Flight Controls & Stall Protection Flashcards

1
Q

What will happen if pitch trim is outside the green when the takeoff configuration button is pressed?

A

“NO TAKEOFF, TRIM”

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2
Q

How long are electric and hydraulic PBIT tests valid for?

A

50 hours

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3
Q

When does electric PBIT begin?

A

AC power is established

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4
Q

How long does the electric PBIT take to perform the test?

A

3 minutes

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5
Q

What mode are higher level flight control functions active?

A

Normal

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6
Q

When does hydraulic PBIT begin?

A

When all three hydraulic systems are pressurized

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7
Q

How long does the hydraulic PBIT test take?

A

1 minute

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8
Q

What flight control is NOT fly-by-wire?

A

Ailerons

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9
Q

Which trim is not automatically accomplished when the auto pilot is on?

A

Yaw trim

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10
Q

What is the max speed for flaps/slats 1?

A

230 KIAS

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11
Q

What system provides higher level functions to the flight controls?

A

FCM

Flight Control Module

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12
Q

When is the stick shaker activated?

A

When pitched to Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI)

Airspeed indicates in the Low Speed Awareness (LSA red region)

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13
Q

How is stall protection accomplished?

A

Stick shaker and AOA limiting

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14
Q

How can you interrupt hydraulic PBIT?

A

Move a flight control surface

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15
Q

Can you deploy ground spoilers manually?

A

No, they are deployed automatically after landing

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16
Q

When will speed brakes automatically stow in flight?

A

Thrust levers near TOGA
Flap 2 or greater
Airspeed is slower than 180 KIAS

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17
Q

How can you interrupt electric PBIT?

A

Turning on a hydraulic pump

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18
Q

What is the alternate mode for flight control if normal mode fails?

A

Direct mode.

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19
Q

What does direct mode bypass?

A

FCM

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20
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A
Slats
Flaps
Spoilers (ground and multi function)
Ailerons
Stabilizer
Elevator
Rudder
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21
Q

What are the various ACEs?

A

P-ACE
SF-ACE
HS-ACE
S-ACE

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22
Q

What does P-ACE control?

A

Primary ACE

Elevator and rudder?

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23
Q

What does SF-ACE control?

A

Slats/Flaps

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24
Q

What does the S-ACE control?

A

Spoiler

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25
Q

Do we have aerodynamic trim?

A

No the hydraulics hold the flight controls in a neutral position

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26
Q

What flight controls are electric?

A

Slats and horizontal stab

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27
Q

What are the Higher Level Functions provided by the FCM?

A
Elevator control laws
Auto-thrust compensation
AOA limiting
Rudder airspeed gain and stoke limit
YD and TC via AFCS
Rudder flight authority
Roll spoiler scheduling with speed-breaks
Configuration change compensation
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28
Q

What higher level functions are available in direct mode?

A

None

29
Q

What are the trim priorities?

A

Back up controls
Captain yoke
FO yoke
FCM

30
Q

How long are trim inputs limited to?

A

3 seconds

31
Q

How can you lock out the trim switches?

A

Hold only 1 of the split switches for 7 seconds

32
Q

When will the E-PBIT run?

A

When AC power is established?

33
Q

How long does the E-PBIT take to complete the test

A

3 minutes

34
Q

What will interrupt the E-PBIT?

A

Moving flight controls
Interruption of AC power
Flight control mode switches (normal - direct)

35
Q

How long are the PBITs valid?

A

50 hrs

36
Q

When does the H-PBIT start?

A

When all hydraulics are pressurized?

37
Q

How long does the H-PBIT test take?

A

1 minute

38
Q

What will interrupt the H-PBIT?

A

Flight control surface movement

39
Q

What is the recommend temperature for the hydraulic reservoir for the P-BIT test?

A

12 C

40
Q

What is the limit for the hydraulic reservoir temperature for the PBIT test?

A

-18 C

41
Q

When are you required to warm up the hydraulic reservoir for the PBIT test?

A

Below -18 C

Recommend below 10 C

42
Q

What is the procedure if you inadvertently interrupt the H-PBIT and it is expired?

A

Follow the SOPM procedure

43
Q

If the elevator is in direct mode, what higher level function is lost?

A

AOA limiting

44
Q

“FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” on EICAS after engine starts indicates what?

A

Hydraulic flight control components are being tested

45
Q

When will the ground spoilers deploy?

A

Weight on wheels
Above 45 kts wheel speed or above 60 KIAS
Thrust lever angle below 26 degrees

46
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

When the wheel speed is below 45 kts for 5 seconds or

Thrust levers are moved beyond 35 degrees

47
Q

What does flight control direct mode do?

A

Bypasses the FCM

48
Q

When do we push shaker cutout 1(2)?

A

QRH directed

49
Q

What will make the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

Less than 180 KIAS
flaps greater than 1
Greater than 70 degrees TLA

50
Q

What will we get if the airplane puts the brakes away

automatically?

A

SPEED BRAKE LEVER DISAG EICAS message

51
Q

Which trim functions have memory items?

A

Pitch trim and roll trim

52
Q

What are the trim priorities?

A

Back up, CA, FO, AFCM

53
Q

What happens when we hold the switch for 3 seconds?

A

Aural “TRIM” and stops moving the trim

54
Q

What happens when we hold 1 trim switch for 7 seconds?

A

Hard disconnect MX must resolve

55
Q

What flap settings can we use for takeoff?

A

Flaps 1, 2, or 4

56
Q

What flaps setting can we use for landing?

A

Flaps 5 or FULL

57
Q

What are GA flap settings?

A

Flaps 2 or 4

58
Q

What’s the difference between flaps 4 and 5?

A

Flaps 4 is for takeoff and flaps 5 is for landing

There is no angular difference

59
Q

When do we have to be fully configured for a stable approach?

A

1000’ RA

60
Q

What does our airspeed have to be at 500’?

A

Confines of the speed bug

61
Q

What happens if you cannot maintain a stable airspeed at 500 ft?

A

Go around

62
Q

What kind of procedure requires pulling the flight control disconnect?

A

Memory item

63
Q

When do we pull the flight control disconnect handle?

A

Jammed flight controls

64
Q

What does the TCS button do on the yoke?

A

Pauses the auto pilot

65
Q

What happens to FD when TCS is pushed?

A

Follows flight path

66
Q

Can we use TCS to respond to an RA?

A

No

67
Q

Can we use TCS to break away from an PRM ILS?

A

Yes

68
Q

What does the AP disconnect button do on the yoke?

A

1 press to disconnect 2 to stop the aural warning