
14. When there is no fire escape, after completing their roof responsibilities, the roof firefighter will descend the aerial ladder, when it is still in position at the roof, and team up with the chauffeur for VEIS of the top floor. When the aerial ladder is not in position the roof firefighter shall contact their company officer and be guided by their direction

Question 14

14. Top floor fires in Row frame buildings create the potential for rapid fire spread via the cockloft. Which action taken by the 1st arriving Roof FF at a top floor fire in a “Brownstone type” Row frame was correct? (Sec. 5.7 F)
    (A) The tools brought to the roof were a 6’ Halligan Hook, saw, Flashlight and HT.
    (B) Returns were not opened to avoid increasing the flow of oxygen into the cockloft.
    (C) Ventilated the top floor windows as ordered by the 2nd Arriving Ladder Officer.
    (D) Called for a saw to be brought to the roof due to a tarred over roof skylight.

Answer 14

14. D
15. For top floor fires, pending the arrival of the saw to the roof, the roof firefighter shall open up the returns. Ventilate the top floor windows from the roof level as directed by the Ladder company officer operating on the top floor. The roof firefighter is also responsible for utilization of the saw to vent the cockloft and top floor as needed after completing initial duties.

NOTE:
Roof firefighters should be aware that they are the eyes of the Incident Commander as far as roof level size up is concerned. Report initial size up and any important additional information as it develops, such as penthouse structures, or the inability to ventilate the interior stairs due to either there being no skylight or tarred over roof skylights. (A saw must be called for in these instances)

Question 15

15. Along with augmenting the operations of the first ladder company as it pertains to immediate rescue and ventilation the 2nd ladder is responsible for several other tasks. Which is not one of them? (Sec. 5.8 Operations A, B, C, D)
    (A) VEIS of only the floor above the fire and to check for fire extension.
    (B) Confirm roof ventilation (assist first unit)
    (C) Check rear and sides of buildings for extension and victims.
    (D) Reinforce laddering and removal operations when necessary

Answer 15

15. A

A. All floors above the fire floor for VEIS and to check for fire extension

Question 16

16. For a fire on the top floor of an “OLT type” Row frame, the 2nd Ladder Company to arrive would be operating incorrectly in which choice? (Sec. 5.8 F)
    (A) The Inside Team operated in the most severely threatened exposure.
    (B) The Inside Team proceeded to the top floor of the fire building and VEIS the adjoining
    apartment, including examination of the cockloft.
    (C) The Officer assigned the LCC to an exposure when they were no longer needed for laddering operations on the front of the building.
    (D) Common interior shafts that were covered at the roof level were checked for fire extension.

Answer 16

16. A

F. For fires on top floor:

1. In Brownstone type, split the company and examine exposures for extension in the cockloft. The inside team should operate in the most severely threatened exposure.
2. In OLT type, the inside team will proceed to the top floor of the fire building and be responsible for VEIS of the adjoining apartment, including examination of the cockloft.

In both situations described above, the Ladder Company Officer can assign the chauffeur to an exposure, when they are no longer needed at the aerial or for other laddering operations on the front of the building.

NOTE:
Common interior shafts may be encountered and must be given serious consideration as they pertain to fire extension. These shafts are often covered at roof level.

Question 17

Answer Questions 17 - 19 based on the information below.
Units respond to a fire on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street, a 4 story “Brownstone Type” Row frame building. The fire building is the middle building in a row of 7 similar attached occupied dwellings. Fire is venting from two top floor windows of 100 Pine Street, and heavy smoke is pushing from the top floor of Exposure 2, 98 Pine Street. There is a medium smoke condition in 102 Pine Street, which is the Exposure 4 building. Ladder 100, a tiller ladder apparatus, is the first arriving Ladder Company and operating on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street. Ladder 200, an aerial ladder company, arrives 2nd due to the fire.

17. Which action taken by the Inside Team of Ladder 200 should be corrected? (Sec. 5.8 F, 5.8.1)

(A) The Officer ordered the inside team to operate on the top floor of 98 Pine Street.
(B) The extinguisher FF left his extinguisher on the apparatus and took two 6’ hooks into the building.
(C) The Officer ordered his inside team to make inspection holes in the ceiling of each room.
(D) After notifying the IC that there was heavy fire in the cockloft, the Officer heard a HT transmission stating that there was heavy fire in the cockloft of Exposure 2A, 96 Pine Street. The Officer immediately called for a handline to the top floor of 98 Pine Street.

Answer 17

17. D

TOP FLOOR FIRE: Brownstone Type (3 window front)

INSIDE TEAM

(Second Arriving Ladder - RowFrame Building - Brownstone Type)

TOOLS: Remain the same.

Consideration should be given to the extinguisher firefighter taking two 6’ hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher. The forcible entry firefighter can assist with the pulling of ceilings, once finished with other duties.

POSITION:

Initially, the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure.

DUTIES:

1. VEIS top floor of exposure.
2. Examine the cockloft. Make inspection holes in the ceiling of each room to check for fire extension. Don’t pull the entire ceiling until a charged line is in position.
3. When fire is discovered in the cockloft, the IC must be notified immediately.
4. When it is determined that a stop of the fire can be made in this building, a hand line must be called for.
5. When a stop cannot be made in this building, they must move to additional exposures to determine boundaries of the fire spread. This might entail skipping a building at a fast spreading fire.

OUTSIDE TEAM

(Second Arriving Ladder - RowFrame Building - Brownstone Type)

CHAUFFEUR

TOOLS: Remain the same.

POSITION: Front of building.

DUTIES:

1. Position apparatus for laddering operations on the front of the fire building for rescue purposes and / or roof access.

The need for rescuing trapped occupants shall take preference when positioning apparatus

2. When no longer needed at the aerial, goes into an exposure as directed by their officer. VEIS the top floor and examine the cockloft as per Inside Team duties.

NOTE:
When exposed building is an IDLH area then members shall team up before entering exposures.

Question 18

Answer Questions 17 - 19 based on the information below.
Units respond to a fire on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street, a 4 story “Brownstone Type” Row frame building. The fire building is the middle building in a row of 7 similar attached occupied dwellings. Fire is venting from two top floor windows of 100 Pine Street, and heavy smoke is pushing from the top floor of Exposure 2, 98 Pine Street. There is a medium smoke condition in 102 Pine Street, which is the Exposure 4 building. Ladder 100, a tiller ladder apparatus, is the first arriving Ladder Company and operating on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street. Ladder 200, an aerial ladder company, arrives 2nd due to the fire.

18. Which action taken by the LCC and OV FF from Ladder 200 was incorrect? (Sec. 5.8.1, Outside Team)
    (A) The LCC positioned the apparatus in the front of the fire building while considering the need for rescuing trapped occupants.
    (B) The OV FF checked the rear of the building after ensuring that laddering operations were not needed in the front.
    (C) After determining that he was no longer needed at the aerial, the LCC joined the Inside Team of Ladder 200.
    (D) Due to the building not having a rear fire escape, the OV FF called the LCC via HT to team up and examine the top floor of Exposure 4.

Answer 18

18. C
19. When no longer needed at the aerial, goes into an exposure as directed by their officer. VEIS the top floor and examine the cockloft as per Inside Team duties

Question 19

Answer Questions 17 - 19 based on the information below.
Units respond to a fire on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street, a 4 story “Brownstone Type” Row frame building. The fire building is the middle building in a row of 7 similar attached occupied dwellings. Fire is venting from two top floor windows of 100 Pine Street, and heavy smoke is pushing from the top floor of Exposure 2, 98 Pine Street. There is a medium smoke condition in 102 Pine Street, which is the Exposure 4 building. Ladder 100, a tiller ladder apparatus, is the first arriving Ladder Company and operating on the 4th floor of 100 Pine Street. Ladder 200, an aerial ladder company, arrives 2nd due to the fire.

19. The Roof FF of Ladder 200 operated incorrectly in which choice? (Sec. 5.8.1 Outside Team)
    (A) Proceeded to the roof carrying a saw and 6’ Halligan Hook
    (B) Using a Partner saw, the roof was cut over the front two rooms. After the initial cut was completed and opened, it was enlarged.
    (C) After cutting the roof, the Roof FF made examination holes in the returns of all of the exposures to check for extension of fire.
    (D) Upon discovering fire in the cockloft of Exposure 4, the Roof FF notified the IC and Officer of Ladder 200 via HT.

Answer 19

19. C
20. Make examination holes in the returns of the exposures. Use caution in opening returns as the fire may suddenly vent and cause face burns to the members operating. Check for extension, and report the results to company officer and IC.
21. Caution should be exercised when choosing returns to be opened. Returns remote from the fire should be avoided, as this action could spread the fire in the cockloft.

Question 20

20. When the 1st arriving Ladder Company at a Row frame fire is a Tower Ladder, the LCC shall remain at the pedestal for overall safety, control and coordination. Which action taken by the other members of the Outside Team for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story Row frame is correct? (Sec. 5.9)
    (A) At a “Brownstone Type” Row frame, the OV waited for completion of the roof size up before repositioning the basket to the 4th floor for VEIS. Prior to VEIS the OV teamed up with the Roof FF.
    (B) At a “Brownstone type” Row frame, the OV FF waited for completion of the roof size up before repositioning the basket to the 3rd floor for ventilation as coordinated by the Ladder Officer. After venting the 3rd floor, the OV teamed up with the Roof FF and repositioned the basket to the 4th floor for VEIS.
    (C) At an “OLT type” Row frame, the OV waited for completion of roof size up before repositioning the basket to the 3rd floor for VEIS.
    (D) At an “OLT type” Row frame, the OV waited for completion of roof size up before repositioning the basket to the 4th floor for VEIS.

Answer 20

20. B

A. When the basket is used for roof access the saw and life saving rope will be brought to the roof.

B. BROWNSTONE TYPE:

The OV will wait for completion of roof size up before repositioning the basket to the fire floor for ventilation as coordinated with and ordered by the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented. After venting the fire floor, reposition the basket to the top floor for VEIS. Prior to VEIS of the top floor the OV shall team up with the roof firefighter (or another available member).

C. OLD LAW TENEMENT TYPE:

The OV will wait for completion of roof size up before repositioning the basket to the fire floor for ventilation.

Question 21

21. Engine Companies have several general rules to adhere to at Row frame fires. Which one is not correct? (Sec. 6.1 A, B, C)
    (A) Speed, operating in close quarters, and mobility of operation are of prime importance, therefore all interior hoselines stretched will be considered 1 3⁄4”.
    (B) Officers of all engines arriving at fires will take positions at serviceable hydrants. They shall be alert to initiate in-line pumping when it would increase the speed of operation.
    (C) The Officer should realize that the use of booster tank water, while the ECC is hooking up to the hydrant, will make for a speedier operation. The Officer must be informed when the pumper is receiving water from the hydrant.
    (D) The first arriving Engine Company, operating in the original fire building at a top floor fire that has extended to the cockloft, should take a six-foot hook to pull ceilings.

Answer 21

21. D

C. An engine company, ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take a six-foot hook to pull ceilings.

Question 22

22. Engine 721, Engine 772, and Engine 333 are assigned to a fire in the cellar a 3 story Row frame Building at 200 Irving Ave. There is an outside cellar entrance in the front of the building. Assuming the engine companies arrived in order of assignment, and teamed up to stretch hoselines, which company operated incorrectly? (Sec. 6.2)
    (A) Engine 721 stretched the first hoseline through the front door, then to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.
    (B) Engine 721 stretched the first hoseline though the front door, but was unable to advance down to the cellar due to the intensity of the fire, so the hoseline remained on the first floor to protect the public hall and stairs.
    (C) Due to the 1st hoseline being used to cover the first floor public hall, and a backup line not needed, Engine 333 stretched a hoseline into the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.
    (D) After determining that the 1st hoseline could not be advanced down to the cellar via the interior stairs, Engine 721 stretched their hoseline to the top floor to extinguish fire after the cellar fire was controlled by the 2nd hoseline. Intervening floors were checked for fire on the way to the top floor, and a member was stationed on the landing.

Answer 22

22. C
23. If the first hoseline is used to cover the first floor public hall, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

Question 23

23. Which handline is stretched to the incorrect place for a fire on the first floor? (Sec. 6.3)
    (A) In a “Brownstone type” Row frame, the 1st hoseline is stretched through the front door on the parlor floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
    (B) In an “OLT type” Row frame, the 1st hoseline is stretched to the location of the fire.
    (C) In an “OLT type” Row frame, the 2nd hoseline, if not needed to back up the 1st hoseline, is stretched to the floor above the fire.
    (D) In a “Brownstone type” Row frame, the 2nd hoseline, if not needed to back up the 1st hoseline, is stretched through the front door on the second floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

Answer 23

23. A

NOTE:
In a Brownstone type Row Frame, the first hoseline shall be stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the fire. The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

Question 24

24. Fires on upper floors have the potential to develop into large, serious fires. Which hoseline is not following proper procedure for a fire on an upper floor? (Sec. 6.4)
    (A) The 1st hoseline should be stretched to the location of the fire via the interior stairs.
    (B) The 1st hoseline needs to have sufficient length to cover the entire building.
    (C) The 2nd hoseline, if not needed to back up the 1st hoseline, must be stretched to an exposure.
    (D) When the 2nd hoseline is stretched to an exposure, it must have sufficient length to cover the entire building.

Answer 24

24. C

B. Second hoseline

The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, should be stretched to the top floor or to the floor above. If a fire is reported in the exposure, the second hoseline may be more effective being stretched to the exposure, with the third or fourth hoseline stretched to back up hoseline #l. This hoseline will need to have sufficient length to cover the entire building

Question 25

25. BC QUESTION - If necessary, the Incident Commander should order a third hoseline
    stretched as needed at a fire on the 1st floor or upper floor to all except? (Sec. 6.3 C, 6.4 C)
    (A) To the fire building
    (B) To an exposure
    (C) To supply a tower ladder
    (D) Through the fire building to the rear yard.

Answer 25

25. D

C. Third hoseline

If necessary the Incident Commander should order a third hoseline stretched as needed:

1. To the fire building.
2. To an exposure.
3. To supply a tower ladder.
4. Through an exposure to the rear yard.

Question 26

26. Which action taken at a building fully involved with fire showing in the exposures, also known as a “Holding Operation”, was correct? (Sec. 6.5)
    (A) The first arriving engine company stretched two hoselines, one for entering the building and one to be used by the 3rd engine company.
    (B) The first and second hoselines are always stretched to the fire building.
    (C) The third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of an exposure.
    (D) The 4th hoseline is always stretched to supply a Large Caliber Stream.

Answer 26

26. C

6.5
Building Fully Involved and Fire in Exposures-Holding Operation

When a building is fully involved with fire showing in exposure(s) the first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline for entering the building. Prior to the use of the TL stream, multiversal nozzle on the pumper, or heavy caliber stream, consideration must be given to the life hazard and the need for advancement of an interior hoseline.

A. First hoseline

The first hoseline is stretched into the fire building through the front door.

B. Second hoseline

The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure. This hoseline will be needed to protect the cockloft, and interior shafts. While proceeding to top floor check intermediate floors for fire.

C. Third hoseline

If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure. If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure. This hoseline will be needed to protect the cockloft, and interior shafts. While proceeding to top floor check intermediate floors for fire.

D. Fourth hoseline

Stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Question 27

28. Which choice is incorrect concerning engine operations at a heavy fire in a vacant building in a row of vacant buildings? (Sec. 6.7 B)

(A) The first to arrive engine Company stretches a 3 1/2” hoseline to supply a tower ladder and stretches a hoseline for use on the exterior of the building.
(B) The first hoseline initially operates from the exterior until the tower ladder, multiversal, or a heavy caliber stream can be placed into operation. The hoseline is then stretched into the most severe exposure.
(C) The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the opposite exposure or through the exposure to the rear yard.
(D) Either the first or second hoseline is stretched to the fire building.

Answer 27

28. D

B. Vacant Building(s) in a Row

1. The first to arrive engine company stretches a 3 ½” hoseline to supply a tower ladder, and stretches a hoseline for use on the exterior of the building. If necessary, the first engine company can position the apparatus to use the multiversal nozzle. In line pumping should be given consideration in this type of situation.
2. First hoseline

Initially operate from the exterior until the tower ladder, multiversal, or a heavy caliber stream can be placed into operation. The hoseline is then stretched into the most severe exposure.

3. Second hoseline

If not needed to back up the first hoseline, stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard.

4. Additional hoselines

As directed by the Incident Commander.

Question 28

27. Fires in vacant Row frame buildings must be treated with great caution. Choose the incorrect action taken at a fire in a vacant building in a row of occupied Row frames. (Sec. 6.7 A)
    (A) The first engine company dropped two hoselines: a 3 1⁄2” line to supply a tower ladder and a hoseline stretched to the fire building.
    (B) The second hoseline was stretched to back up the first hoseline.
    (C) The second hoseline was stretched to the fire building.
    (D) The second hoseline was stretched to an exposure.

Answer 28

27. A

A. Vacant Buildings in a Row of Occupied Frames

1 The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.

2. First hoseline

First hoseline is stretched to most severe exposure.

3. Second hoseline

If not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.

4. Third hoseline

Stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.

5. Fourth hoseline

As ordered by the Incident Commander.

6. Occupied exposures should be given the first consideration and all operations should be in that direction.
7. A heavy fire requires the use of one or more tower ladders. Hoselines should be laid by engine companies with this in mind.

Question 29

29. Ensuring that sufficient units are on hand to fight Row frame building fires is extremely important. Which general guideline is not correct? (Sec. 7.6)
    (A) When a floor is fully involved from front to rear, it is advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.
    (B) When two or more floors are fully involved, the need for a second alarm must be considered.
    (C) When a top floor fire has extended to the cockloft, a second alarm is required.
    (D) When two buildings are involved, we have a second alarm situation.
    (E) Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when the fire extends
    beyond two buildings.

Answer 29

29. B

7.6
Most fires in these buildings will be extinguished by first alarm units or an all hands assignment. When we are using all hands and the fire is not under control, it may be necessary to special call an extra engine and ladder to the scene. While no guidelines can be firmly set, the following rules generally apply because of the rapid spread of fire in these buildings:

A. When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.

B. When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.

C. When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation. Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings. It is imperative battalion firefighters stay with their assigned chief during the incident in the event a command channel is activated.

D. As fire conditions expand the Incident Commander must consider the span of control and assign chief officers to supervise sectors and groups as needed.

Question 30

30. BC QUESTION - The IC has many duties and strategies to consider. Which one is not correct? (Sec. 7.2, 7.7, 7.9, 7.10)
    (A) When the fire is of multiple alarm proportion, the strategy is to set up a perimeter of heavy caliber streams flanking the front of the building, with 1 3⁄4” lines in the front and rear of the building.
    (B) To cut off fire that is traveling in the cockloft towards the exposures, it may be necessary to skip a building to get ahead of the fire. Once a line has been placed in proper position, it can advance to the center of the fire area by going through the walls between the buildings.
    (C) To determine conditions on arrival the Chief must use the HT to determine: the extent of fire in the cockloft, how many buildings are involved, physical punishment sustained by members, and the degree of fire in the rear and accessibility to the rear of the building via the street in the rear.
    (D) When addresses are prominent and/or buildings can readily be distinguished from each other by features the IC may use plain English to assign units to exposure sectors.

Answer 30

30. A

7.7
When the fire is of a multiple alarm proportion, the strategy is to set up a perimeter of lines consisting usually of heavy caliber streams in the front and the rear, with 1 ¾” lines flanking the sides of the fire and moving toward the center of the fire. As hand lines reach the center of the fire, the outside lines must not be directed into the buildings in which the companies are operating.

Question 31

1. Who would implement the FDNY Emergency Response Plan for Hazardous Materials, using the Incident Command System, at an incident involving a hazardous material where there exists danger to the health and safety to the general public and emergency personnel? (Sec. 1.2)
   (A) The senior ranking Fire Department representative on scene, who could be the first arriving Officer.
   (B) Only an Incident Commander with the rank of Chief Officer.
   (C) The Officer of Haz Mat Company 1, who was special called by the Battalion Chief on
   scene.
   (D) Only an Incident Commander above the rank of Deputy Chief.

Answer 31

1. A

1.2
In the event of any incident involving a hazardous material where there exists danger to the health or safety of emergency personnel or the general public, the senior ranking Fire Department representative on scene, referred to as the Incident Commander (IC), will implement the FDNY Emergency Response Plan for Hazardous Materials, using the Incident Command System (ICS).

Question 32

2. The initial responsibility for assessment of incident hazards lies with the first responding units. Members can use shipping documents found in transportation vehicles to assist them in identifying the hazardous material. In which choice would members not be successful in obtaining these documents? (Sec. 3.3.5)
   (A) Bills of lading found in trucks.
   (B) Cargo manifest found in railcars.
   (C) Air bill found in airplanes.
   (D) Cargo manifest found in ships and barges.

Answer 32

2. B

A. Shipping documents found in transportation vehicles such as trucks (bill of lading), railcars (waybill), ships and barges (cargo manifest) and airplanes (air bill) identifying the hazardous materials carried, the quantities, the types of containers and other important clues.

Question 33

3. Control zones are often established at Haz-Mat incidents to reduce the potential for transfer of contaminants. The Hot Zone, also known as the Exclusion Zone, is the innermost area of the scene and is considered contaminated or “Hot”. Choose the incorrect point about this zone. (Sec. 4.2)
   (A) The Hotline, the boundary of the Exclusion Zone, should be established initially based on the type of released material(s) and the initial instrument readings.
   (B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.
   (C) Once established, the Hotline will remain fixed until the incident has been declared “Under Control” and FD Operations have concluded.
   (D) People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone should be considered contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

Answer 33

3. C
4. 2.5 The Hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements. RED barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.

Question 34

4. The Contamination Reduction Zone or Warm Zone lies between the Exclusion Zone and Hot Zone. Which choice is correct concerning this zone? (Sec. 4.3, 4.4.3)
   (A) All decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.
   (B) The Contamination Control Line is the boundary between the Exclusion Zone and the Contamination Reduction Zone.
   (C) White barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination Reduction Zone.
   (D) Members exiting the Contamination Reduction Zone to the Support Zone will remove any suspected or known contaminant in the Support Zone.

Answer 34

4. 4-A (Between the “Exclusion Zone” & “cold Zone”)

4.3.4 The Contamination Control Line is the boundary between the CRZ and the Support Zone. This boundary separates the possibly contaminated area from the
uncontaminated area.

4.3.5 YELLOW barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the
Contamination Reduction Zone.

4.4.3 No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support
Zone.

Question 35

5. There are several different types of decontamination used at an incident depending on the safety and health hazard of the contaminants. Which type of decontamination is described incorrectly? (Sec. 4.3.9 B,C)
   (A) Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible, and must involve the formal establishment of a decontamination system.
   (B) Gross Decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non-emergency decontamination. Its purpose is to remove large amounts of contaminants in a short period of time.
   (C) Two common methods of Gross Decontamination used in emergencies are Wet and Dry Decontamination. Dry Decontamination involves either the removal of outer clothing or all garments worn by the individual.
   (D) Dry Decontamination may be necessary if atmospheric conditions are such that wetting the victim may cause injuries such as hypothermia or if the reaction of the material with water may cause more harm than the material itself.

Answer 35

5. A

B. Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible and may or may not involve the formal establishment of a decontamination system.

Question 36

6. Decontamination is performed to reduce levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances from personnel, equipment and apparatus. Choose the incorrect choice concerning decontamination. (Sec. 4.3.9 D, E, F)
   (A) Technical Decontamination is a more thorough decontamination process and follows Gross Decontamination.
   (B) Victims have generally been medically stabilized and time is not critical during Technical Decontamination.
   (C) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, victims should be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport whenever possible.
   (D) A single decontamination area should be established for both victims and emergency personnel. This avoids duplication of services and limits confusion.

Answer 36

6. D

F. Separate decontamination areas should be established for emergency
personnel; members may be operating on a limited supply of air and must be
decontaminated as expeditiously as possible.

Question 37

7. When responding to Haz-Mat incidents, members should use full firefighting gear and SCBA as a minimum to protect against exposure. The use of chemical protective clothing (CPC) requires specific skills through training. Which choice is incorrect concerning CPC? (Sec. 5.4, 5.5, 5.6, 5.7)
   (A) CPC offers little to no thermal protection in case of fire. No one suit offers protection from all hazards.
   (B) The level of protection required in each zone at an incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size-up and monitoring data provided by the officer in charge of Haz-Mat resources.
   (C) Level A and Level B CPC clothing offer the highest level of respiratory protection through the use of an SCBA. Level A clothing is vapor tight, while Level B clothing provides splash protection.
   (D) Level C protective clothing can be used when the types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations measured, the atmosphere is not oxygen deficient, and the filter cartridges provided are designed for the known contaminant(s).
   (E) Bunker gear is classified as Level D CPC protective clothing.

Answer 37

7. E

5.6.4 Level D: This level of protection provides minimal protection and is used to guard
against nuisance contamination only.
5.7 Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is not classified as chemical
protective clothing.

Question 38

8. Each designated riding position on the apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. Which of the following would allow the use of an APR? (Sec. 7.3)
   (A) The air contaminant has not been identified.
   (B) The oxygen level is 20.5%.
   (C) The concentration of the material has not been measured.
   (D) The filter cartridge is not specific for the contaminant.
   (E) Air monitoring is performed daily.

Answer 38

8. E (according to FT website but B also qualifies)

7.3 Each designated riding position on fire apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator
(APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. This can only be done after:
 The air contaminant has been identified
 The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%
 The concentration of the material has been measured
 The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant
 Air monitoring is on-going

Question 39

9. BC QUESTION - Several specialized Chief Officers may be assigned to Haz-Mat incidents. Which choice is correct concerning these resources? (Sec. 8.1, 8.2, 8.3, 8.4, ICS Ch. 2 Add. 5 Sec. 4)
   (A) The Chief in Charge of Haz-Mat Operations will assume command and assume the role of Incident Commander.
   (B) Regardless of the size of the incident, the Haz-Mat Battalion will operate from a position that directly supervises entry teams and on-scene Haz-Mat units.
   (C) At most small incidents, the SOC Battalion will directly supervise entry teams. At larger, more complex incidents, the SOC Battalion will operate in the Contamination Reduction Zone and directly supervise member and civilian decontamination.
   (D) At Haz-Mat incidents that involve unusual rescue operations, the SOC Battalion Chief will oversee the rescue operations. A special-called BC shall fill the role of the SOC Battalion in supervising decontamination procedures.
   (E) The Safety Operating Battalion will be designated as the Safety Officer at all Haz-Mat incidents.

Answer 39

9. D
10. 1 Chief-in-Charge of Haz-Mat Operations
11. 1.1 Chief-in-Charge of Haz-Mat Operations is assigned overall administration of Haz- Mat resources. This includes training, equipment procurement, research and development, standard tactics and procedures and interagency coordination.
12. 1.2 The Chief-in-Charge is notified by FDOC and will respond as needed. At hazardous material incidents the Chief-in-Charge will support the Haz-Mat Battalion and advise the IC.
13. 2.2 At most small incidents the Haz-Mat Battalion will operate from a position that directly supervises entry teams and on-scene Haz-Mat units. The Haz-Mat Battalion will report directly to the IC and remain in radio contact if not nearby to provide progress reports to the IC.
14. 2.3 At larger, more complex incidents the Haz-Mat Battalion may operate at the Command Post with the IC in an advisory role until relieved by the Chief-in- Charge of Haz-Mat Operations
15. 3 SOC Battalion
16. 3.1 The SOC Battalion operates within the Haz-Mat Branch/Group and may be special called to hazardous materials incidents. The SOC Battalion Chief and Firefighter are trained to the Technician II level and receive additional specialized training.
17. 3.2 At most small incidents the SOC Battalion will operate in the Contamination Reduction Zone and directly supervise member and civilian decontamination. The SOC Battalion will maintain radio communications with both the IC and the Haz-Mat Battalion. This includes the supervision of the Decon Support Unit.
18. 3.3 At larger, more complex hazardous materials incidents, the SOC Battalion may directly supervise entry teams and on-scene Haz-Mat units.
19. 3.4 At hazardous materials incidents that involve unusual rescue operations, the SOC Battalion Chief will oversee the rescue operations. A special-called Battalion Chief shall fill the role of the SOC Battalion in supervising decontamination

Question 40

10. The FDNY has several units with specialized Haz-Mat training, including Haz-Mat Company 1 and Haz-Mat Technician Units (HMTU). Which action taken was incorrect? (Sec. 8.5, 8.6)
    (A) Haz-Mat Co. 1 was not on scene, so HMTU Engine 250 consulted with Haz-Mat Co. 1 via cell phone for technical advice.
    (B) HMTU Engine 165 performed initial monitoring at a tanker truck leak on the Staten Island Expressway in Bunker Gear and SCBA.
    (C) HMTU Engine 274 initiated a rescue of an unconscious worker at an ice skating rink after determining the hazard was an ammonia leak and their protective gear would adequately protect them.
    (D) The IC ordered HMTU Engine 274 not to initiate a rescue of an unconscious worker at a suspected ammonia leak until the arrival of the required second HMTU to establish a rescuer decontamination area.

Answer 40

10. D

8.6 Haz-Mat Technician Units (HMTU)
Haz-Mat Technician Unit members are Technician II Level, completing over 120 hours of
training.
8.6.1 These units are trained in air monitoring instruments and tactics as well as basic
control, containment and decontamination procedures. HMTUs carry all levels of
CPC and equipment for containment and decontamination in a second apparatus.
8.6.2 HMTU primary responsibilities include:
A. Initiate on-scene monitoring to determine risk levels for rescue and control
activities. Initial monitoring may be done in firefighting PPE and SCBA to
determine proper level of PPE.
B. Initiate rescue tactics if determined to be an acceptable risk
C. Initiate control and containment activities
D. Establish rescuer decontamination area prior to entry. This may be done by
an engine company with a handline and fog nozzle if timing is critical and
Haz-Mat resources are not on-scene.
E. Begin the identification process of the released material, its’ associated
hazards and its’ health effects
F. Complete recovery and termination activities if within the units’ capabilities

Question 41

11. SOC Support Ladder Companies (SSL) and CPC Ladder Companies are trained in all levels of CPC. Choose an incorrect statement about the abilities and responsibilities of these companies. (Sec. 8.8, 8.9)

(A) SSL Companies should conduct air monitoring to identify safe zones if it is not already in progress.
(B) The primary objective of CPC Ladder Companies is to perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
(C) CPC Ladder Companies should conduct air monitoring in the Exclusion Zone if Technician companies are not performing monitoring.
(D) SSL Companies should assist with rescue of victims if HMTU or Haz-Mat Co. 1 is on-scene and conducting air monitoring.

Answer 41

11. C

8.9.2 Members of CPC Ladder Companies are trained in all levels of CPC but should
only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technician companies are monitoring the
environment. CPC Ladder Companies are only equipped with PPE and do not
have any monitoring devices.

Question 42

12. BC QUESTION - The Incident Commander has many duties at a Haz-Mat incident, including ensuring scene safety and a hazard analysis is performed. Which choice is improperly stated concerning these duties? (Sec. 9.3, 9.4)
    (A) The IC should ensure that persons entering or leaving a control zone check in and out at the Access Control Points.
    (B) If the presence of hazardous materials is known prior to commencing operations, the IC will confirm site control and hazard assessment assignments for the first arriving companies.
    (C) If the presence of hazardous materials is determined during an operation, the IC must immediately assign a company to perform a hazard assessment to determine the health and safety effects on members operating in the area.
    (D) The IC shall assign hazard identification and control to the first CPC Ladder Company on scene, until relieved by a Haz-Mat Technician Unit.

Answer 42

12. B

B. Assign hazard identification and control to the first Technician Unit on-scene until relieved by Haz-Mat Company 1.

Question 43

13. There are two ways to protect the public from the effects of hazardous material discharges into the environment; evacuation and sheltering in place. When would evacuation not be the best option? (Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.2)
    (A) There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.
    (B) The potential for discharge is low, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people.
    (C) The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation.
    (D) People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.

Answer 43

13. B

9.5.2 Evacuation is best considered when:
A. There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion
B. The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time
to relocate people
C. The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit
time for evacuation
D. People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing
conditions

Question 44

14. Sheltering-in-place involves giving instructions to people to remain where they are until the danger passes. In which of the following situations would sheltering-in-place be appropriate or the preferred choice? (Sec. 9.5.4, 9.5.5)
15. Preplanning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies.
16. Evacuation can be properly managed with the manpower, resources and facilities available.
17. The hazardous material has low to moderate toxicity.
18. The material is partially released and increasing in concentration.
19. A large quantity solid or liquid leak.
20. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.
21. The release can be rapidly controlled at the source.
22. The hazardous material will not affect the structure and its occupants, or the hazard will pass the structure with little infiltration.

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
(B) 1, 3, 6, 7, 8 only
(C) 1, 3, 5 only
D) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 only

Answer 44

14. B

9.5.4 The decision to shelter-in-place is appropriate when the hazardous material will not affect the structure and its occupants, or the hazard will pass a structure with
little infiltration.
9.5.5 Sheltering-in-place is the preferred alternative when:
A. Pre-planning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies
B. Evacuation cannot be properly managed with the manpower, resources and
facilities presently available
C. The hazardous material displays the following characteristics:
1. Low to moderate toxicity
2. Totally released and dissipating
3. Small quantity solid or liquid leak
4. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside
5. Release can be rapidly controlled at the source

Question 45

15. Units responded to a chlorine gas leak at the bottom of a hill, with a 20 MPH wind from the north to the south. Which of the following facilities was established in the wrong area? (Sec. 9.6.1, 9.6.2, 9.6.3, 9.6.4)
    (A) The Command Post was established uphill and north of the incident. The IC notified all units on scene, the units still responding, and other agencies responding of the location of the Command Post.
    (B) A preliminary Staging Area was established uphill and north of the incident.
    (C) The Safe Refuge Area was established in the Support Zone for people removed from the hazardous area before decontamination.
    (D) The Casualty Collection Point was established in the Support Zone for EMS to triage and treat decontaminated victims.

Answer 45

15. C

9.6.3 Safe Refuge Area(s)
The Safe Refuge Area is established in the Contamination Reduction Zone for people removed from the hazardous area before decontamination.

Question 46

16. If initial units at a Haz-Mat incident determine that there is a known life hazard prior to arrival of Haz-Mat resources with CPC, a risk analysis must be done to determine whether they should attempt rescue of the victim. Which choice is properly stated? (Sec. 10.7)

(A) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger.
(B) Involvement in complicated rescue situations are not to be attempted.
(C) When the probability is high that the victim is viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at any risk.
(D) The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or potential explosion is very low and rarely needs to be considered.

Answer 46

16. A
17. 7 Rescue: Risk versus Benefit
18. 7.1 If initial units determine that there is a known life hazard prior to the arrival of Haz-Mat resources with CPC, a risk analysis must be done to determine whether they should attempt rescue of the victim.
19. 7.2 Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should be carefully evaluated before being attempted.
20. 7.3 When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or a potential explosion may also make the risk unacceptable.

Question 47

1. It is important for Officers to be familiar with arson terms and definitions. Which of the following is correct? (Sec. 1.2.2, 1.2.3, 1.2.4, 1.2.5, 1.2.7)
   (A) An Incendiary Fire is a designation given to a fire, in which the Incident Commander has determined through physical examination of the fire scene and interview with witnesses that the fire was intentionally set by someone.
   (B) A Suspicious Fire is a designation given by the Fire Marshal. If there are indications that the fire may have been set and all accidental causes have been eliminated, the fire is designated as Suspicious.
   (C) Trailers are materials used to initiate a fire.
   (D) Plants are material arranged to start and feed the initial fire.

Answer 47

1. D

1.2.2 Incendiary Fire:
A designation given to a fire, in which the Fire Marshal has determined through physical examination of the fire scene and interview with witnesses that the fire was intentionally set by someone.

1.2.3 Suspicious:
A designation given by the Incident Commander in command of a fire operation and is one of the circumstances in which the Fire Marshal is called to the fire scene to investigate and determine the cause, origin and circumstances of the fire.

1.2.4 Trailers:
Material arranged to spread fire from its point of origin to other areas of an
occupancy. (Cotton waste, rags, paper, fluids, excelsior, waste film and others.)

1.2.5 Plants:
Material arranged to start and feed initial fire. (Candles, matches, electrical,
mechanical, chemicals and others.)

Question 48

2. Company Officers and Firefighters, first at the scene, have an excellent opportunity to make observations that a Fire Marshal, arriving later, cannot be expected to make. Which observations should Company Officers and Firefighters write down? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.6, 3.20)
3. The license number and description of a car leaving the fire building or vicinity of the fire in what could be interpreted as a suspicious manner.
4. Whether doors and windows were open or shut, particularly on a warm day.
5. Where flames were first seen and their appearance.
6. Out of service hydrants; hydrants knocked over, blocked or clogged with rubbish and if all caps were removed.
7. Information received from occupants and witnesses.
   (A) 1, 2, 3 only
   (B) 1, 3, 5 only
   (C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
   (D) 2, 3, 4 only

Answer 48

4 was correct too

2. B

2.2 Observe whether doors and windows are open or shut, particularly on a cold day.
Note if window shades were drawn to block the outside view, particularly during the daytime.

2.6 Check for out of service hydrants; hydrants knocked over, blocked or clogged with
rubbish and if all caps were removed. Note if the standpipe or sprinkler siamese was
broken or out of service.

Question 49

3. The presence of flammable accelerants may indicate that the fire was Incendiary. Which of the following is not an indicator of the use of flammable accelerants? (Sec. 3.7, 3.11, 6.5.3, 6.5.4)
   (A) Charring of the floor or low burn marks on the wall or under the door or on the lower part of the door.
   (B) Char in broken patterns or “puddle-like” circle burns on the floor.
   (C) Low burning and deep charring.
   (D) Heavy body of fire with little contents. Accelerants increase damage.
   (E) “V” Pattern of burning on a wall.

Answer 49

3. E

6.5.4 “V” Pattern burns may help to identify the point of origin.**
A. “V” Pattern burns usually point toward the point of origin.
B. Absence of “V” Pattern of burning could mean an accelerant was used. Rapid intense heat from accelerant may cause perpendicular burns on
walls.
** Because of the upward tendency of every fire, some type of inverted conical shape or “V” pattern burn may be characteristic; the apex at the bottom being the point of ignition, with the fire rising and spreading.
Naturally, this pattern will be altered by the presence of any obstruction, or of readily burned fuel in localized areas.

Question 50

4. At fatal fires and arson investigations, security of the incident scene is of the utmost importance, and a fire line may be established. Relatives, neighbors, spectators, the media and members of the Department shall not cross established fire lines unless authorized by _______. (Sec. 4.1)
   (A) The assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations.
   (B) The assigned Fire Marshal only.
   (C) The Incident Commander.
   (D) The Chief of Operations only.

Answer 50

4. A

Question 51

5. When a fire results in a fatality, when and where possible, and fire conditions permit, do not move the body of a 10-45-1 pending arrival of the Fire Marshal and Medical Examiner. Members should note and observe the condition of the victim to assist the Fire Marshal and Medical Examiner in determining if the victim was dead before the fire or died as a result of the fire. Which of the following would be considered suspicious? (Sec. 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
   (A) The victim appears life-like with pink to cherry red lips, eyelids and skin.
   (B) The victim has soot in and around their nose and mouth.
   (C) The victim is found lying supine (on their back) and only the skin on their back and rear of their legs is red.
   (D) The victim is found in a pugilistic position with their skull giving the appearance that it exploded.

Answer 51

5. C

4.5 Lividity is caused by the settling of blood to the lowest horizontal areas of the body; may
show as pink or red skin. (Do not confuse with CO cherry red color.)
Lividity usually starts one to two hours after death and is completed after three to four
hours and could indicate that the victim was moved after death and placed at the fire
scene.

Question 52

6. BC QUESTION - When a fire was not extensive and the fire units are returned to service, the Officer in Charge must ensure that evidence is safeguarded. What would be a correct procedure to order? (Sec. 5.1, 5.1.1, 5.1.2, 5.1.3)
   (A) One firefighter, fulfilling a watchline function with a hand extinguisher, is not sufficient to establish the Fire Department control of the premises.
   (B) To safeguard a firefighter performing a watchline, a request for assistance should be made to the Police Department.
   (C) An NYPD Police Officer may be left at the scene alone to safeguard the evidence.
   (D) No one should be allowed into the occupancy until the Deputy Chief gives authorization.

Answer 52

6. B

5.1 Safeguarding procedures must be taken by the officer in charge where a fire was not extensive and the fire units are returned to service.
5.1.1 One firefighter, fulfilling a watchline function with a hand extinguisher, is sufficient to establish the Fire Department control of the premises.
5.1.2 To safeguard the firefighter, and provide additional security, a request for assistance should be made to the Police Department. Do not leave only the
patrolman in charge.
5.1.3 No one should be allowed into the occupancy until the Fire Marshal arrives. When he does arrive, the firefighter can return to his unit.

Question 53

7. As your unit is overhauling at a Private Dwelling fire, one of your members notices what appears to be a flammable liquid floating on water that has accumulated on the floor. After you notify the IC, you are ordered to collect the flammable liquid due to the Fire Marshals currently operating at a fire with multiple fatalities and will not be responding. What would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 5.3, 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.3, 5.3.4)
   (A) Skim the surface of the water containing the flammable liquid with a clean, used one gallon metal paint can.
   (B) Use a clean glass jar with a loosely fitting lid.
   (C) Place the evidence in a new, heavy gauge plastic bag and tie it closed. Then place that bag into another new, heavy gauge plastic bag and tie that bag closed.
   (D) Ask the IC if the Photo Unit is responding. If the IC responds that they are, label the evidence prior to the Photo Units arrival so the pictures can be used to accurately portray the evidence.

Answer 53

7. C

5.3 One method is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials .
5.3.1 This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used.)
A. The evidence should be cut or folded to fit into the can and top must be tamped securely into place immediately.
B. Most common flammable liquids will float on water. A sample can be taken from the water on the floor or in the basement. Merely skim the surface of the water and enclose the sample in a clean new can.
5.3.2 If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid. The rubber seal around the lid may react with the sample and contaminate the
evidence.
5.3.3 Try to avoid the use of plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container.
5.3.4 A plastic bag can be used in an emergency. It should be new, of heavy gauge and used in pairs.
A. Place evidence into one bag and tie it closed. Then place that bag into the other and tie it closed.
B. As soon as possible, place into a can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal.

Question 54

8. After the fire has been knocked down, and secondary searches are in progress, the IC asks you via HT if you can determine the point of origin. You notice several glass objects that have been affected by the fire. Which thought is correct? (Sec. 6.7.2, 6.7.3)

(A) Small crazing of the glass indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or a relatively slow heat build up.
(B) Large crazing means intense and rapid heat build up and will be found closer to the point of origin.
(C) Checkering of glass (half moon effects or marks) usually results from water being applied to heated glass.
(D) Checkering of glass indicates the window was broken prior to firefighters operating at the fire.

Answer 54

8. C
9. 7.2 Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a slow fire build up. Light smoke stains usually indicate a rapid build up of the fire, little fire damage and are found close to the point of origin. (Hydro-carbons or products thereof may be an exception to the above).

6.7.3 Crazing of glass (cracking due to heat).
♦ Small crazing means intense and rapid heat build up and will be found closer
to the point of origin.
♦ Large crazing indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or a relatively
slow heat build up.
♦ Checkering of glass (half moon effects or marks) usually results from water
being applied to heated glass This indicates the window was still in place
when the firefighters operated at the fire.

Question 55

9. Smoke stains and depth of charring may be used as indicators to help locate the point of origin. An incorrect statement concerning these indicators can be found in which choice? (Sec. 6.7.2, 6.8)

(A) Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a slow fire build up.
(B) Light smoke stains usually indicate a slow build-up of the fire, little fire damage and are found far from the point of origin.
(C) At 1400 Degrees Fahrenheit, wood structural members may burn at approximately one inch every 45 minutes.
(D) Deepest char may be found at the point of origin. However, this is not always necessarily so, since most intense heat and fire may be above the point of origin.
(E) Smaller blister type charring may indicate longer burning and hot fires.

Answer 55

9. B

6.7.2 Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a slow fire build up. Light smoke stains usually indicate a rapid build up of the fire, little fire
damage and are found close to the point of origin. (Hydro-carbons or products thereof may be an exception to the above).

Question 56

10. BC QUESTION - Commercial fires often receive substantial attention from Fire Marshals. Which action taken at a commercial fire was incorrect? (Sec. 8.3, 8.4, Communications Manual Ch. 8 Sec. 8.5 )
    (A) If after arrival at a commercial fire, the Fire Marshal classifies it as being incendiary, the police can thereafter maintain security.
    (B) Until the Fire Marshal arrives, allow no one, including the owner, to enter premises unless authorized by the officer in charge.
    (C) Obtain names and addresses of anyone allowed in, and provide for their being accompanied by a firefighter at all times.
    (D) Signal 10-41-4 should be transmitted by the IC for a fire that occurred in a warehouse at 1900 hours after all of the employees had left for the day.

Answer 56

10. D

Code 4: Vacant Structure, or Structures not intended for Dwelling Purposes.
Examples include, but are not limited to the following:
Vacant buildings, buildings under construction/demolition, detached garages, sheds or similar structures.
Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire, transmit Code 1.

Question 57

1. When would it not be permissible to use sirens and/or warning devices? (SB 1 Sec. 1.2, 1.3, 1.6)
   (A) When operating or responding to an alarm. When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the path of traffic, all warning lights shall be “ON”.
   (B) Upon return to quarters, in preparation for and while backing into quarters.
   (C) When relocating to the quarters of another unit.
   (D) When returning from relocation to the quarters of another unit.

Answer 57

1. D

1.1 The use of sirens and warning lights is governed by both law and department regulations.
Improper use of either sirens or warning lights can result in serious legal consequences.
1.2 Sirens and warning lights may only be used “when engaged in Emergency Operations”,
i.e.: responding to or operating at an alarm, or relocating to the quarters of another unit.
1.3 Sirens and warning lights shall not be used when returning from alarms.
1.4 When responding to an alarm and a signal 10-20 is received, units shall proceed to box
location at reduced speed. “NO WARNING DEVICES ARE TO BE USED AND ALL
TRAFFIC REGULATIONS ARE TO BE OBSERVED. “*
*(Sec. 8.5 Communications Manual).
1.5 When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the path of traffic, all
warning lights shall be in the “ON” position to warn oncoming traffic of the presence of
lane obstructions.
1.6 Upon return to quarters, warning lights shall be switched on in preparation for and while
backing into quarters (Sec. 11.1.18 Regulations).

Question 58

2. Which choice shows a proper understanding of the use of apparatus sirens? SB 1 (Sec. 3.1, 3.3, 4.3, 5.1, 5.4)
   (A) Electro-mechanical sirens shall be constantly operated at their peak.
   (B) The use of the “High-Low” mode on the electronic sirens is prohibited.
   (C) In general, the siren should be operated in the “Yelp” mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from ‘Yelp” to “Wail”.
   (D) Tests have shown that sirens are almost always effective in warning vehicular traffic of the approach of emergency vehicles.

Answer 58

2. B

3.1 Electro-mechanical sirens should be operated in a fluctuating manner in compliance with
Regulations section 11.1.16. Sirens should be sounded on the approach to and into an
intersection. After all traffic has yielded the right of way and the apparatus has safely
passed through the intersection, the siren button should be released.

3.3 When the electro-mechanical siren is constantly operated at its peak, it will drown out the
sounds of other vehicle sirens. In addition, the constant operation of the siren and the
resultant vibration of the sound off nearby structures leads to confusion on the part of the
civilian vehicle operators who may be trying to locate the direction of the apparatus
approach.

5.1 In general the siren should be operated in the “Wail” mode, except when encountering
heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the
siren should be switched from “Wail” to “Yelp”. After all traffic has yielded the right of
way and the apparatus proceeds through the intersection, the “Yelp” should be turned off
or switched to “Wail”, depending on conditions.

5.4 Recent tests by the Division of Safety have shown that sirens are often ineffective in
warning vehicular traffic of the approach of emergency vehicles.

Question 59

3. The siren is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ speed warning device linked to about a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ foot range and speed of about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ miles per hour. SB 1 (Sec. 6.4)
(A) Low, 300, 40
(B) Low, 125, 30
(C) High, 200, 40
(D) High, 250, 50

Answer 59

3. B

6.4 The siren is a low speed warning device linked to about a 125 foot range and speed of
about 30 miles per hour. A low speed response may actually decrease response time
because drivers can hear and properly react to the approach of the emergency vehicle and
the response will not be delayed by stop and go travel.

Question 60

4. The Officer shall ensure that all members are utilized when the apparatus is backing up. Which precaution is not stated correctly for apparatus operating in reverse gear? SB 2 (Sec. 3.3, 3.4, 6.1)
   (A) Take advantage of traffic signals and all warning lights shall be used.
   (B) The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered.
   (C) When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall not back into the intersection until the chauffeur determines it is safe.
   (D) When warning motorists, members shall never position themselves in front of a lane of traffic, even if the vehicles are stopped.
   (E) When backing up at operations, it is safer and more reliable to rely on hand signals between the chauffeur and other members rather than the HT to communicate.

Answer 60

4. C

 When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall not be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so.

Question 61

5. Ladder 177, a tiller apparatus, is backing into quarters after operating at an all-hands fire. Choose the one action that should be corrected. SB 2 (Sec. 4.3, 4,4, 4.5, 5.1, 5.2)
   (A) When the front of the apparatus is completely on the sidewalk, the Lt. gave the order to allow the stopped vehicular traffic to proceed.
   (B) When the apparatus is being slowly backed into quarters, all members shall be outside of quarters.
   (C) When the apparatus was completely in quarters and braked, the Lt. ordered the apparatus entrance doors closed and the unit status updated on the teleprinter.
   (D) It was not possible to center the apparatus in the entrance door, so the tiller FF brought the apparatus closer to the officer’s side because the chauffeur’s side of the apparatus was blind to the entrance door.

Answer 61

5. B
6. 4 The apparatus should be slowly backed into quarters and stopped when the apparatus exhaust is in position to be connected to the nederman diesel exhaust system. One member shall connect the nederman hose to the apparatus, and when connected, direct the chauffeur to resume backing into quarters.

Question 62

6. While discussing parking of apparatus on Building Inspection with a new Lieutenant, Capt. Red made several statements. Which were correct? SB 3
7. The most important rule is that the apparatus should never be double parked.
8. Never permit the apparatus to protrude into the flow of traffic.
9. On days when visibility is poor, use all the lights necessary, including emergency lights, to alert other drivers to the unit’s presence.
10. When inspections are being made in areas of “Dead End” streets, the apparatus should be positioned to face in the direction of response.
11. The chauffeur shall select the parking site.
12. Do not use space near hydrants for parking.
13. Always chock the wheels of the apparatus.
14. Do not park in bus stops or alongside building materials located beyond the sidewalk at construction or demolition sites.

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
(B) 1, 2, 4, 8
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6

Answer 62

6. B

On days when the visibility or light condition is poor, the officer on duty should direct the chauffeur to
use all the lights necessary, except emergency lights, to alert other drivers to their presence. The use of
emergency lights can cause confusion and distraction to other drivers. Where necessary, the placement
of traffic stanchions or markers may be helpful in alerting the other drivers.

OFFICER ON DUTY
1. Shall select the parking site and have members assist the chauffeur in the parking operation. This
same assistance shall be given to the chauffeur when leaving any parking space.

3. Should use space near hydrants for parking, if necessary.
4. Shall chock wheels of the apparatus when parked on any inclined road.

Question 63

7. In preparation of a Nor’easter that is expected to affect NYC, the Officer discussed safety tips to follow when driving with the chauffeur. Which one was incorrect? SB 4
   (A) The most hazardous driving conditions are found in packed snow and ice, followed by the early part of a rainfall.
   (B) With a half inch of rain, your tires begin to lose contact with the road at 30 mph; at 60 mph you’re running entirely on water like a boat
   (C) Bad weather is a challenge to a person’s driving ability, not the reason for an accident.
   (D) When the apparatus is equipped with a Front Wheel Limiting Valve, engaging the valve in the “Slippery Road” position will reduce the possibility of jackknife or rear end skid.

Answer 63

7. A
8. The early part of a rainfall is most hazardous for drivers. Accumulated oil and dirt on the roadway with the first few drops of rain is more skid-provoking than packed snow or ice.

Question 64

8. During the initial stages of an operation, double parking and angle parking of the apparatus is sometimes unavoidable. Which is not a safety precaution to follow in these situations?
   SB 5
   (A) Position a danger flag, and when necessary, due to poor visibility, a danger flag and warning light at the outer perimeter of the exposed side of the apparatus to alert other drivers.
   (B) When necessary to double park apparatus on a one-way street, park to the right side of the road when facing in the direction of traffic flow; and park on the left side of the road when facing against traffic flow.
   (C) As soon as conditions permit, the Officer in Command of the incident should contact the commanding Police Officer present in order to establish “Fire Lines”.
   (D) When the incident is declared under control, the repositioning of the apparatus should at all times be done by the chauffeur and tiller FF of the particular unit to which the apparatus is assigned.

Answer 64

8. B
9. When necessary to double park apparatus on a one-way street, park to the left side of the road
   when facing in the direction of traffic flow; and park on the right side of the road when facing
   against the traffic flow. This will permit the other driver to guide on the fire apparatus when
   attempting to pass same.

Question 65

9. Which guideline concerning pre-planning for responses is incorrect? SB 6 (Sec. 2.1.1, 2.1.3, 2.1.4)
   (A) Company Commanders of Units shall designate an area on the apparatus floor where members shall properly and safely don their Personal Protective Clothing in response to alarms.
   (B) Officers shall conduct an inspection of the apparatus with the chauffeur and tiller FF if applicable.
   (C) Immediate after the apparatus inspection, the Officer will consult with the chauffeur (and tiller FF) if applicable of any present modifications to response routes.
   (D) Battalion Commanders shall ensure the maintenance at the housewatch desk of accurate route cards for the information of regularly assigned and relocated personnel.

Answer 65

9. D
10. 1.4 Company Commanders of units shall ensure the maintenance at the housewatch desk of accurate route cards for the information of regular assigned and relocated personnel.

Question 66

10. When responding from quarters or outside activities, there are actions that will increase the safety of the response. Which is not one of them? SB 6 (Sec. 3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.6, 3.3, 4.5)
    (A) All members, except the Officer, chauffeur and tiller FF (if tiller apparatus) shall board the apparatus outside of quarters.
    (B) The Officer shall determine when the apparatus is ready to proceed.
    (C) When leaving quarters, the chauffeur shall use all lights and warning devices necessary to alert traffic.
    (D) Consider each lane in an intersection as a separate and distinct intersection.
    (E) “U” turns shall never be made.

Answer 66

10. E
11. 5 When response is in the opposite direction of travel, the safest route may be around the
    block. “U” turns should only be made when all conditions safely permit such practice.

Question 67

11. An apparatus must stop for school buses when responding to or returning from alarms in all choices except which one? SB 6 (Reference #1)
    (A) When the bus has its yellow lights flashing.
    (B) When the bus is showing a visual signal indicating stop.
    (C) When children are being loaded or discharged from the bus.
    (D) When approaching a stopped bus with flashing red lights from any direction.

Answer 67

11. A

All fire vehicles in the City of New York when responding to or returning from
alarms must stop for school buses under the following conditions:
1. When the bus is stopped with its red lights flashing or is showing a visual
signal indicating stop.
2. When children are being loaded on or discharged from the bus.
3. When approaching the stopped bus from any direction.
Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or
police officer signals you to proceed.

Question 68

12. When an apparatus has stopped as required for a school bus, when can it resume motion? Sb 6 (Reference #1)
    (A) When the bus resumes motion.
    (B) When the bus driver signals the unit to proceed.
    (C) When a police officer signals the unit to proceed.
    (D) All of the above

Answer 68

12. D

All fire vehicles in the City of New York when responding to or returning from
alarms must stop for school buses under the following conditions:
1. When the bus is stopped with its red lights flashing or is showing a visual
signal indicating stop.
2. When children are being loaded on or discharged from the bus.
3. When approaching the stopped bus from any direction.
Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or police officer signals you to proceed.