F.O. CLASS #7 - Week of 11/4/18 FFP – MD's Sec. 7 (Low Rise FPMD's) & Add's, T.B. – Basic Emergency 3 & Fires 1 - 6, ERP –Add #4 (Radiological Ops), Eng Ops #1 – 4

Question 1

PART I – FFP- MD’S LOW RISE FIREPROOF MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
1. There are several different types of Low Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings (LRFPMDs). They can be isolated or attached, or may be built as one building with two separate sections, separated by fire doors on each floor. Which type is incorrectly described? (Sec. 7.5.1, 7.5.2, 7.5.3, 7.5.4)
(A) Buildings that are attached to a similar building, but separated by a fireproof wall usually contain one stairway from the first floor to the roof.
(B) Individual buildings built with two separate sections, each containing a single open stairway. These sections are separated by fire doors.
(C) Isolated buildings with no adjoining building usually contain two enclosed stairways. The enclosed stairways are found remote from each other.
(D) Most isolated buildings are built with a single open, exterior stairway.

Answer 1

1. D

 Isolated structures with no adjoining building usually contain two enclosed stairways. The enclosed stairs are found remote from each other and roof access is generally via the enclosed evacuation stairway.

Question 2

2. Which unit operated incorrectly at a fire on the top floor of a 7 story LRFPMD? (7.2.2)
   (A) Ladder 100, the first arriving Ladder Company, used the stairs to access the fire floor.
   (B) Due to the location of the fire floor, Ladder 100 did not recall the elevators.
   (C) Ladder 200, the 2nd arriving Ladder company, ensured that all elevators were recalled and searched
   (D) Battalion 60, the first assigned Chief, ensured that all the elevators were recalled and searched early in the operation.

Answer 2

2. B

Question 3

3. Due to most LRFPMDs not being equipped with standpipe systems, hoselines are usually hand stretched from a pumper. When can 1 ¾” hose be stretched, assuming it is compatible with fire conditions? (Sec. 7.6.1, 7.6.2, 7.6.3, 7.6.4)
   (A) If some apartment doors, including the fire apartment, are within 50’ of every stairway on that floor.
   (B) If every apartment door is within 50’ of a stairway on that floor.
   (C) If every apartment door is within 50’ of every stairway on that floor.
   (D) When approved by the Battalion Commander.

Answer 3

3. C

7.6.1 Fires in LRFPMDs may be extinguished using 1¾” or 2½” hose, hand stretched from a pumper depending on the hallway length.
7.6.2 If the hallways in these structures are small, that is, every apartment door is within 50’ of every stairway on that floor, then 1¾” hose can be stretched from
the pumper when compatible with fire conditions.
7.6.3 However, if a LRFPMD has long hallways, that is, any apartment door is more than 50’ from any stairway on that floor, then the additional GPM available from
2½” hose may be needed and 2½” hose should be hand stretched from the pumper.
7.6.4 Division Commanders shall ensure that non-standpipe buildings where 1¾” hose may be used are entered into CIDS.

Question 4

4. The Officer and Forcible Entry team of Ladder 421, the first arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6 story LRFPMD with small public hallways, took several actions. Which one was correct? (Sec. 7.5.5, 7.7.1)
   (A) The search rope was included in the required tools brought to the fire floor.
   (B) After proceeding to the fire floor, the Officer notified the IC that there were two enclosed stairways. The Officer then notified the IC and Engine Officer of the designation of the attack stairway.
   (C) After forcing entry into the fire apartment, the Officer ordered the Forcible Entry FF to stay outside the door with the door closed but not locked to maintain control of the door.
   (D) Upon entering the apartment, the Officer immediately chocked the door open to enable a quick escape in case of window failure.

Answer 4

4. B

7.7.1 Officer and Forcible Entry Team
Tools: Extinguisher, hook, axe or maul, Halligan, Hydra-Ram, SCBAs, carbon monoxide meter, TIC.

 Control of the fire apartment door can be accomplished by positioning one member inside the door with door closed, but not locked. The door can be ajar with the dead bolt extended, preventing door from
completely closing.

Do not chock the door open until a charged hoseline is
moving into the apartment.

Question 5

5. Normally the LCC and OV Firefighter of the 1st arriving Ladder Company will team up to operate at a fire in a LRFPMD. In which choice did they operate incorrectly for a fire on the 4th floor of a 7 story LRFPMD? (Sec. 7.2.2)
   (A) The OV FF took a Halligan and Halligan Hook. The LCC took a Halligan and Axe.
   (B) The members split up to conduct an outside survey, with each member surveying the building from an opposite direction.
   (C) Upon noticing an occupant of the fire apartment trapped at a window, they notified their Officer and immediately proceeded to the roof to assist in a LSR rescue because the 4th floor of LRFPMDs cannot be reached with a portable ladder.
   (D) Prior to venting any windows in the fire apartment, they requested and received approval from their Officer.

Answer 5

5. C

B. Often the 4th floor can be reached with a 35’ portable ladder. If the fire floor can be laddered, assist the 1st ladder in outside operations, performing VEIS from the exterior.

Question 6

6. The LCC and OV FF of the 1st arriving Ladder Company must be aware of several situations that require them to operate in a certain manner. Choose the incorrect choice concerning LCC/OV FF operations. (Sec. 7.7.2)
   (A) If no outside operations are possible, the OV/LCC team shall proceed to the fire floor to team up with their Officer and assist in the search of the fire floor hallway and fire apartment.
   (B) When the 2nd ladder company is delayed and not on scene, the Officer may order this team to the apartment directly above the fire to provide horizontal vent from above if needed in the fire apartment.
   (C) When the 2nd ladder company is delayed and not on scene, the Officer may order this team to the apartment directly above the fire to provide assistance from above in determining the fire apartment layout.
   (D) At isolated buildings where there is only one interior stair and no adjoining building, the LCC will have to provide access for the Roof FF. In this situation, the OV must wait until the LCC joins them before initiating the OV/LCC tactics.

Answer 6

6. D

Note: Special Situation:
There are a few isolated buildings that exist where there is only one open interior stairway to the roof, and the roof cannot be accessed via aerial or tower ladder. In this situation, a decision must be made by the company officer as to whether or not roof ventilation is required. If the stairway is not an IDLH and safety permits, the Roof Firefighter may be ordered to
take the interior stair to the roof, provided that the fire apartment door is controlled and maintained closed by the ladder company officer. If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter must be teamed up with
another member before ascending to the roof. In either case, the fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof Firefighter has communicated to their Officer that they are on the roof in a safe area, and
that the bulkhead door is closed. If ordered by the IC, provide ventilation of the stairway bulkhead. The Roof Firefighter will remain on the roof until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend.

Question 7

7. FF Blue operated as the 1st Roof FF at a fire on the 5th floor of a 7 story LRFPMD. FF Blue was correct when she? (Sec. 7.7.3)
   (A) Took a Halligan hook, Halligan, Life Saving Rope, and Life Belt.
   (B) Proceeded to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.
   (C) Proceeded to the roof and requested permission from the IC prior to opening the bulkhead door to check the stair for occupants, before closing the door upon completion.
   (D) Provided ventilation of the attack stairway bulkhead when ordered by her Officer.

Answer 7

7. A

7.7.3 Roof Firefighter
Tools: Halligan hook, Halligan, LSR and Life Belt.
Duties:
A. Proceed to the roof to:
 Check the perimeter of the building for:
1. Fire and conditions;
2. Trapped occupants at windows;
3. Evidence of anyone who might have jumped from a window.
4. Provide exterior ventilation when ordered.
 Notify the IC of the possible need for a LSR rescue when necessary.
 Check the bulkhead stair for occupants and close bulkhead door when
done.
 Provide ventilation of the attack stairway bulkhead when ordered by the IC.
Note: While roof ventilation is emphasized in LRFPMDs, it must not occur until ordered by the IC.

Question 8

8. Which choice shows the priority order for roof access at a LRFPMD in an attached building? (Sec. 7.7.3 B)
   (1) Aerial or Tower Ladder
   (2) An enclosed Evacuation Stairway
   (3) An enclosed Attack Stairway
   (4) Stairway in an attached adjoining building

(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) 4, 2, 1
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3
(D) 1, 2, 4

Answer 8

8. B

B. Roof Access will be obtained using the following priority order:
1. Stairway in an attached adjoining building. In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. In this situation,
these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above
to ensure that they are in the closed position.
2. An enclosed evacuation stairway.
3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.

Question 9

9. Which choice is correct concerning the priority order of roof access at a LRFPMD in an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors? (Sec. 7.7.3 B)
   (1) An enclosed Attack Stairway.
   (2) Aerial or Tower Ladder
   (3) Using the protected adjoining section of the building.
   (4) An enclosed Evacuation Stairway.
   (A) 3, 2, 1
   (B) 2, 3, 4
   (C) 3, 4, 2, 1
   (D) 3, 4, 2

Answer 9

9. D

B. Roof Access will be obtained using the following priority order:
1. Stairway in an attached adjoining building. In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. In this situation,
these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above to ensure that they are in the closed position.
2. An enclosed evacuation stairway.
3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.

Question 10

10. Ladder 300 is the 1st arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 7 story LRFPMD. The building is an isolated building with only one open stairway, and the Aerial ladder cannot be used to access the roof due to large trees surrounding the building that block access. The Officer of Ladder 300 orders the Roof FF to take the interior stair to the roof. Which choice is correct concerning this operation? (Sec. 7.7.3)
    (A) This tactic is not permissible unless the stairway is not an IDLH.
    (B) The Company Officer cannot make this decision. Permission to perform this operation can only be granted by the IC.
    (C) This can be performed, as long as the door to the fire apartment is maintained closed by a member of the Forcible Entry team until the Roof FF has communicated to their Officer that they are on the roof in a safe area, and that the bulkhead door is closed.
    (D) If the Roof FF gains access to the roof using this method, they must remain on the roof until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend.

Answer 10

10. D

In either case, the fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof Firefighter has
communicated to their Officer that they are on the roof in a safe area, and that the bulkhead door is closed. If ordered by the IC, provide ventilation of the stairway bulkhead. The Roof Firefighter will remain on the roof
until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend.

Question 11

11. At a fire in a LRFPMD, the 2nd arriving Ladder Company Officer and Forcible Entry team have many tasks to accomplish. Which is not one of them? (7.8.1)
    (A) Always include the KO Curtain in its complement of tools.
    (B) Search all floors and stairs above the fire floor.
    (C) Proceed to the floor above the fire and force entry into the apartment directly above the fire. If ventilation of the fire apartment is needed from this location, coordinate it with the 1st Ladder Company Officer.
    (D) For a top floor fire, coordinate vent, entry and search of the fire floor with the 1st Ladder Company.

Answer 11

11. A

7.8.1 Officer and Forcible Entry Team
Tools: Extinguisher, hook, axe or maul, Halligan, Hydra-Ram, SCBAs, carbon monoxide meter, TIC, KO curtain.

D. Top floor fire:
 Coordinate vent, entry and search of fire floor with first Ladder Company.
 The 2nd ladder Roof FF will bring the KO curtain to the roof.

Question 12

12. Time is usually of the essence when performing a Lifesaving Rope (LSR) Rescue, and requires that members know the proper procedure. Which choice would be incorrect concerning a Lifesaving Rope Rescue in a LRFPMD? (7.11)
    (A) Operate from the roof, if practical. The 1st arriving Roof FF must make a determination whether the LSR rescue can be performed from the roof level.
    (B) If the IC orders it, early ventilation of the bulkhead can be performed in conjunction with initiating a LSR rescue from the roof.
    (C) If the 1st Roof FF determines that a LSR operation is not practical from the roof, and the 2nd Roof FF has not already reached the roof, the 1st Roof FF should immediately direct the 2nd Roof FF to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.
    (D) If the 1st Roof FF determines that a LSR operation is not practical from the roof, and there are two enclosed stairs, the 2nd Roof FF may descend the Attack stairway to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.
    (E) If the 1st Roof FF determines that a LSR operation is not practical from the roof, and the building has one open interior stairway, the IC may direct members or another unit to bring an available LSR to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.

Answer 12

12. D

 If the 2nd Roof Firefighter has not already reached the roof, the 1st Roof Firefighter should immediately direct that member to the apartment directly above the fire apartment. The 2nd Roof Firefighter shall bring their assigned tools including the LSR to the apartment directly above the fire apartment. In buildings with two enclosed stairs, the 2nd Roof Firefighter may descend
the evacuation stairway to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.

Question 13

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
13. The key to successfully operating at wind impacted fires in FPMDs depends on recognizing wind impacted fire conditions that may change a seemingly routine fire into a blowtorching fire. Which is not listed as one of the conditions necessary for a wind impacted fire to occur? (Sec. 2.2)
(A) Wind
(B) Fire in an apartment
(C) Failed or opened window on the fire floor
(D) Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed
(E) An area of low pressure such as on opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.

Answer 13

13. C

2.2 The following five conditions must be present for a wind impacted fire to occur:
1. Wind.
2. Fire in an apartment.
3. Failed or opened window in the fire ROOM.
4. Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed.
5. An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.
This characteristic of air movement is known as the Flow Path.
Note # 1: The term Flow Path describes the movement of fire, heat and smoke from an area of high pressure (the fire area) to an area of low pressure (all areas other than the fire area).
Note # 2: The impact of the wind will be affected by the size of the window opening, the fuel load and the stage of the fire when the window failed.

Question 14

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

14. BC QUESTION The Incident Commander has many tactics to consider at a wind impacted fire, and communication is instrumental in ensuring a successful operation. The IC would be incorrect in which choice? (Sec. 2.1, 3.2.2, 4.2.2, 4.5)
    (A) When wind impacted fire conditions exist in a FPMD, the IC shall notify the Borough dispatcher so this information can be relayed to all responding units.
    (B) The IC must communicate with the Officers on the fire floor to determine interior conditions. The IC must determine if an alternate strategy for extinguishing the fire should be implemented.
    (C) Any use of an exterior stream requires communications between the IC and the Ladder Company Officer on the fire floor to ensure that all members on the fire floor are accounted for and in a safe location before the water is applied from the exterior.
    (D) The IC must ensure that the Fire Sector Supervisor and/or Units operating in the fire sector acknowledge that an alternate strategy is to be implemented.

Answer 14

14. C

 Communicate with the Fire Sector Supervisor to determine the conditions and recommended tactics.

Question 15

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

15. When responding to a reported fire in a FPMD, an overriding consideration concerning size-up must be wind conditions and its effect on the fire. Which choice concerning wind at these buildings is incorrect? (Sec. 3.2.1, 3.2.2)
    (A) The direction and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.
    (B) Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable.
    (C) It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.
    (D) When the fire and smoke pulse outward from a window, the conditions in the interior will subside, which is an indication that the wind has permanently shifted and the interior conditions are improved.
    (E) Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is not venting out of an open or failed window is a potentially dangerous, life threatening condition.

Answer 15

15. D

 It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building. When the wind subsides or shifts, pressure will equalize allowing the fire and smoke to vent out the window. This condition has also been described as fire and/or smoke pulsing in and out of a failed or opened window. Members operating in the fire area must be aware that when the fire and smoke pulse outward from the window, the condition in the interior will temporarily subside, giving a false sense that the interior conditions improved. When the wind gusts back into the window the interior conditions will dramatically deteriorate.

Question 16

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

16. Engine 100, Ladder 200, and Battalion 30 are operating at a fire on the 7th floor of a 23 story FPMD. The LCC and OV FF, while conducting an outside survey, notifies members that there appears to be a wind impacted fire. The BC in Battalion 30 notifies Engine 100 and Ladder 200 that an alternate strategy for extinguishing the fire will be implemented. After acknowledging the BC, which thought of the Officers is correct? (Sec. 4.2.1, 4.2.2)
    (A) If the KO Curtain is deployed from the 8th floor, the deployment window on the 8th floor must be closed after the deployment of the curtain.
    (B) If Tower Ladder 400, the 2nd Due Ladder Company, uses its tower ladder stream they should attempt to hit the base of the fire directly to achieve maximum results.
    (C) If Engine 700, the 5th due Engine, is instructed to use a High Rise Nozzle from the 6th floor, they will be ineffective if the fire has extended to multiple rooms, unless they can hit the fire directly for best results.
    (D) The use of a High Rise Nozzle will be ineffective if the door to the fire apartment has been left open.

Answer 16

16. A

A tower ladder stream or ladder pipe may also be
effective. Any exterior stream must be directed at the ceiling of the main fire area.

 Exterior stream such as the HRN is very effective in knocking down a wind impacted fire in a multiple dwelling due to the smaller compartmented
areas/rooms.
 Water must be applied to the room where the main body of fire is located to be most effective.
 The stream shall be deflected off the ceiling for best results.
 If fire has extended to multiple rooms the exterior stream may have to be repositioned.

Note: Tests done by the Department concluded that the deployment of the HRN to combat a wind impacted fire greatly improves conditions in the public hallway and inside the apartment when the apartment door has been left open. If members are trapped and a wind impacted fire is preventing their removal, the use of a HRN or an exterior stream may protect members and allow for their safe removal.
(Refer to TB Tools 7 Data Sheet 17, High Rise Nozzle)

Question 17

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

17. A flanking strategy can be used as an offensive tactic to rapidly knock down the fire in a FPMD. Which point concerning a flanking operation is incorrect? (Sec. 4.2.4)
    (A) A small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the exterior wall as possible.
    (B) Initially, the hole in the wall should only be large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening.
    (C) When the fire apartment door has been left open, and access has been safely obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed. The hoseline is stretched to this apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope.
    (D) When the fire apartment door is closed, and access has been safely obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed. The hoseline is stretched to this apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope.

Answer 17

17. D

B. Flanking attack when the door to the fire apartment is closed:
 Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment via a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed and occupied safely.
 Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment the hoseline will be stretched via the fire floor public hallway into the adjoining apartment to operate into the fire apartment

Question 18

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 18 - 21 based on the following:

Engine 12, Ladder 71, and Battalion 55 arrives first due at a fire on the 15th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD. The Division is severely delayed to the fire, and notified Battalion 55 that they will be the IC for an extended period. The window in the fire room is open, and wind is impacting the fire. Upon reaching the 15th floor hallway, the Officer of Ladder 71 determines that the fire apartment door has been left open and the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire.
18. Which action taken by the Officer of Ladder 71 was correct? (Sec. 5.1)
(A) The Officer and one member of the Forcible Entry team attempted to locate and close the fire apartment door.
(B) The Officer and both members of the Forcible Entry team attempted to locate and close the fire apartment door.
(C) The Officer ensured that all members exited the public hallway immediately, and notified the IC and Engine Officer of conditions.
(D) The Officer immediately ordered Engine 12 to stretch and advance a charged 2 ½” hoseline from the attack stairway to protect the members of Ladder 71 as they located the fire apartment door.

Answer 18

18. C

Question 19

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 18 - 21 based on the following:

Engine 12, Ladder 71, and Battalion 55 arrives first due at a fire on the 15th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD. The Division is severely delayed to the fire, and notified Battalion 55 that they will be the IC for an extended period. The window in the fire room is open, and wind is impacting the fire. Upon reaching the 15th floor hallway, the Officer of Ladder 71 determines that the fire apartment door has been left open and the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire.

19. BC QUESTION Battalion 55 orders the 2nd Ladder Company to deploy the KO Curtain from the 16th floor. Which choice correctly indicates a proper procedure after this action? (Sec. 5.1)

(A) After Battalion 55 receives confirmation that the KO Curtain has been deployed over the target window and has been secured in place, the Operations Section Chief can give Ladder 71 approval to enter the hallway.
(B) Battalion 55, as the IC, is the only member on scene who can give approval to enter the public hallway on the 15th floor.
(C) Battalion 55 or the Officer of Ladder 71 can give approval to enter the public hallway on the 15th floor immediately after the KO Curtain is deployed.
(D) Only Battalion 55 or the Fire Sector Supervisor can give approval to enter the public hallway after receiving confirmation that the KO Curtain has been deployed over the target window and secured in place.

Answer 19

19. A

 Approval to enter the public hallway must be given by the IC, Operations Section Chief or Fire Sector Supervisor.

Question 20

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 18 - 21 based on the following:

Engine 12, Ladder 71, and Battalion 55 arrives first due at a fire on the 15th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD. The Division is severely delayed to the fire, and notified Battalion 55 that they will be the IC for an extended period. The window in the fire room is open, and wind is impacting the fire. Upon reaching the 15th floor hallway, the Officer of Ladder 71 determines that the fire apartment door has been left open and the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire.

20. Once approval has been granted to enter the public hallway, Ladder 71 and Engine 12 would be incorrect to take which action? (Sec. 5.1)
    (A) The Officer of Ladder 71, utilizing the thermal imaging camera, and one member of the forcible entry team entered the public hallway to gain control of the fire apartment door.
    (B) One member of the forcible entry team of Ladder 71 remained at the attack stairwell door on the stairwell side of the door with the Officer of Engine 12 to ensure the stairwell door remained closed limiting the flow path.
    (C) When the Officer of Ladder 71 gained control of the fire apartment door, Engine 12 advanced a charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.
    (D) When the Officer of Ladder 71 gained control of the fire apartment door, the member of the forcible entry team of Ladder 71 who remained at the stairwell door also proceeded to the fire apartment door.
    (E) Upon reaching and gaining control of the fire apartment door, the Officer of Ladder 71 communicated with the IC and Fire Sector Supervisor of the conditions found.

Answer 20

20. B

 The other member of the interior team will remain at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side of the door to ensure the stairwell door remains closed limiting
the flow path and to act as a beacon in case members need to evacuate the hallway. The Engine officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the door.

Question 21

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 18 - 21 based on the following:
Engine 12, Ladder 71, and Battalion 55 arrives first due at a fire on the 15th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD. The Division is severely delayed to the fire, and notified Battalion 55 that they will be the IC for an extended period. The window in the fire room is open, and wind is impacting the fire. Upon reaching the 15th floor hallway, the Officer of Ladder 71 determines that the fire apartment door has been left open and the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire.

21. Once the decision has been made to enter the fire apartment, Ladder 71 and Engine 12 took several actions. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 5.1)
    (A) Engine 12 entered the apartment first followed by Ladder 71.
    (B) Prior to entering the fire apartment, the Officer of Engine 12 contacted the Roof FF of Ladder 12 and requested the description of the fire apartment, the location of the main body of fire, and the most direct route to the fire area.
    (C) Once the hoseline advanced towards the interior fire area as directed by the Officer of Engine 12, the fire apartment door was chocked open.
    (D) Prior to entering the fire apartment, the Officer of Ladder 71 contacted the Roof FF of Ladder 12 and requested the description of the fire area, the location of the main body of fire, and the most direct route to the fire area.

Answer 21

21. D
    • Prior to entering the fire apartment, to assist the engine company in locating and extinguishing the main body of fire, the Engine Officer shall contact the roof firefighter, or other member operating in the apartment above the fire apartment, and request the following information:
22. Description of fire apartment (e.g., L-shape, 3 bedroom apartment)
23. Location of the main body of fire (e.g., kitchen, bedroom, living room)
24. Most direct route to the fire area (e.g., When you enter the apartment, go in straight 6 feet and make a right down the hallway, the fire room will be the second door on the left approximately 12 feet down.
     Once the hoseline advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the fire apartment door shall be chocked open.

Question 22

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

22. Which tactic would be incorrect when the door to the fire apartment is found closed on arrival, window failure has occurred, and reports are received from members operating on the floor above and the exterior that the wind is impacting the fire? (Sec. 5.2)
    (A) The IC shall implement the appropriate alternate strategy to gain control of the fire area.
    (B) The hoseline must be charged before exiting the attack stairway and proceeding to the fire apartment door.
    (C) The door to the fire apartment must remain closed until an alternate strategy has been implemented and the IC receives confirmation that the wind control device has been deployed and secured over the target window or a HRN, Exterior Stream or Flanking strategy has controlled the fire.
    (D) After receiving permission from the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor to enter the fire apartment, the Engine Company must enter the apartment first.
    (E) Prior to entering the fire apartment, the Engine Officer shall contact the Roof FF and request the description of the fire area, the location of the fire, and the most direct route to the fire area

Answer 22

22. B

c. The hoseline can be advanced to that location and charged.

Question 23

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 23 - 24 based on the following:

Engine 100, Ladder 200 and Battalion 30 are the first arriving units at a fire on the 14th floor of a 16 story High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling. Window failure has not occurred, but size-up indicates there is a wind condition. Upon arrival at the 14th floor, the Officer of Ladder 200 notes that the hallway is clear and the fire apartment door is closed.

23. BC QUESTION Battalion 30 would be incorrect in which choice? (Sec. 5.3)
    (A) Ensured that a Wind Control Device was deployed and secured over the target window prior to granting permission to members to enter the 14th floor hallway.
    (B) Assigned a member with a Thermal Imaging Camera to scan the windows of the fire apartment from street level to assist in identifying the target window for deployment of the Wind Control Device.
    (C) Ordered the High Rise Nozzle (HRN) to the point of operation on the 13th floor upon its arrival.
    (D) Transmitted a 10-77 regardless of the severity of the fire.

Answer 23

23. B

b. Wind Control Device in position above the fire apartment ready for immediate deployment. As a precautionary tactic, the IC may decide to deploy a Wind Control Device over an intact window of the fire room/area.
Note: Where you are unable to determine the target window from the exterior, the TIC may be of assistance. The IC shall assign a member with a TIC to scan the windows of the fire apartment from street level. Scanning of the fire apartment windows with the TIC can assist in identifying the target window for deploying of the WCD. The TIC does not see through clear glass or plastic, but a heated window or window frame may be detected from below.

Question 24

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

Answer Questions 23 - 24 based on the following:

Engine 100, Ladder 200 and Battalion 30 are the first arriving units at a fire on the 14th floor of a 16 story High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling. Window failure has not occurred, but size-up indicates there is a wind condition. Upon arrival at the 14th floor, the Officer of Ladder 200 notes that the hallway is clear and the fire apartment door is closed.

24. The Officer of Ladder 200 operated incorrectly in which choice? (Sec. 5.3)
    (A) After receiving a report on exterior conditions from members operating outside the building and the Roof FF operating on the floor above, the Officer of Ladder 200 opened the fire apartment door.
    (B) The Officer of Ladder 200 and one member of the Forcible Entry team entered the fire apartment to search while the other member controlled the door from the hallway side.
    (C) The door to the fire apartment remained closed until the Officer of Ladder 200 requested the charged hoseline be advanced into the fire apartment.
    (D) Once the hoseline advanced towards the interior fire area as directed by the Officer of Ladder 200, the door was chocked open.

Answer 24

24. B

e. The Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search for the interior fire area location while the other
member stays at the fire apartment door inside the apartment making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position, thereby limiting the flow path.

Question 25

ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MULTIPLE DWELLINGS

25. When there is a known life hazard in the public hallway of the fire apartment at a wind impacted fire, an incorrect action to take is? (Sec. 5.4.1)
    (A) If a decision is made to attempt a rescue, it must be undertaken only after alternate strategies have been implemented.
    (B) The IC must be notified prior to any rescue attempt.
    (C) The IC shall be notified of the stairway from which operations will take place.
    (D) If the open fire apartment door is in close proximity to the known life hazard in the public hall, attempt to close the door.

Answer 25

25. A

5.4.1 When faced with a known life hazard in either the public hallway or the fire apartment, the following actions shall be taken:
a. Notify the IC and all units of the location of the known life hazard.
b. Officers must maintain situational awareness and assess conditions while evaluating the risk vs reward. If a decision is made to attempt a rescue, it may be performed while alternate strategies are being implemented. The IC must be notified prior to any rescue attempt. In addition, the IC shall also be
notified of the stairway from which operations will take place.
c. If the open fire apartment door is found in close proximity to the known life hazard in a public hallway, attempt to close the door. Control of the fireapartment door is critical. Notify the IC if the fire apartment door has been controlled.
d. Members operating in the stairwell shall keep the landing clear to allow for victim removal and/or emergency egress.
e. Notify the IC when the victim is removed.

Question 26

ADDENDUM 4 – NYCHA ENTRY AND ELEVATOR MACHINERY ROOM KEYS

26. Which choice is incorrect concerning NYCHA Entry Locks? (Sec. 1.1, 1.3, 1.4, 3.1)
    (A) When the key FOB is placed by the reader located on the door frame, a buzzing will be emitted for 7 - 9 seconds. This tone indicates that the electromagnetic lock has been deactivated.
    (B) Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, the door must be forced manually.
    (C) Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, but the door will remain locked by the crash bar lock. A special key will be required.
    (D) The key FOB shall be stored on a secure place in the apparatus cab.

Answer 26

26. B
27. 3 To provide easy access and reduce unnecessary damage to NYCHA building entry doors, key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings. Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency number at 212-306-8800, either directly or through the dispatcher. Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location.

Question 27

ADDENDUM 4 – NYCHA ENTRY AND ELEVATOR MACHINERY ROOM KEYS

27. Record keeping is required for NYCHA key FOBS and Elevator Machinery Room keys. Which choice is correct? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3)
    (A) NYCHA key FOBS and Elevator Machinery Room keys have serial numbers which must be recorded in the Company Journal.
    (B) Any unit that forces a NYCHA building entry door or elevator machinery room door must notify the NYCHA via the Borough Dispatcher that a door has been forced, even if the door can be secured. The unit must also forward a report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.
    (C) If the key FOB or elevator machinery room key is lost or damaged, the Officer shall call Technical Services for replacement.
    (D) An FS-112 is required to be submitted for lost or damaged key FOBS or elevator keys.

Answer 27

27. B
28. 1 NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have been issued to all units. These keys are standard issue and do not have serial numbers.
29. 1 Each key FOB has an individual serial number assigned to it. This allows NYCHA to track key FOB usage. When an FDNY unit receives the key FOB, the OOD shall record the serial number in the Office Record Journal. The key FOB and elevator machinery room key shall be labeled and stored in a secure place in the apparatus cab.

3.3 If the key FOB or elevator machinery room key is lost or damaged, the OOD shall call the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency number 212-306-8800 to obtain new keys. If the loss or damage involves the key FOB, the serial number must be provided. NYCHA will
deactivate the key FOB and issue a new one. The OOD shall record the particulars in the company journal.

Note: FS-112 is not required for lost or damaged key FOBs or elevator keys.

Question 28

PART II – ERP RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS
1. The types of ionizing radiation includes alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays and neutron particles. Firefighters should assume the first three types of ionizing radiation are being emitted from the source. Which choice accurately describes the different types of radiation? (Sec. 1.1)
(A) Alpha particles travel 1-2 inches. Shielding from Alpha particles includes intact skin, inches of air or a sheet of paper to protect members from the inhalation hazard.
(B) The hazard of Beta particles is limited to inhalation, and the particles travel only a few inches. Shielding of 1 foot of plastic, aluminum or glass is required for Beta particles.
(C) Gamma rays are a hazard to the whole body, and can travel up to 10 feet. Bunker gear and the SCBA provide suitable protection from Gamma rays.
(D) The hazard of Neutron particles is limited to inhalation, and due to the limited range require only one inch of plastic, aluminum or glass shielding to protect members.

Answer 28

1. A

Beta-Inhalation Penetration beta particles can penetrate skin up to ¼ inch (includes eyes) Up to 10 feet Approximately 1 inch:
 Plastic
 Aluminum
 Glass

Gamma Whole body Several hundred feet
Several inches of:
 Lead
 Concrete
 Steel
Foot of dirt or water

Neutron Whole body Several hundred feet High Hydrogen content material i.e.:
 3 feet water
 1 foot concrete
 10 inches plastic

Question 29

2. After you receive a response for a leak in a shipping container containing radiological material, one of your Firefighters approaches you and informs you that she is pregnant and requests to not operate in the Warm or Hot Zone. What would be the proper procedure to take? (Sec. 1.3.4)
   (A) Tell the FF that she cannot operate at this incident.
   (B) Ensure that the FF only operates in the Cold Zone.
   (C) Order the FF to operate in either the Cold Zone or Warm Zone, but not the Hot Zone.
   (D) Inform the FF that she can operate in the Cold, Warm or Hot Zone as long as proper
   precautions are taken.

Answer 29

2. B

1.3.4 Radiation Exposure to Women
The Fire Department’s policy on managing radiation exposure to pregnant women follows the regulations set forth in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) and the guidance of the agencies such as the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP), which provide occupational exposure rates for workers. Because of the difficulty in determining radiation exposure during the early stages of a Radiation Emergency and the desire to control exposure to a developing embryo/fetus, women who are declared pregnant or who are pregnant and request to operate outside of the Warm or Hot Zone at the time of an incident may operate only in the Cold Zone.

Question 30

3. At a Radiological operation, members must understand the difference between rate and dose. Which transmission made below was correct? (Sec. 1.4, 1.4.1, 1.4.2, 1.4.3, 2)
   (A) When the HazMat Co. 1 Officer asked the Officer of Ladder 88 for the rate that his RadALert50 was displaying, he replied “1 millirem” (mR).
   (B) The Officer of Ladder 99 notified the Operations Chief that her dosimeter was showing a total dose of 5 Rem.
   (C) When the HazMat Battalion Chief asked the Officer of Haz-Mat Technician Engine 100 for the rate reading from his Ludlum meter, he replied “10 Rems”.
   (D) When asked what was the normal background radiation rate for the NYC area, the Officer of Engine 200 replied “0.02 to 0.05”.

Answer 30

3. B

1.4.3 Dose-Rate in Relation to Metering Equipment
The Rad50 carried on Department apparatus is calibrated to alarm at 1 mR/hr. The Rad50 is able to measure radiation levels up to 50 mR/hr. This rate is well below the rate at which signs and symptoms of acute radiation exposure is observable. The Ludlum, carried by Haz-Mat Group Units (i.e. HMTU, SSL, Rescue, Special Events Teams), is able to read up to 100 Rem/hr and the SIAC dosimeters and Canberra mini radiacs can read up to 999 Rem/hr.

2. RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENTS OR EMERGENCIES
   Every day, people are exposed to radiation from naturally occurring sources and/or man- made sources. These levels of radiation are considered Background Levels of radiation and should not alarm responders when detected by meter. The average annual dose of radiation people receive from background sources (natural background and man-made sources) is approximately 360 mR per year or about 1 mR per day. The normal background radiation rate for the NYC area is 0.02 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr (20 R/hr to 50 R/hr).

Question 31

4. While conducting a drill on Radiological Incidents, Lt. James made several statements. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 2.2, 2.2.2, 4.3)
   (A) A Radiological Incident is a situation where meter readings are above background from a legitimate source that has been released from its container and full respiratory protection is required.
   (B) A Radiological incident requires meter readings to be confirmed with a second meter.
   (C) A Haz-Mat Technician Unit shall be special called for incidents where a legitimate source is emitting levels of radiation greater than the Rad50 can detect.
   (D) A 10-80 No Code or Code 1 shall be transmitted.

Answer 31

2.3 Radiological Emergency
A Radiological Emergency involves a source that is out of its container, either accidentally or intentionally. A Radiological Emergency also encompasses a situation where radiological meter readings are above what is expected for a specific location. Readings must be confirmed by a second meter to establish the situation as a Radiological Emergency. Transmit the appropriate 10-80 code and specify “For a Radiological Emergency.”4. A

Question 32

5. A Radiological Emergency involves a source that is out of its container, either accidentally or intentionally. Which type of Radiological Emergency is not described correctly? (Sec. 2.3, 2.3.2, 3.2.4)
   (A) A Radiological Dispersal Device that involves explosives is also known as a “Dirty Bomb”.
   (B) When a Radiological Exposure Device is used, expect external exposure. Contamination is not expected if radiological material is contained.
   (C) Operating at a Radiological Incendiary Device, also known as a “dirty fire”, the fire shall not be extinguished to avoid spreading contaminants thorough the water run-off. The fire shall be allowed to burn itself out.
   (D) With an Improvised Nuclear Device, expect higher doses of internal and external radiation.

Answer 32

5. C

Extinguishing the fire will limit the spread of the smoke, which will contain the radiation to one area. However, the run-off from the water used to extinguish an incendiary
radiological device may be contaminated and members should avoid areas of standing water and should understand that the contamination may spread (via
the water) to other areas, such as the floors below in a high-rise scenario.

Question 33

6. BC QUESTION The Fire Department has established Protective Action Guidelines to help the IC and Operations Chief make time sensitive decisions based on doses that members have received (Decision Dose). Which decision dose is stated incorrectly? (Sec. 3.1.4, 4.4.2)
   (A) 5 Rem for general operations at a Radiological Emergency.
   (B) 10 Rem for protection of major property and firefighting.
   (C) 15 Rem for lifesaving or protection of large populations.
   (D) 50 Rem for lifesaving for a catastrophic event.

Answer 33

6. C
   Decision Dose (whole body) Emergency Activity Performed
   50 Rem Lifesaving for a Catastrophic Event
   25 Rem Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations
   10 Rem Protection of Major Property
   5 Rem General Operations at a Radiological Emergency

Question 34

7. Because radiation fallout from an Improvised Nuclear Device (IND) does not occur for approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes after the detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least \_\_\_\_\_ minutes post detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored. (Sec. 3.1.4 C)
(A) 15, 30
(B) 15, 15
(C) 30, 30
(D) 30, 45

Answer 34

7. B

Because radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately 15 minutes after the detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least 15 minutes post-detonation,
when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored.

Question 35

8. BC QUESTION A Radiological Emergency can be an overwhelming incident, and the Operations Chief has many points to consider. Which one is correct? (Sec. 3, 3.1.2, 3.2.1)
   (A) After it is relayed by first arriving units that they are obtaining readings of 30 mR/hr., the IC ordered them to delay victim rescue and fire suppression until units with Ludlum meters arrived.
   (B) After determining that the Radiological Emergency was a result of an accidental breach in the container, the Fire Marshals were special called.
   (C) Members were instructed not to enter the Hot Zone except for rescue, recon, or fire suppression.
   (D) After determining that the radioactive material was aerosolized, the air intakes of nearby buildings were opened to maintain positive pressure in the building.
   (E) After determining that non-ambulatory patients in a nearby hospital would receive total doses of 7 Rem, it was decided to evacuate the patients through a radioactive plume.

Answer 35

8. C

B. Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the mR/hr range.

A. Isolate
Isolate the area and restrict access to the Hot Zone. Establish zones to prevent spread of contamination and/or cross-contamination. Members shall not proceed beyond the Hot Zone except for lifesaving purposes (rescue and recon, fire suppression).

A. Isolate
Isolate the area and restrict access to the Hot Zone. Establish zones to prevent spread of contamination and/or cross-contamination. Members shall not proceed beyond the Hot Zone except for lifesaving purposes (rescue and recon, fire suppression).

Sheltering-in-Place may be a viable option if rapid evacuation is impeded and/or is not feasible. Building materials provide substantial protection against radiation and the protection provided by the shelter may be equal to or greater protection than evacuating through a contaminated area. Sheltering-in-Place may also be a viable option to protect civilians in nearby buildings if a plume is generated by the radiological release. Actions
involving evacuation or sheltering-in-place should be taken before the anticipated dose is realized.

Question 36

9. If manpower and equipment are sufficient, members receiving absorbed doses should be rotated at dose levels of 5 Rem or when 1 SCBA tank is expended to limit the time that members are exposed to radiation. Which choice incorrectly describes what members should relay to the Operations Chief during operations? (Sec. 3.2.2 A)
   (A) When each additional 5 Rem dose is received.
   (B) The location of the member.
   (C) Activity being performed
   (D) The Radiological Dose but not Rate. The total Dose is much more important than the Rate.

Answer 36

9. D

 The Operations Chief should be notified for each additional 5 Rem dose the members receive. The following information should also be relayed:
o Location
o Activity being performed
o Radiological Rate and Dose

Question 37

10. Operating at the scene of a dirty bomb explosion, a member of a Haz Mat Technician Unit equipped with an UltraRadiac Monitor notices that the dose rate is 100 R/hr 1 foot away from the source of radiation. What would be the dose rate 2 feet from the source? (Sec. 3.2.2 B)
(A) 25 mR/hr
(B) 33.3 R/hr
(C) 50 R/hr
(D) 25 R/hr

Answer 37

10. D
    Figure 3. Inverse-square relationship of distance to radiation intensity. For example, if the distance from the source is doubled, the level of radiation is reduced to ¼ its original intensity (See chart in Reference Section 2)

Question 38

11. BC QUESTION While operating at an odor of gas at a construction site near the entrance to the Lincoln Tunnel, the 1st due Engine Officer informs you that his RadAlert 50 Meter is alarming, and is showing a reading above 50 mR/hr. Engine 44, a Haz-Mat Tech Engine responds and informs you that they are obtaining readings of 100mR/hr on Ludlum meter. As the IC at this incident, who must you immediately notify? (Sec. 4.2)
    (A) The DC working in Division 1, who is the Administrative Deputy Chief for the location.
    (B) The DC working in Division 3, who is assigned to respond to the location.
    (C) The Citywide Command Chief.
    (D) The Officer of Emergency Management.

Answer 38

11. C

 Upon confirmation of an incident where Radalert™ 50 readings are above the 50mR/Hr maximum dose rate of the Radalert™ 50, the IC shall immediately notify the Citywide Command Chief. A decision to order a 65-2 teleprinter and voice message to all units citywide notifying them of the event will be made based on many
factors including the type of event, multiple events, etc.

Question 39

Answer Questions 12 - 14 based on the following information

Units respond to a report of a fire at a University building on the Upper West Side of Manhattan. Upon arrival, security personnel state that the fire is in a room where radioactive material is stored, and the material has been released from its container. The initial units on scene are equipped with Rad50 radiation monitors, and several alarm as soon as members approach the entrance to the building.

12. Which action taken by the Officer of Ladder 100, the first unit on scene, was incorrect? (Sec. 2.3, 3.2.2 C, 4.4, 4.4.1, 4.4.2)
    (A) Transmitted a 10-80 Code 1 and specified it was “For a Radiological Emergency”.
    (B) Ordered members to don their SCBA facepieces and bring an Air Purifying Respirator and adapter with them.
    (C) Ordered members to zero out and don a Dosimeter.
    (D) Notified the Officer of Engine 200, the 1st arriving Engine, that the fire needs to be extinguished. This decision was based on the knowledge that the Rad50 in conjunction with the dosimeters will allow members to operate until more sophisticated meters arrive.
    (E) Used the thermal imaging camera to locate the fire, but not to locate dispersed radiological material due to it not possessing this ability.

Answer 39

12. E

The thermal imaging camera may also be a useful tool in managing the life hazard by assisting in the location of victims, as well as dispersed radiological material (some radiological elements emit heat and can be picked up by the camera).

Question 40

Answer Questions 12 - 14 based on the following information
Units respond to a report of a fire at a University building on the Upper West Side of Manhattan. Upon arrival, security personnel state that the fire is in a room where radioactive material is stored, and the material has been released from its container. The initial units on scene are equipped with Rad50 radiation monitors, and several alarm as soon as members approach the entrance to the building.

13. Upon entering the building, with the Rad50 sounding the alert tone, the Officer of Ladder 100 had several thoughts. Which one was correct? (4.4.2)
    (A) The Rad50 LCD display immediately indicates any change in the level of radiation measured.
    (B) It is important to take the shortest path to the source of radiation, to quickly establish the Hot Zone. When the radiological source is detected, members must use a back and forth pattern to obtain accurate meter readings.
    (C) Access to the Hot Zone is restricted to first responders conducting life safety operations and protection of life and major property.
    (D) The Hotline shall be marked with yellow “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

Answer 40

13. C
    Note: The Rad50 takes a full minute for a change to be indicated on the LCD display/readout. As a safety factor in the meter, if the rate at any time exceeds 1mR/hr, the Rad50 will immediately sound the alert tone.
14. A circular pattern should then be used around the object or area to determine the size of the Hot Zone. A circular pattern is used in case the radiological source is partially shielded (See Figure 5).
15. The Department uses 1 mR/hr as an action level (Rad50 alarms). The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of 2 mR/hr (Canberra alarms), with access to this area restricted to first responders conducting life saving operations and protection of
    life and major property. The Hotline should be marked with red “hazardous materials” barrier tape. Keep in mind the radioactive material may be dispersed over an area, which may cause the Hotline to vary.

Question 41

Answer Questions 12 - 14 based on the following information
Units respond to a report of a fire at a University building on the Upper West Side of Manhattan. Upon arrival, security personnel state that the fire is in a room where radioactive material is stored, and the material has been released from its container. The initial units on scene are equipped with Rad50 radiation monitors, and several alarm as soon as members approach the entrance to the building.

14. At this incident, the Hotline, which defines the Hot Zone, should be established at a rate of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? (Sec. 4.4.2)
(A) 1 mR/hr
(B) 2 mR/hr
(C) 1 Rem/hr
(D) 2 Rem/hr

Answer 41

14. B
15. The Department uses 1 mR/hr as an action level (Rad50 alarms). The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of 2 mR/hr (Canberra alarms),

Question 42

15. At a Radiological Emergency, a Warm Zone is established if contamination is present and decontamination procedures need to be implemented. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Warm Zone? (Sec. 4.4.2 C)
    (A) Victims being removed from the Hot Zone to the Warm Zone may have levels of radiation greater than 2 mR/hr before they are decontaminated.
    (B) A Warm Zone is a specific area near the edge of the Hotline, usually superimposed in the Cold Zone.
    (C) The Warm Zone encircles the source of radiation.
    (D) Firefighters shall ensure ambulatory victims are directed to the Safe Refuge Area (SRA) and assessed for trauma and contamination by EMS in the Warm Zone.

Answer 42

15. C

 The Hotline is the edge of the Hot Zone and the point after which no contamination is present i.e. area is Cold. Greater than 2mR/hr is the hot zone and less than 2mR/hr is the cold zone. A warm zone is a specific
area near the edge of the hotline, usually superimposed in the cold zone. A warm zone does not encircle the source of radiation. Rather, it is a small defined location used for decontamination or as a Safe Refuge Area
(SRA), where the radiation levels are as low as possible.

Question 43

16. The concept of time, distance and shielding is used to limit the amount of radiation that members are exposed to. Choose the incorrect point concerning this concept. (Sec. 3.2.2, 4.4.3)
    (A) Each member is responsible for monitoring his or her dose.
    (B) Respiratory protection is required to operate in the Hot Zone. If a member’s SCBA tank runs out, the member should immediately switch to an APR if oxygen levels are sufficient.
    (C) Full bunker gear and respiratory protection is not suitable protection for most radiological emergencies.
    (D) Members should not operate within the line of sight of the radiological source.

Answer 43

16. C

Full Bunker gear and respiratory protection is suitable protection for most radiological emergencies. Emergencies involving other hazards such as an IDLH environment (i.e. chemicals vapors, low oxygen) will
require SCBA and additional PPE. Each member must don a dosimeter when operating at a Radiological
Emergency.

Question 44

17. Decontamination for radiological materials is considered successful if radiation levels on a person or equipment do not exceed .10 mR/hr or 50-200 cpm using the Ludlum meter with the pancake probe. Which point about decontamination is incorrect? (Sec. 6.2, 6.2.1, 6.2.2, 6.2.3, 6.2.4, 6.2.5)
    (A) Patients with life threatening injuries should be decontaminated first, followed by patients that are most severely contaminated but are not symptomatic, followed by prioritizing the remaining contaminated patients.
    (B) Wet decontamination is the preferred decontamination method used for radiological events because of how quickly it can remove contaminants
    (C) Fast-Track Decon using the Ludlum meter can be used if there are an overwhelming number of people who need to be assessed for contamination.
    (D) If the victim has not had any radiological medical treatment, has been properly decontaminated, and the Ludlum readings are still above twice the background, the decon Officer and Haz-Mat Branch Director shall be notified of possible internal exposure.

Answer 44

17. B

6.2.1 Decontamination Site Selection
Factors to consider when selecting a site to perform decontamination include:
 Proximity to the incident
 Wind direction
 Terrain
 Water run-off (if setting up wet decon; although, dry decon is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events)

Question 45

18. The Transport Index (TI) may be located in a rectangular box in the lower section of labels required on packages containing radioactive materials. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Transport Index? (Appendix 2 Sec. 2.1, 2.5)
    (A) The TI indicates the maximum level of radiation in mR/hr at one meter from the surface of the package.
    (B) If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached.
    (C) The TI applies to Alpha, Beta, and Gamma radiation.
    (D) The TI of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr, and the total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.

Answer 45

18. C
19. 5.4 The TI applies to levels of gamma radiation only. Readings of alpha or beta particles indicate the package may have been breached and the shielding compromised.

Question 46

1. Planning and preparing for an engine company response begins the moment the Fire Officer and Firefighter enter quarters. Which action taken after the start of each tour is incorrect? (Ch. 2 Sec. 2.2, 2.4, 2.5)
   (A) For units staffed with 4 firefighters, the “Door” and “Control” positions will be performed by the same member.
   (B) At roll call, engine companies should designate a member to perform forcible entry in the event that the assigned ladder company is delayed.
   (C) Immediately after roll call, the Company Officer, accompanied by the chauffeur, should inspect and examine the unit’s apparatus.
   (D) Following the roll call, only the Nozzle FF shall examine the hose bed.

Answer 46

1. D
2. 5 Following the roll call, all engine company firefighters shall examine the apparatus hose bed to familiarize themselves with the manner in which the hose is packed or folded. This is particularly important for detailed, overtime, or other than regularly assigned members.

Question 47

2. A hose strap, chock and spanner shall be carried by each engine company member. Which functions shall all engine company firefighter be able to perform? (Ch. 2 Sec. 2.8.2)
3. Transfer the engine apparatus from “road” to “pump”.
4. Connect the apparatus to a hydrant using each of the several connections available and standard hose.
5. Supply a sprinkler or standpipe Siamese at the proper pressure.
6. Charge and maintain adequate pressure on a hoseline using the pump panel controls.
   (A) 1, 2, 3
   (B) 1, 2, 4
   (C) 2,3 only
   (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer 47

2. B

All engine company firefighters should be able to perform the following functions:
• Transfer the engine apparatus from “road” to “pump”.
• Connect the apparatus to a hydrant using each of the several connections available and standard hose.
• Charge and maintain adequate pressure on a hoseline using the pump panel controls.

Question 48

3. While responding, the 2nd due engine co. shall make\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ effort to arrive first due, unless it is obvious that the 1st due engine co. will be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (Ch. 3 Sec. 3.3)
(A) No extraordinary, seriously delayed.
(B) No, slightly delayed
(C) No, reduced staffed.
(D) Every, arriving first

Answer 48

3. A

Question 49

4. There are several factors that must be considered while responding and positioning an engine company apparatus. Which one is incorrect? (Ch. 3 Sec. 3.6.1, 3.6.2, 3.6.4, Fig. 3-1)
   (A) In order to avoid passing the fire building, if no specific address is given, slow down upon approaching the box location. Be careful not to pass through an intersection where a turn into the block may be necessary.
   (B) When a street address is provided, proceed directly to the location.
   (C) The Officer will decide where to position the apparatus once the fire location has been determined.
   (D) Engine companies shall precede ladder companies when both units are responding together on the same alarm.
   (E) Ladder companies shall always allow engine companies to enter the block first.

Answer 49

4. E

With the exception of a fire building located at the end of a narrow dead end road, the ladder company should normally allow the engine company to enter the block first. This is to insure that both units don’t impede each others operation. Another exception to this procedure can be found in AUC 200 section 5.3.11, Winter Operations.

Question 50

5. While conducting a drill with a new ECC, Lt. Smith discussed several guidelines regarding water supply. Choose the correct choice concerning these guidelines. (Ch. 3 Sec. 3.7.1, 3.7.2)
   (A) All arriving engine companies and squad companies (assigned as an engine) shall locate and connect to a positive water source (hydrant, drafting, etc.)
   (B) Two handlines are always the maximum number allowed to be operated from a pumper.
   (C) The supply pumper in a relay operation may never supply any handlines or large caliber streams.
   (D) The pumper supplying a large caliber stream is not allowed to supply any handlines or additional large caliber streams.

Answer 50

5. A

3.7.2 Whenever possible, the following guidelines should be followed:
 Only two handlines should be operated from a pumper.
 The supply pumper in a relay operation should not supply any handlines or large caliber streams.
 The pumper supplying a large caliber stream should not supply any handlines or additional large caliber streams.

Question 51

6. The protection of life is the primary consideration at any fire ground operation. Which choice is incorrect concerning lifesaving operations conducted by an engine company? (Ch. 4 Sec. 4.2.1)
   (A) Lifesaving operations are placed ahead of firefighting when sufficient firefighters are not available to do both, as is the case when no ladder company is on scene.
   (B) The best lifesaving measure may be a prompt attack on the fire.
   (C) A life hazard, visible on arrival, must be addressed.
   (D) Immediate rescue attempts by the first arriving engine company can only be performed while simultaneously stretching and positioning a hoseline.

Answer 51

6. D

4.2.1 The protection of life is the primary consideration at any fireground operation. Engine companies are often confronted with life saving operations upon arrival. Life saving operations are placed ahead of firefighting when sufficient firefighters are not available to do both, as is the case when no ladder company is on the scene. Judgment is a key factor when confronted with this situation. The best life
saving measure may be a prompt attack on the fire which, if allowed to spread, would trap occupants. A life hazard, visible upon arrival, must be addressed.
However, immediate rescue attempts by the first arriving engine company without simultaneously stretching and positioning a hose line should be attempted only in extreme situations.

Question 52

7. Capt. Green of Engine 100, which arrived alone as the first Engine company, was immediately notified by bystanders that people were trapped on the 2nd floor of a 2 story, flat roof Private Dwelling. Which action taken by Capt. Green was incorrect? (Ch. 4 Sec. 4.2.2, 4.2.3)
   (A) He considered that his company was staffed with 5 firefighters prior to deciding to assign two members to place a portable ladder to the 2nd floor window.
   (B) He ordered two members to open the side and rear doors and vent windows to make the building more tenable.
   (C) He transmitted via the apparatus radio that were people were trapped on the second floor.
   (D) Upon hearing that the 1st Ladder Company was delayed, he entered the building with one firefighter to attempt to rescue the trapped occupant.

Answer 52

7. B

4.2.3 Actions that the officer of the first arriving engine company can implement to protect endangered occupants include:
 Position a hoseline between the fire and the endangered occupants.
 Give verbal instructions and assurances to the occupants.
 Close doors to limit the spread of smoke.
 Ensure that incoming units are informed of the location of endangered occupants.

Question 53

8. Modern content fires differ from the traditional fire development curve. Which choice correctly shows the order of progression of a modern content fire? (Ch. 4 Sec. 4.6.3)
9. A rapid growth stage that consumes the available oxygen very quickly.
10. Oxygen limited decay stage
11. Incipient stage
12. A second rapid growth stage if additional oxygen is added to the fire area.
13. A second decay stage as the fuel load is depleted or the fire is extinguished.
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    (B) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
    (C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
    (D) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Answer 53

8. B

4.6.3 The progression of modern content fires differs from the traditional fire development curve as follows. (Figure 2)
 Incipient.
 A rapid growth stage that consumes the available oxygen very quickly.
 Since modern content fires rapidly consume the available oxygen within the fire area, they enter into an earlier oxygen limited Decay stage when compared to Legacy Fires, and will remain in the Decay Stage if no additional oxygen is added to the fire area.
 If additional oxygen is added to the fire area, a second rapid growth stage may be encountered.
 A second decay stage will occur as the fuel load is depleted or the fire is extinguished.

Question 54

9. An understanding of the stages of modern fire development will contribute to a safer operation. An improper understanding of these stages can be found in which choice? (Ch. 4 Sec. 4.6.4)
   (A) Rollover, which is the term used to describe when the fire spreads across the ceiling of the fire compartment, occurs in the growth stage.
   (B) When rollover occurs, and members are not operating under the protection of a charged hoseline, they shall immediately leave and isolate the fire area, unless there is a known life hazard.
   (C) As the fire continues to progress from the growth to the fully developed stage, the potential for a flashover exists.
   (D) The fully developed stage usually occurs after flashover.
   (E) A backdraft may occur in the decay stage.

Answer 54

9. B

This rollover is an indicator that fire conditions are rapidly changing. When rollover is observed and members are not operating under the protection of a charged hoseline, they shall immediately leave and isolate the fire area. As the fire continues to progress towards the fully developed stage, the potential for a flashover exists. Flashover causes the fire to spread rapidly through the space, resulting in fire involvement of the entire compartment or enclosed space.

Question 55

10. A reversal of air pulling smoke back into a smoke filled opening or glass windows stained with smoke condensation and pulsating from the pressure of the fire are warning signs of a potential backdraft. Which smoke colors are also warning signs of a potential backdraft? (Ch. 4 Sec. 4.6.4 D)
11. Dense Black
12. Dirty Brown
13. Yellow Brown
14. Gray Yellow
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 2 and 4 only
    (D) 2, 3, 4 only

Answer 55

10. A

 Color of smoke varies according to the materials burning and the make-up of the flammable gases that are being produced. Dense black smoke indicates the lack of oxygen and large quantities of free carbon
and carbon monoxide gas. Other colors of smoke associated with a backdraft are dirty brown, yellow brown and gray yellow.

Question 56

1. While conducting company drill, Lt. George discussed the various methods used to mitigate a water leak. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6)
   (A) The main water shut off is usually found in a corner near the front building wall, is the coldest pipe, and is turned clockwise to shut off.
   (B) If the house main has been broken, strike a non-malleable pipe with the flat head of an axe until it is closed to stop the water flow.
   (C) A rounded end of a chock, pencil, chair leg or tapered piece of wood can be used as a plug on both malleable and non-malleable pipe.
   (D) If a flushometer on a toilet is leaking, you can shake the handle, tighten a fitting in the supply elbow, or tap the flushometer gently with the flat head of an axe to stop the leak.

Answer 56

1. B

3.6. House Main.
A. Frequently broken by scavengers collecting mungo for resale.
B. Action to stop water flow.
C. Malleable pipe (copper, lead).
1) Strike with maul or flat head of axe until sufficiently closed to stop water flow.
Refer: Reference 1, Figures 3 and 4
2) Insert rounded end of stick, chock, pencil, chairleg, etc. to be used as a plug.
Refer: Reference 1, Figure 5
NOTE: It is sometimes helpful to use cloth on end of wood to aid in sealing.

Question 57

2. Flooded basements are a drowning hazard and may cause problems with oil burners in the affected or adjacent buildings. Which choice is an incorrect action to take at a flooded basement? (Sec. 4.1, 4.2)
   (A) If the location of the drain is known then clear the surrounding area of debris. If the location of the drain is unknown look near the shower or basement sink.
   (B) Remove the toilet bowl to provide drainage.
   (C) At an occupied building, break into the cast iron waste pipe at the most convenient location with a Halligan and axe to permit water to escape.
   (D) At a vacant building, remove the clean-out plug of the waste pipe or open the street trap on the sewer side.

Answer 57

2. C

4.1. Occupied building.
A. May cause problems with oil burner in building or in an adjoining building. Children may be playing in area and could possibly be drowned.
B. Actions to be taken:
1) If location of drain is known then clear surrounding area of debris and if possible channel flow towards drain. Look near shower or basement sink for drain if location of drain is unknown.
2) Remove the toilet bowl. This action will provide drainage. A screen or wire basket will keep out debris.
4.2. Vacant building.
A. Same actions as occupied building
B. Break into cast iron waste pipe at most convenient location with Halligan and axe to permit water to escape. This location can be at ceiling level depending on water depth.
C. Remove clean - out plug of waste pipe.
D. Open the street trap on the sewer side.
Refer: Reference 2, Figure 1
CAUTION Avoid areas of basements where electrical power may be on.

Question 58

3. Flooded roofs present a danger, and the FDNY is sometimes dispatched to mitigate this danger. Choose an incorrect action to take at a flooded roof. (Sec. 5.1, Ref. 2 Fig. 3 &4)
   (A) Clear the blockage from the drain or scupper with a 6’ hook.
   (B) Stretch a length of hose under water and allow to fill, then kink one end of the hose and drape over the edge of the parapet extending below roof level. After doing this, release the kink.
   (C) Bring the booster line to the roof and charge the line, open the nozzle, and place it under water. Following these actions, shut down the pumps and disconnect the line at the street.
   (D) Remove a brick at a low point on the parapet wall which will serve as a scupper.
   (E) In an extreme emergency, if all other methods fail, clear the blockage with your hands.

Answer 58

3. E

A. DO NOT CLEAR ANY BLOCKAGE WITH HANDS!!! Member’s arm can be drawn into drain. Deaths have resulted. Actual suction pressure can be quite high.

Question 59

4. At the conclusion of All-hands fire in a private dwelling, the ECC of Engine 99 attempted to shut down the hydrant, but was unable to. The ECC then attempted to shut down the street shut off. Which action was correct? (Sec. 6.2)
   (A) The wrench was placed on the fitting and turned clockwise.
   (B) The wrench was turned 17 times to shut the water down completely.
   (C) The wrench was placed on the nut, found in the center of the chamber.
   (D) The ECC turned the wrench 12 times to completely shut the water down.
   (E) The wrench was turned the required 18 times counterclockwise to shut the water off.

Answer 59

4. B

6.2. Street shut down.
Action.
1) Remove plate (sometimes difficult).
2) After cover removed, you may have to direct some water to clear chamber of mud and debris.
3) Place wrench on fitting (this is not always easily done) and turn counter clockwise 17 times.
NOTES:
1. To facilitate operation water may have to be diverted by board, garbage can cover, etc.
2. Not until about 12 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.
3. Nut is usually found off center on the street side of the chamber.
Refer: Reference 3, Figure 1

Question 60

5. After a Nor’easter had passed through the area, units in Northern Queens responded to numerous incidents with wires down. If the downed wires are creating a situation with human life in danger, which two actions taken by the first arriving Engine or Ladder are incorrect? (TWO ANSWERS) (Sec. 8.1, 8.2)
   (A) Contact the Dispatcher stating that life is in danger and specify the location (address, pole number) of the downed wires.
   (B) Request forthwith power removal and priority response by the utility company.
   (C) Request the response of a Battalion Chief if not already assigned.
   (D) Contact the Utility Company Electrical Operations Center directly by cell phone indicating that life is in danger and request priority response.
   (E) Check nearby buildings for heat at the fuse box/electrical service entrance box using the back of the hand. If the box is hot, open the house service to shut power.
   (F) Stretch a hoseline with a fog nozzle, keeping at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating the hoseline.

Answer 60

5. D

8.2 WIRES DOWN IN THE STREET
A. Immediately upon confirming that live electrical wires are down and are creating a situation that places human life in danger:
 The first arriving unit must contact the Fire Department Dispatcher via Department radio indicating that life is in danger. Specify the location (address, pole number) of the downed wires, and request forthwith power removal and priority response by utility company.
 Request response of Battalion Chief if not already assigned.
 Responding Battalion Chief shall also contact the Utility Company Electrical Operations Center directly by cell phone indicating that life is in danger and request priority response. These telephone numbers are found on the
Con Edison notification cards distributed to all Chiefs Officers.

Question 61

6. At an oil burner emergency, units must disconnect the electric power and shut the fuel off. Which choice is incorrect concerning these actions? (Sec. 10.1)
   (A) At a private dwelling or brownstone the remote shut off is painted red and is generally located at the top of the interior cellar stairs
   (B) In an Old Law Tenement, New Law Tenement or frame building the remote shut off is painted red and generally located outside of the oil burner room.
   (C) All oil burner tanks have a fuel shut off at the tank.
   (D) 275 gallon tanks have a fuel shut off at the oil burner.

Answer 61

6. B

1) Shut off electric power by use of oil burner remote control. Oil burner remote control is generally painted red and generally located at the following locations:
a. In a private dwelling at the top of interior cellar stairs.
b. In an old law tenement, brownstone or frame building at the top of the interior cellar stairs.
NOTE: At above locations listen for sound of burner going off as switch may be for lights.
c. In a new law tenement or apartment house outside of the oil burner room.
NOTES:
1. Be alert to other locations for switch especially if there is a commercial occupancy on street floor.
2. It is helpful to turn on lights if possible.

Question 62

7. The overheating of a gas burner can be identified by the \_\_\_\_\_\_ odor and the sides of the boiler can be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. \_\_\_\_\_\_ add water. (Sec. 13.1)
(A) Metallic, Cherry Red, Do not.
(B) Pungent, Cherry Red, Immediately.
(C) Metallic, Black, Do not.
(D) Pungent, Black, Immediately.

Answer 62

7. A

13.1. Identification metallic odor caused by overheating when aquastat or low water cut-off is not functioning. Sides of boiler can be cherry red. Boiler needs water. DO NOT ADD.
The boiler must cool down first.
A. Locate gas shut off at either boiler or at service entrance. Turn perpendicular to pipe (¼ turn).
B. Occupant needs Brooklyn Union Gas or Con Ed to restore gas.

Question 63

TB’S FIRES 1 - 4
Fires 1
1. The correct way to extinguish a fire in a mailbox can be found in which choice?
(A) Discharge dry chemical into the mail slot using 3 short blasts with a 2 minute waiting time.
(B) Discharge Carbon Dioxide through the mail slot using 3 short blasts with a 2 minute waiting time.
(C) Discharge water through the top of the mailbox using 2 short blasts with a 2 minute waiting time.
(D) Discharge Carbon Dioxide into the mail slot using 2 short blasts with a 3 minute waiting time.

Answer 63

1. B

The following chart shows the action and average waiting time required for extinguishment of
fires in the various size mail boxes. Additional extinguishing medium shall be injected if
needed.
TYPE OF
MAILBOX
SIZE
(CU. FT.)
OPERATION REQUIRED
DRY CHEMICAL OR
CARBON DIOXIDE
WAITING TIME
Parcel Post 9.72 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Medium Letter 2.70 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Small Letter 1.44 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Note: Short blast is considered to be a full squeeze of the extinguisher trigger and a quick
release.

Question 64

TB’S FIRES 1 - 4
Fires 2
2. When encountering a dog at a fire or emergency operation, members would be incorrect to take which action? (Sec. 4.2, 4.4, 4.6)
(A) If smoke or fire conditions are evident and a dog is present, do not force entry until you have called the listed security number.
(B) A good practice is to give the dog a means of escape.
(C) A water or Carbon Dioxide extinguisher may be used on a dangerous dog. Direct the stream into the dog’s face.
(D) In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream.

Answer 64

2. A
3. 2 If smoke or fire conditions are not evident and a dog is present, call the listed number relative to security dogs (24-hour service is maintained to take charge of these dogs).

Question 65

TB'S FIRES 1 - 4
Fires 2
3. When a dog bites a member, all of the following shall be notified with the exception of which one? (Sec. 4.13)
(A) EMS
(B) The Citywide Tour Commander
(C) Board of Health
(D) The Animal Care Center if the dog is a stray
(E) Medical Officer

Answer 65

3. B

4.13 If a dog attacks a member, other members in the immediate vicinity should render
assistance. If anyone is bitten, every attempt should be made to isolate the dog for
examination and the following notifications shall be made:
4.13.1 EMS
4.13.2 Police Department
4.13.3 Board of Health
4.13.4 The Animal Care Center, if the dog is a stray
4.13.5 Medical Officer

acronym-My Puppy Bites Every Asshole

Question 66

Fires 3
TB’S FIRES 1 - 4
Fires 3
4. Following a fire in a foam rubber mattress in a project-type multiple dwelling, the Battalion Chief held a critique. Which point was incorrect? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4)
(A) When foam rubber furniture or bedding has been involved in fire, a hose line should be stretched to effect complete extinguishment, unless the fire was extinguished with an extinguisher.
(B) Where possible, roll foam rubber mattresses up and tie them tightly before moving them.
(C) In all cases where there is evidence of the fire burning below or into the surface it is necessary to cut away all the charred material and remove it to a sink, tub, or pail of water.
(D) Cotton or fiber filled furnishings involved in fire shall be wet down thoroughly with a hose line and if possible, roll and tie tightly before moving.

Answer 66

4. A
5. 1 In any case where foam rubber furniture or bedding has been involved in fire, a hose line should be stretched to apply sufficient water to effect complete extinguishment, this notwithstanding that they appear to have been extinguished by an extinguisher.

Question 67

Fires 4
5. Lexan is half the weight of glass, is self-extinguishing and has one third the thermal conductivity of glass. Which tools used to ventilate Lexan would be both effective and safe? (Sec. 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, 3.7, 3.8)
(1) The Portable Power Saw equipped with the carbide tipped blade
(2) The Sawzall with the coarse tooth wood blade.
(3) The Superior Air Hammer (air chisel)
(4) Oxyacetylene torch
(5) Pike Axe
(6) The chain saw
(7) The portable electric hand saw with a carbide tipped blade.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 7
(C) 4, 5, 6, 7
(D) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7

Answer 67

5. B
6. 1 LEXAN windows as presently installed are very difficult to ventilate, since they cannot be broken by the use of conventional forcible entry tools.
7. 2 LEXAN can be cut quickly and easily by using the Portable Power Saw equipped with the carbide tipped blade.
8. 3 The Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blade, is also effective on LEXAN but it is slower than the Portable Power Saw.
9. 4 The Superior Air Hammer (air chisel) is ineffective.
10. 5 The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective.
11. 6 The pike axe is ineffective.
12. 7 The chain saw is unsafe to use since it tends to shatter the LEXAN and throws chips like shrapnel.
13. 8 The portable electric hand saw can be used but the wood cutting blade tends to gum up quickly. A carbide tipped blade would be more effective.