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NBCOT Exam > Flash Cards > Flashcards

Flash Cards

1
Q

In infant development, which comes first: bilaterality or unilaterality?

A

Bilaterality precedes unilaterality in infant development

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2
Q

When does hand dominance begin to develop?

A

Hand dominance begins to develop at 3 to 6 years, and is not fully defined until 6 years

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3
Q

Can someone with receptive aphasia participate in sensory testing?

A

Individuals with this disorder cannot comprehend spoken or written words or symbols. Individuals cannot understand verbal directions or respond to sensory stimuli.

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4
Q

What is somatognosia?

A

Lack of awareness of one’s body parts.

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5
Q

What is anosognosia?

A

Severe form of neglect. Patient does not recognize the presence or severity of his paralysis.

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6
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Face blindness. Inability to identify an individual by their face.

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7
Q

What is visual-spacial agnosia?

A

Affects perception of spatial relationship between objects, or between objects and self.

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8
Q

What is auditory agnosia?

A

Inability to recognize sounds, words and non-words.

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9
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A

Lack of ability to recognize common objects and demonstrate their use in an activity.

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10
Q

What is apraxia?

A

Loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned (familiar) movements, despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements

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11
Q

What is ideomotor apraxia?

A

Inability to imitate gestures or perform a purposeful motor task on command, even though the patient is able to fully understand the idea or concept of a task. This is often associated with left hemisphere damage.

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12
Q

What is ideational apraxia?

A

The disability of carrying out complex sequential motor acts. Caused by a disruption of the conception, rather than execution. (Loss of tool function knowledge)

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13
Q

What is constructional apraxia?

A

Unable to produce designs in 2 or three dimensions by copying, drawing, or constructing.

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14
Q

What is oral apraxia?

A

Difficulty in forming and organizing intelligable words, though the musculature required to do so is in tact. Differs from disarthria because no muscles are affected and speech is not slurred.

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15
Q

By what age does an infant sit erect and unsupported for several minutes?

A

By 8 to 9 months, an infant can sit erect and unsupported.

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16
Q

What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

A

is caused by trauma, post-surgical inflammation, infection, or laceration to an extremity. Characterized by pain, edema, shiny skin, blotchy skin, and excessive sweating or dryness.

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17
Q

What is another name for reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

A

Complex regional pain syndrome.

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18
Q

What is a symmetric tonic neck reflex?

A

When an infant’s neck is extended, the elbows extend and the hips flex. When the head is lowered, the elbows flex and the hips extend.

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19
Q

What is a bunny hop pattern?

A

A bunny hop pattern is a result of symmetric tonic neck reflex utilization in order to elicit movement at the hips and elbows for mobility.

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20
Q

What stage is initiated by looking at and reaching
for food?

A

The oral preparatory phase.

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21
Q

After swallowing a pureed substance, you notice
the individual has a wet, gurgling voice. What
might this indicate?

A

Possible aspiration. A videoflouroscopy is often
times needed to determine is this is the case.

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22
Q

aspiration

A

the action or process of drawing breath

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23
Q

In an acute care psychiatric setting, which group
treatment is the most appropriate for individuals
with disorganized psychosis?

A

Directive group treatment: a highly structured
approach used in acute care for minimally
functional individuals.

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24
Q

What type of group structure would be most
appropriate for individuals with substance abuse?

A

A task group is appropriate for substance abuse
disorders.

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25
Q

What group format is most appropriate for eating
and adjustment disorders?

A

Psychoeducation groups

26
Q

What is a Laissez-Faire leadership style?

A

Laissez-Faire is a “hands off” approach. Goals are
not stated, the purpose is not clear, members are
not discouraged or encouraged. This is for a
high-functioning group.

27
Q

What is the optimum number of members for a
therapy group?

A

Five to six.

28
Q

What is the optimum number of members for a
counseling group?

A

No more than eight members.

29
Q

What would you do if you had ten people assigned
to your group?

A

Divide them into two subgroups.

30
Q

What is autocratic leadership?

A

The leader exerts complete control.

31
Q

What is democratic leadership?

A

This style can be a problem-solving style.
Group members feel safe to express views,
thoughts, and feelings.

32
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as beneficence?

A

Concern for the safety and well-being of the
recipients of OT services.

33
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as nonmaleficence?

A

Ensure recipient’s safety and do no harm.

34
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as autonomy?

A

Respect patient rights, including confidentiality.

35
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as procedural justice?

A

Comply with laws

36
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as veracity?

A 
Providing accurate information when representing
the profession (don't lie)
37
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as duty?

A

Maintain credentials and continually learn craft

38
Q

According to the OT code of ethics, what is
defined as fidelity?

A

Treat colleagues and other professionals with
respect, fairness, and integrity.

39
Q

What are precautions of neuroleptic medications?

A

Power tools and sharp instruments should be
avoided, and sun exposure should be limited.

40
Q

What is extrapyramidal syndrome?

A

neurological side
effect of anti-psychotic medication that mimics the
effects of Parkinson’s disease. This can cause
rigidity, bradykinesia, cogwheel and leadpipe
rigidity, loss of postural mechanisms, and a
resting, pill-rolling tremor.

41
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

a neurological syndrome
caused by the long-term use of neuroleptic drugs.
Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive,
involuntary, purposeless movements. Features of
the disorder may include grimacing, tongue
protrusion, lip smacking, puckering and pursing,
and rapid eye blinking. Involuntary movements of
the fingers may appear as though the individual is
playing an invisible guitar or piano.

42
Q

What is ataxia?

A

describes a lack of coordination while
performing voluntary movements. It may appear
as clumsiness, inaccuracy, or instability.

43
Q

What is bradykinesia?

A

means “slow movement.”

44
Q

What is choreoathetosis?

A

is a movement of intermediate
speed, fluctuating between the quick, flitting
movements of chorea and the slower, writhing
movements of athetosis.

45
Q

What is dystonia?

A

is a neurologic movement disorder
characterized by sustained muscle contractions,
usually producing twisting and repetitive
movements or abnormal postures or positions.

46
Q

What is Huntington’s Disease?

A

The classic signs of HD include the development
of chorea–or involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky
movements that may affect the face, arms, legs, or
trunk–as well as the gradual loss of thought
processing and acquired intellectual abilities
(dementia).

47
Q

What is adiadochokinesis?

A

The inability to perform rapid alternating
movements such as pronation/supination.

48
Q

What is dysmetria?

A

Dysmetria is the inability to estimate the ROM
necessary to meet the target. Evident when the
individual tries to touch the nose.

49
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

Involuntary movement of the eyeballs in an
up/down, back/forth motion. Interferes with head
control.

50
Q

What is dysarthria?

A

Explosive or slurred speech caused by
incoordination of muscles involved in speech.
Classified as a neuromotor problem.

51
Q

What are intention tremors?

A

Occurs during voluntary movement. Intensified at
the termination of the movement and often
associated with MS.

52
Q

What are resting tremors?

A

Occurs at rest and subsides when voluntary
movement is attempted.
Seen in Parkinson’s disease.

53
Q

What FIMS score would be given to a person who
needs a helper to set up items or assistive devices?

A

A score of “5” or “Supervision or setup” can be
obtained if a helper is needed to set up items or
assistive devices for the person.

54
Q

What is the minimum doorway width for a
wheelchair?

A

What is the minimum doorway width for a
wheelchair?

55
Q

What is the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill?

A

Provides support groups open to clients & families
with a focus on education and support for mental
illness.

56
Q

Which sensations return FIRST following a nerve
injury?

A

Pain and temperature

57
Q

What food consistency is most difficult to
swallow?

A

Foods that have liquid and solid consistencies are
hardest to chew and swallow.

58
Q

What is parasthesia?

A

Sensation of tingling, itching, numbness or
burning caused by sustained nerve pressure or
reduced blood flow.

59
Q

What is “close supervision” defined as?

A

Close supervision is defined as “daily, direct
contact at the site of work”

60
Q

What is Durable Medical Equipment (DME)?

A

Items that can withstand repeated use, such as a
wheelchair, medical bed, and walkers.

61
Q

Is a shower chair considered a DME?

A

Adaptive equipment is not covered under
Medicare as a DME. Items not included are
shower chairs, reachers, hand-held showers.

62
Q

What are the main goals of work hardening?

A

To return the individual to work. Focus on pain
management and proper body mechanics is key.

NBCOT Exam (21 decks)

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