FL 9 - Psych/Soc Flashcards
Some sociologists attribute the increase in inequality in the United States to a breakdown in social solidarity caused by excessive individualism and increasing social isolation. Which sociological concept is closest to this explanation?
A. Anomie
B. Conflict theory
C. Functionalism
D. Rational choice theory
A. Anomie
Anomie, first used by the famed sociologist Emile Durkheim, describes the breakdown in social bonds in modern societies, which is the result of a loss of social norms and reciprocity.
Another theory comes from George Herbert Mead, who described the self in two parts called the Me and the I.
The part of self that is developed through interaction with society is the ____. The development of this aspect comes from considering the generalized other, which is based on a person’s established perceptions of the expectations of society. Any time that a person tries to imagine what is expected of them in a social situation, they are taking on the perspective of the generalized other. And by considering the perspective of the generalized other and adapting one’s behavior appropriately, the ___ develops.
Another theory comes from George Herbert Mead, who described the self in two parts called the Me and the I.
The part of self that is developed through interaction with society is the Me. The development of the Me comes from considering the generalized other, which is based on a person’s established perceptions of the expectations of society. Any time that a person tries to imagine what is expected of them in a social situation, they are taking on the perspective of the generalized other. And by considering the perspective of the generalized other and adapting one’s behavior appropriately, the Me develops.
By contrast, the ___ is the individual’s own impulses. However, the it is not totally independent of the ___. Rather, a person’s impulses are shaped by their interpretation of society’s expectations. In short, the ___ shapes the ___.
By contrast, the I is the individual’s own impulses. However, the I is not totally independent of the Me. Rather, a person’s impulses are shaped by their interpretation of society’s expectations. In short, the Me shapes the I.
What is trait theory?
This is an overarching term that may refer to a number of different theories, including the Big Five theory of personality or the PEN model. Trait theories of personality generally divide personalities into a more limited set of traits that interact differently in various individuals.
What is creative intelligence?
Creative intelligence involves the ability to deal with new situations using past experiences and current skills.
In addition to prenatal visits, regular postpartum checkups are also encouraged in order to monitor infant development. One way to assess an infant’s neural development is to check for primitive reflexes. To check for the Moro reflex, a physician may:
A. stroke an infant’s cheek, and then observe whether the infant turns their head.
B. stroke an infant’s palm, and then observe whether the infant grasps their finger.
C. stroke the sole of an infant’s foot, and then observe whether the infant’s toes fan out.
D. make a loud sound, and then observe whether the infant extends their arms and legs.
D. make a loud sound, and then observe whether the infant extends their arms and legs.
This choice describes the Moro reflex. The Moro reflex is a type of startle reflex that occurs in response to sudden movement or loud sounds, in which an infant extends its arms and legs, throws back its head, and cries.
__________ memory refers to memories related to plans to do something in the future.
Prospective memory refers to memories related to plans to do something in the future.
After an infant forms a mental representation of the visual habituation stimuli using short-term memory, how long will it likely be remembered?
A. 5-10 seconds
B. 15-30 seconds
C. 1 day
D. Indefinitely
B. 15-30 seconds
The passage states that the mental representations of visual habitual stimuli enter short-term memory. Short-term memory lasts approximately 15-30 seconds, unless it is actively rehearsed, which could extend this period.
What is an approximation of the time frame for working memory?
5-10 seconds
The __________ bias is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors, while attributing others’ behavior to dispositional (internal) factors.
The actor-observer bias is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors, while attributing others’ behavior to dispositional (internal) factors.
The _________ bias is a tendency to make attributions that protect our self-esteem, namely by attributing our own positive behaviors to dispositional factors and negative behaviors to situational factors.
The self-serving bias is a tendency to make attributions that protect our self-esteem, namely by attributing our own positive behaviors to dispositional factors and negative behaviors to situational factors.
Explain the false consensus effect
The false consensus effect means that people tend to overestimate how common their behavior is and assume that others do the same things they do.
Jenny is 13 years old. She believes that smoking marijuana after school every day is a completely normal experience and assumes that all of her classmates do the same thing when they go home. What attribution bias is Jenny making?
A. False consensus effect
B. Actor-observer bias
C. Fundamental attribution error
D. Self-serving bias
A. False consensus effect
The false consensus effect means that people tend to overestimate how common their behavior is and assume that others do the same things they do.
Define cultural capital
Cultural capital encompasses non-financial factors that lead to social mobility such as:
knowledge of styles and manners of speech, appearance, and charisma.
It does not include the value of social networks, though having strong social networks can help in acquiring it.
What is the difference between fertility rate and birth rate?
The fertility rate is also a common sociological term, but this refers to the number of children per woman, not per 1000 people.
The birth rate refers to the number of children born each year per 1000 people.
A particular study repeatedly refers to the number of yearly births per 1000 people. What is the correct term for this measurement?
A. Birth rate
B. Fertility rate
C. Mortality rate
D. Prevalence rate
A. Birth rate
The birth rate is the common term for number of births per 1000 people.
In the human eye, photoreceptors that are responsible for perceiving color and fine detail are predominantly located in the:
A. iris.
B. fovea.
C. sclera.
D. cornea.
B. fovea.
The fovea is a small central pit in the retina that only contains cones, which are the photoreceptors that are responsible for perceiving color and fine detail.
Compare and contrast the imaging techniques of CT and MRI
The choice between CT and MRI depends on several factors - for instance, MRI is better at imaging soft structures and does not involve a dose of ionizing radiation, which is a downside of CT imaging, but it is also more expensive, time-consuming, and involved for the patient. However, what CT and MRI have in common is that both techniques are good for imaging static structures.
Can EEG be used to localize the source of brain signals?
An EEG, or electroencephalogram, measures brain activity through electrodes placed on the scalp. This method is poor at localizing the source of signals and is more commonly used to monitor different stages of sleep.
Explain and give an example of reaction formation
Reaction formation refers to an unconscious transmutation of unacceptable desires into their opposite. A common example of reaction formation is an individual’s attraction towards another person being converted into hatred.
Explain and give an example of the defense mechanism of displacement
Displacement involves satisfying an impulse, such as aggression, with a substitute object.
A common example of displacement is feeling irritated towards one’s family due to stress at work.
What is a key difference between the defense mechanisms of displacement and sublimation
Though displacement is similar to sublimation, there is a key difference: sublimation involves the redirection of impulses to socially acceptable behavior, while displacement does not have this characteristic and is a more general term.
Research has shown that, during periods of mania, some individuals with bipolar disorder may utilize Freudian defense mechanisms. If an individual were to redirect inappropriate desires into more socially acceptable behaviors, they would be exhibiting:
A. reaction formation.
B. sublimation.
C. displacement.
D. projection.
B. sublimation.
Sublimation refers to the redirection of desires that are felt to be unacceptable or inappropriate into another behavior. A common example of sublimation is encouraging kids to play sports in order to redirect feelings of aggression or anger. This matches the description in the question, and is the correct answer.
What defense mechanism is demonstrated here:
encouraging kids to play sports in order to redirect feelings of aggression or anger.
A common example of sublimation is encouraging kids to play sports in order to redirect feelings of aggression or anger.
Daniel is hired as a new sales executive at a pharmaceutical company. Daniel’s coworkers form a:
A. Primary group
B. Secondary group
C. Peer group
D. Reference group
B. Secondary group
A secondary group is more short-lasting and consists of superficial or transient relationships. Because Daniel was newly hired at his company, it is likely that he is still getting to know his coworkers, and thus considers them to be a secondary group.
what is a major difference between a secondary group and a peer group?
In a secondary group, the interactions are impersonal and businesslike, with few emotional bonds and with the goal of accomplishing a specific purpose. Secondary groups typically last for a short period of time, and they form and dissolve without any special significance to those involved, an example being students working together on a group project.
A peer group is a group that consists of self-selected equals associated by similar interests, ages, or statuses. Peer groups provide an opportunity for friendship and feelings of belonging.
What is a major distinguisher of a peer group?
A peer group is a group that consists of self-selected equals associated by similar interests, ages, or statuses. Peer groups provide an opportunity for friendship and feelings of belonging.
Define and give an example of a reference group
reference groups are groups that individuals use as a standard for evaluating themselves.
For example, to determine how strong a medical school applicant you are, you might compare yourself to the reference group of all medical school applicants.
Explain the theory of Gemeinschaft und Gesellschaft,
The German sociologist Ferdinand Tönnies distinguished two major types of groups. His theory is known as Gemeinschaft und Gesellschaft, which translates to community and society.
Gemeinschaft (community) refers to groups unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography. Families and neighborhoods are examples of Gemeinschaften.
Gesellschaft (society) refers to less personal groups that are formed out of mutual self-interests working together toward the same goal. Companies and countries are examples of Gesellschaften.
Explain and give an example of identification, in the context of conformity
Identification is a type of conformity that happens when a person does something to conform to a social role.
For example, if someone was a rock star and believed they had to drink to be a rock star, this would be identification.
Explain the similarities and differences between identification and internalization, in the context of conformity
Internalization and identification both deal with accepting others’ ideas, but whereas internalization also reflects a change in internal thoughts to agree with the idea, identification is acceptance of the idea on the surface level without internalizing it.
Alcohol consumption may result in “blackouts,” or the inability of a person who drinks to recall events that happened while he or she was drinking. This type of memory loss is best classified as:
A. retrograde amnesia.
B. anterograde amnesia
C. post-traumatic amnesia.
D. psychogenic amnesia.
B. anterograde amnesia
Blackout describes the inability of a person who drinks to recall events that happened while he or she was drinking, suggesting that he or she was unable to form memories while under the influence of alcohol. The inability to form new memories is called anterograde amnesia.
During an experiment, participants were asked to listen to a recording of a familiar song that was played from the middle of the track, rather than from the beginning. The researchers then measured how long it took for participants to accurately identify the song. Which of the following strategies was most likely used by participants prior to identifying the song and after identifying the song, respectively?
A. Top-down processing and bottom-up processing
B. Bottom-up processing and top-down processing
C. Top-down processing and sensory adaptation
D. Bottom-up processing and sensory adaptation
B. Bottom-up processing and top-down processing
Bottom-up processing refers to a pattern in which our brain takes pieces of sensory information and assembles them into a coherent whole. This is NOT influenced by background knowledge. Before identifying the song, participants had to rely on their perception of the raw sound produced by the recording, making this an instance of bottom-up processing.
After identifying the song, participants then switched to top-down processing, which uses background knowledge and prior expectations to recognize an object.
Define:
Meta-cognition
Meta-cognition involves being able to think about thinking, and enables an individual to observe his own processes and learn from them.
Explain the idea of primary prevention of a disease/problem behavior
Primary prevention refers to prevention of a disease or problem behavior before any signs, symptoms, or risk behaviors have developed.
Explain the idea of secondary prevention of a disease/problem behavior
Secondary prevention is seen when there is an established risk factor present or when a disease/problem behavior has already begun to develop.
Explain the idea of tertiary prevention of a disease/problem behavior
Tertiary prevention refers to the prevention of a disease or problem behavior from getting significantly worse;
For example, if students had significant, non-normative issues with alcohol use or abuse, tertiary prevention might serve to establish a school-wide AA or harm reduction program
Define:
Detection bias
Detection bias arises from educated professionals using their knowledge in an inconsistent way by searching for an outcome that disproportionately occurs in certain populations.
According to Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development theory, what conflict is resolved during adolescence?
A. Identity versus role confusion
B. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
C. Intimacy versus isolation
D. Initiative versus guilt
A. Identity versus role confusion
During adolescence (typically defined as the age range of 12-18), teens attempt to develop self-identity and a sense of where they stand in their social group.
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 20 and 40?
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Ages 20-40
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 40 and 65?
Generativity vs Stagnation
Ages 40-65
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises at 65 and older?
Ego integrity vs Despair
Ages 65+
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 6 and 12?
Industry vs Inferiority
Ages 6-12
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 3 and 6?
Initiative vs Guilt
Ages 3-6
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 1 and 3?
Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt
Ages 1-3
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 0 and 1?
Trust vs Mistrust
Ages 0-1
According to Erik Erikson, what conflict arises between ages 12 and 20?
Identity vs Role Confusion
Ages 12-20
What does each conflict represent in Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development?
Each conflict represents an opportunity to learn a new social or emotional skill, which, according to Erikson, is the mechanism for psychosocial development.
What does Erikson propose happens if a conflict is resolved with the negative outcome? Can this ever be fixed?
In Erikson’s theory, an individual who fails to obtain a positive resolution at one stage can still advance to later stages and, later in life, may even learn the skill that they failed to learn during the developmental conflict.
Does social facilitation predict that performance will improve in any task that is performed in the presence of others?
No. Performance will improve if the task is simple. If the task is complex or new, performance is hindered.
Social facilitation is the tendency that people have to perform simple tasks better or more efficiently when in the presence of other people. Inversely, when performing a complex or new task, the presence of others can hinder one’s performance.
What is state-dependent learning?
State-dependent learning refers to being able to recall information better when in the same state in which it was learned
Which theory of language development posits that children primarily acquire language through operant conditioning?
A. Learning theory
B. Nativist theory
C. Interactionist theory
D. Linguistic theory
A. Learning theory
The learning theory of language development states that language is a learned behavior that develops in response to environmental stimuli and responses. It was developed by B.F. Skinner, who also formulated the theory of behaviorism, and focuses on the ways in which operant conditioning and reinforcement can shape language acquisition.
Describe the learning theory of language development
The learning theory of language development states that language is a learned behavior that develops in response to environmental stimuli and responses. It was developed by B.F. Skinner, who also formulated the theory of behaviorism, and focuses on the ways in which operant conditioning and reinforcement can shape language acquisition.
Describe the interactionist theory of language development
The interactionist theory of language development places a greater emphasis on how children interact with their environment, and posits that language acquisition is caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others.
Describe the nativist theory of language development
The nativist theory of language development posits that language acquisition is innate, or native.
The expectation that women should not participate in the workforce is an example of a(n):
A. formal norm.
B. informal norm.
C. folkway.
D. stereotype.
B. informal norm.
The difference between formal and informal norms is that formal norms are codified into law, whereas informal norms are not. Informal norms can nonetheless reflect serious expectations about behavior, as is the case for the expectation described in this question stem.
What is a key difference between informal norms and stereotypes?
Stereotypes describe oversimplified, generalized, and somewhat widely-held beliefs about a group of people, not general expectations about social conduct.
Norms are expectations about social conduct while stereotypes are beliefs about people or groups
Define:
Cognitive distortion
Cognitive distortion is a general term describing irrational thought patterns.
Describe:
Strain theory
Strain theory focuses on how anomic conditions can lead to deviance. Anomic conditions include excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation; these all erode social solidarity, which is the sense of community and social cohesion.
# Define: Social Solidarity
social solidarity is the sense of community and social cohesion.
# Define: Plutocracy
Plutocracy refers to a society being ruled by the upper classes.
Describe:
Arousal theory
Arousal theory states that people perform actions in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal: seeking to increase arousal when it falls below their optimal level, and to decrease arousal when it rises above their optimum level.
What is the difference between yerkes-dodson law and yerkes-dodson law of social facilitation?
Yerkes-dodson law states optimal performance is at moderate levels of arousal, while Yerkes-dodson law of social facilitation shows that at high arousal, simple tasks are performed best and complex tasks are performed worst.
According to the Yerkes–Dodson law of social facilitation, being in the presence of others will significantly raise arousal, which enhances the ability to perform tasks one is already good at (or simple tasks), and hinders the performance of less familiar tasks (or complex tasks). For example, an expert pianist may perform better in concert than when alone in practice sessions. However, someone with very limited knowledge of music would perform worse in a social setting than when alone.
Paul walks into his office and is surprised with a birthday party from his friends and family. Paul’s initial reaction includes a startled jump and smile. Which of the following components of emotion did Paul experience?
A. Cognitive
B. Physiological
C. Behavioral
D. Affective
C. Behavioral
The behavioral component of emotion refers to the way in which we behave when we feel a certain emotion. Paul reacted to the surprise party through specific behaviors (startled jump and smile), and thus experienced the behavioral component of emotion.
Joseph Hickey and William Thompson, two sociologists, outlined the following breakdown of a particular nation’s socioeconomic structure into five classes.
What term can be used to describe the social structure of this nation?
A. A complete meritocracy with a class system
B. A partial meritocracy with a class system
C. A partial meritocracy with a caste system
D. An oligarchy with a class system
B. A partial meritocracy with a class system
B is correct. Hickey and Thompson conducted their research in the United States, which is organized as a partial meritocracy. A meritocracy is a system of social or governmental organization in which hard work and talent are rewarded with success. The U.S. and Canada are largely meritocratic societies, which explains why you often hear of “rags-to-riches” stories. However, virtually no true meritocracies exist, as those who are born to wealthy or politically powerful clans typically possess an advantage. Additionally, the diagram shows the existence of five distinct classes.
True or False:
Many societies in the world are true meritocracies
False.
Virtually no true meritocracies exist, as those who are born to wealthy or politically powerful clans typically possess an advantage
Describe what occurs in development of the categorical self
The development of self-concept, which occurs when children are very young, is divided into two steps.
The aspects involved are the existential and categorical selves. In the development of the categorical self, a child comes to understand that he or she is subject to the perceptions of other individuals.
Describe what occurs in development of the existential self
The development of self-concept, which occurs when children are very young, is divided into two steps.
During development of the existential self, a child realizes that she can interact with the world throughout time and space; in other words, she discovers that she is a distinct entity.
A young girl is experiencing a crush for the first time. When she tells her friends, she says “I hope he likes me the way I like him.” Which type of self-concept development is this, and why?
A. Existential self; the young girl is realizing that she is a separate entity from others and thus can feel romantic emotion.
B. Existential self; the young girl is realizing that she is an object that other people may also perceive.
C. Categorical self; the young girl is realizing that she is a separate entity from others and thus can feel romantic emotion.
D. Categorical self; the young girl is realizing that she is an object that other people may also perceive.
D. Categorical self; the young girl is realizing that she is an object that other people may also perceive.
The development of self-concept, which occurs when children are very young, is divided into two steps. The aspects involved are the existential and categorical selves.
In the development of the categorical self, a child comes to understand that he or she is subject to the perceptions of other individuals. Here, the young girl is considering how she might be perceived by another entity, the young boy on whom she has a crush. This girl is demonstrating her ability to possess perspective, or to view the world through the eyes of another. All of this information indicates that she is developing her categorical self, and thus understands that she is an “object” that can be experienced by her crush and others.
Which of these choices matches a common diagnostic exam to the sense that it assesses?
I. Balancing on one foot with closed eyes – proprioception
II. Response to light touching of the fingers – somatosensation
III. Touching one’s nose or other body parts with closed eyes – vestibular sense
II only
Somatosensation is a generalized term for any sensation of touch. Monitoring a patient’s response to light touching of his or her fingers is thus a logical test for proper somatosensation in the extremities.
Balance is controlled by the vestibular system, not proprioception. Proprioception is the ability to orient ourselves and locate our own body parts in space.
Touching one’s nose with closed eyes would test proprioception, not the vestibular system (balance).
A test involving touching one’s nose with closed eyes would test _________.
Touching one’s nose with closed eyes would test proprioception.
Proprioception is the ability to orient ourselves and locate our own body parts in space
A test used to test one’s balance would be a test of the persons _________
A test used to test one’s balance would be a test of the persons vestibular sense
A daycare teacher keeps all of her fun toys and colorful blocks in a closet near the back of the room. When playtime is about to start, she turns around abruptly to go open the closet door. After two months, the toddlers in the class look up and become more active whenever the teacher turns around for any reason. During at least part of this scenario:
A. the toys and blocks are neutral stimuli.
B. the sight of the teacher turning around is a conditioned stimulus.
C. the teacher’s action of opening the closet door is a conditioned response.
D. the children becoming especially active when the teacher turns around is an unconditioned response.
B. the sight of the teacher turning around is a conditioned stimulus.
B is correct. Originally, the sight of the teacher turning toward the closet does not evoke any particular response in the toddlers. However, associating it with the unconditioned stimulus of fun (from the toys and blocks) gradually causes the children to respond with increased activity. Thus, the teacher’s turning has become a conditioned stimulus.
Of the pairings shown below, which properly matches the type of formal organization with an example of that type?
A. A normative organization – workers at a warehouse who make minimum wage
B. A coercive organization – employees at a factory
C. A utilitarian organization – students who must stay after school each Friday for detention
D. A normative organization – volunteers who build homes for underprivileged residents
D. A normative organization – volunteers who build homes for underprivileged residents
A normative organization is voluntarily joined and exists to perform some moral activity. Volunteer groups are classic examples of such organizations.
What is a utilitarian organization?
Utilitarian organizations are made up of workers who are compensated for their efforts
What is a normative organization?
A normative organization is voluntarily joined and exists to perform some moral activity. Volunteer groups are classic examples of such organizations.
What are the 3 components of emotion?
We can break down our emotional responses into three components: physiological, cognitive, and behavioral.
According to Erikson, during which stage does an individual experience a “physiological revolution”?
A. Industry vs. inferiority
B. Identity vs. role confusion
C. Intimacy vs. isolation
D. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Identity vs. role confusion
B is correct. The “physiological revolution” occurs during adolescence, which coincides with Erikson’s conflict between identity and role confusion. During this developmental stage, an individual’s body is undergoing the sometimes-uncomfortable changes associated with puberty. At this point, he or she is pressured to answer the question: “Who am I?”
If John experiences frequent stomach pain and is constantly afraid that he is dying of various ailments, but his physician reassures him that he is physically healthy, he might suffer from the condition now officially termed:
A. hypochondriasis.
B. somatic symptom disorder.
C. histrionic personality disorder.
D. catatonic-type schizophrenia.
B. somatic symptom disorder.
Individuals with somatic symptom disorder perceive pain or other symptoms that cannot be explained by known causes. Additionally, these people tend to be very preoccupied with their physical health to the point of obsession.
Somatic symptom disorder is closely related to illness anxiety disorder, in which individuals are anxious about their health but lack clear symptoms.
What is the major difference between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder?
Individuals with somatic symptom disorder perceive pain or other symptoms that cannot be explained by known causes. Additionally, these people tend to be very preoccupied with their physical health to the point of obsession.
Somatic symptom disorder is closely related to illness anxiety disorder, in which individuals are anxious about their health but lack clear symptoms.
What is the major characteristic of histrionic personality disorder?
Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by an extreme desire for attention.
You need to memorize all of the amino acid structures by next week, but no matter how long you spend staring at the textbook, you can’t remember any of them for longer than 45 seconds. Which study method would be LEAST effective?
A. Thinking about the appearance of the structure, sound of the word, and role of the functional groups to maximize the depth at which you process the information
B. Devising a mnemonic in which each one-letter abbreviation relates to the most memorable structural feature on the molecule
C. Separating the amino acids into five smaller groups instead of trying to remember each structure individually
D. Switching from using elaborative rehearsal six times per day to using maintenance rehearsal eight times per day
D. Switching from using elaborative rehearsal six times per day to using maintenance rehearsal eight times per day
D is correct. Maintenance rehearsal involves shallower processing than elaborative rehearsal, making it less effective as an encoding technique. Here, maintenance might consist of constant repetition of the same structural characteristics, while elaboration would involve forming a variety of connections between the amino acids and other information that has already been learned.
Of the following, which rights or obligations are part of Talcott Parsons’ sociological conception of the legitimate sick role?
I. The patient is released from his or her normal roles or duties.
II. The patient is considered responsible for his or her condition.
III. The patient has the duty to cooperate with medical professionals and get well.
I and III
The sick role is a socially constructed role that individuals enter when they become ill. One can acquire the sick role legitimately (by actually being sick) or illegitimately (by faking illness or deliberately / negligently failing to take care of one’s health). As part of Parson’s conception of this role, patients are released from normal duties like work or family care due to the infirmities brought on by the illness, making statement I accurate. However, the patient now has the obligation to do his best to relieve others of these burdens as quickly as possible, by trying to become well and taking the advice of doctors and other medical staff.
A yoga instructor teaches a class of adult students. When about to transition into the most difficult, physically exhausting part of the class, she always looks around at the students and says “You got this!” Unfortunately, the students soon begin to hyperventilate and become very nervous whenever they hear the phrase “You got this!” In this anecdote:
A. the phrase “You got this!” is an aversive primary reinforcer.
B. the physical pain produced by the exercises is an aversive secondary reinforcer.
C. the students’ nervousness and hyperventilation is an unconditioned response.
D. the teacher’s action of looking around and saying “You got this!” is a conditioned stimulus.
D. the teacher’s action of looking around and saying “You got this!” is a conditioned stimulus.
The phrase “You got this!” is initially neutral, or even slightly positively reinforcing. Over time, however, the students begin to associate the phrase with upcoming pain and difficulty, making them respond with nervous behavior. At this point, “You got this!” has become conditioned.
The figure below was shown to a number of participants in a psychology experiment.
Identifying a square in the middle of this array of shapes demonstrates the Gestalt principle of:
A. proximity.
B. similarity.
C. propriety.
D. elegant design.
B. similarity.
The principle of similarity states that people tend to group objects that look similar into a pattern. In this case, though objects are scattered throughout the image, we perceive the hearts as forming a square due to their similar shape.
A child learns to associate the multicolored stars given by her teacher with candy and praise. At first, her heart rate and breathing increase whenever she sees any star-shaped stickers. Later, the teacher begins to use only blue stars, and the child stops responding to star stickers of any other color. This situation best relates to:
A. negative reinforcement.
B. stimulus discrimination.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. shaping.
B. stimulus discrimination.
Stimulus discrimination is the process in which a conditioned stimulus becomes more specific. Here, the child initially responds to all star-shaped stickers, but after a period in which praise and candy are paired only with a specific subset of stickers (blue ones), she starts responding to blue stickers alone.
A group of linguists at a large university conducted a longitudinal study that tracked language development in a group of children. Participants in the study were chosen from various cultures and with a variety of distinct home environments throughout childhood. Linguistic control was determined with a battery of tests assessing fluency, breadth of vocabulary, and grasp of syntactic rules, and rated on a scale of 0 to 10.
How could this study be altered to either support or undermine the nativist theory of language development?
A. Researchers could have examined differences in the developmental timeline between children of different nationalities.
B. Researchers could have assessed the effects of different living situations on development.
C. Researchers could have included a group of children who grew up in homes without adult contact.
D. None of these changes would argue for or against the nativist theory.
C. Researchers could have included a group of children who grew up in homes without adult contact.
The nativist theory posits that language acquisition occurs via an innate biological mechanism. Therefore, if children who grew up completely lacking adult contact had the same level of mastery as children in a control group, the nativist theory would be supported. If, instead, the children who were deprived of adult contact showed deficiencies in linguistic control, this would undermine the nativist theory in favor of the learning theory.
The human sex ratio is defined as:
A. the ratio of males to females in a population, which is approximately 1:1.5
B. the ratio of males to females in a population, which is approximately 1:1
C. the ratio of males to the total human population, which is approximately 1:2.5
D. the ratio of males to the total human population, which is approximately 1:2
B. the ratio of males to females in a population, which is approximately 1:1.
For humans, the sex ratio denotes the number of males to that of females in the total population. This ratio is approximately 1:1, though it can vary based on events like war or selective illness. In general, however, biological sex is determined by the 50/50 chance of obtaining either a second X or a Y chromosome during fertilization.
It has been hypothesized that the higher obesity rates in poor communities are due in part to a lack of fully-stocked grocery stores in these areas, leaving residents to rely on fast food and the cheap, high-calorie processed meals sold at convenience stores. This phenomenon is commonly referred to as:
A. economic segregation.
B. ghettoization.
C. the presence of food deserts.
D. social exclusion.
C. the presence of food deserts.
Food deserts, or impoverished regions that lack access to fresh or healthy food, relate perfectly to the question stem.
# Define: Food desert
Food deserts are impoverished regions that lack access to fresh or healthy food.
________ support is that which provides another individual with a sense of belonging.
Network support is that which provides another individual with a sense of belonging.
A high school counselor decides to create an initiative to provide added network support to troubled students. To establish this form of support, she could:
A. create a series of fliers to remind them of their special skills and talents.
B. found a scholarship fund to help them with money to buy school supplies and clothes.
C. invite them to individual sessions, where she would listen attentively and empathize with their situations.
D. create a group meeting after school and invite the students to participate.
D. create a group meeting after school and invite the students to participate.
Network support is that which provides another individual with a sense of belonging. By establishing a group meeting and inviting the troubled students, she could help them feel less isolated and more connected.
All of the following statements regarding the visual pathway are true EXCEPT:
A. the temporal fibers do not cross paths.
B. the optic fibers closest to the nose do cross paths.
C. at the optic chiasm, visual signals synapse from bipolar cells to ganglion cells.
D. visual information travels through the temporal lobe.
C. at the optic chiasm, visual signals synapse from bipolar cells to ganglion cells.
The optic chiasm is the point at which optic fibers on the nasal side begin to travel to the opposite hemisphere of the brain, causing them to cross paths. It is in the retina where signals are transmitted from bipolar to ganglion cells.
Describe the duplexity or duplicity theory of vision
The duplexity or duplicity theory of vision states that the retina contains two kinds of photoreceptors: those specialized for light-and-dark detection and those specialized for color detection.
List the order of the visual pathway
Retina → optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus (LGN) → optic radiations (in temporal and parietal lobe) → visual cortex of occipital lobe
A college student conducts an experiment on changes to skin temperature during emotional responses. He measures the temperature of the skin on his friend’s forearm over the course of 15 seconds. At some point during this interval, he surprises his friend with a loud shout. The friend is told to push a button at the instant when he feels that he has experienced emotion. Results of this experiment are graphed below.
If the experimenter shouted at the 5-second mark, but the friend didn’t push the button until two seconds later, which theory of emotion does the study validate?
A. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
B. The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
C. The Garret-Luis theory of emotion
D. The Jesse-James theory of emotion
B. The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
According to the Schachter-Singer theory, a physiological response to a stimulus happens first, followed by cognitive appraisal of the situation. This appraisal then results in the experience of a related emotion. In this scenario, both the stimulus and the change to skin temperature occurred at the 5-second mark, but the friend did not push the button until 7 seconds in. This indicates that the physiological sensation happened before the experience of emotion.
A case study describes a patient who has hair cells only in part of his cochlea. Which symptom is most likely to be caused by this deficiency?
A. Unequalized pressure between the ear and the environment
B. The perception of sounds of different frequencies as exactly the same
C. The inability to hear sounds of certain frequencies
D. The inability to hear any sounds at all
C. The inability to hear sounds of certain frequencies
The arrangement of hair cells in different parts of the cochlea allows us to hear sounds of different frequencies. This is why cochlear implants cause patients to hear sounds of higher frequencies, as the part of the cochlea in which they are implanted is receptive to these pitches.
The diagram below depicts the human eye.
A middle-aged woman who must wear protective sunglasses in bright light most likely has a problem with which labeled structure?
A. Structure 1, the cornea
B. Structure 3, the sclera
C. Structure 2, the choroid
D. Structure 4, the retina
C. Structure 2, the choroid
The choroid is a layered region of the eye that contains connective tissue and blood vessels; it is located beneath the retina but above the sclera. Since the choroid is responsible for absorbing excess light, it is likely that this patient has an issue with the choroids of her eyes.
Which of the following accurately depict(s) the order in which a fragment of information might progress through various types of memory during storage?
I. Echoic memory ! short-term memory ! long-term memory
II. Iconic memory ! short-term memory
III. Sensory memory ! iconic memory ! short-term memory ! long-term memory
IV. Working memory ! sensory memory ! short-term memory
A. I Only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II, III, and IV
B. I and II
In general, pieces of information will proceed from sensory to short-term to long-term memory, though most do not make it through this entire sequence. Both echoic (auditory) and iconic (visual) memory are subsets of sensory memory, making I correct.
Though II does not include long-term memory, it accurately describes the progression of the information that enters short-term memory but never proceeds further.
note: iconic and echoic memory are types of sensory memory, not a subsequent step in the process.
Jade, a law student, successfully remembers all of the civil tax codes required for her morning exam. She then jumps on her motorcycle and rides home, where she relaxes by playing a video game in which she wins small tokens. Which choice correctly pairs each action with the type of memory or process involved?
A. Remembering tax codes – semantic; riding her motorcycle – explicit; playing the video game – procedural
B. Remembering tax codes – declarative; riding her motorcycle – procedural; playing the video game – operant conditioning
C. Remembering tax codes – episodic; riding her motorcycle – procedural; playing the video game – explicit
D. Remembering tax codes – semantic; riding her motorcycle – working; playing the video game – classical conditioning
B. Remembering tax codes – declarative; riding her motorcycle – procedural; playing the video game – operant conditioning
Facts and concepts are stored in semantic memory, which is a type of declarative or explicit memory. Completing an action that has become second nature, like riding a motorcycle, requires procedural memory. Finally, playing a video game in which certain actions are rewarded is not directly related to memory at all, but certainly involves operant conditioning.
Recoding, chunking, and rehearsal are especially important for the improvement of:
A. short-term memory efficiency.
B. eidetic imagery.
C. sensory memory.
D. long-term memory traces.
A. short-term memory efficiency.
These processes all involve combining smaller bits of information into larger and more meaningful units (chunking), practicing a behavior until it is held in memory (rehearsal), or rewriting the brain with new information; all of these strategies serve to increase the amount of information held in short term memory.
Describe inductive reasoning
Inductive (bottom-up) reasoning seeks to create a theory via generalizations. This type of reasoning starts with specific instances, and then draws a conclusion from them.
Describe deductive reasoning
Deductive (top-down) reasoning starts from a set of general rules and draws conclusions from the information given.
A guest speaker in Davy’s social studies class uses the word “basically” multiple times in every sentence. At first, Davy doesn’t notice it, but after about ten minutes, each new utterance of the word “basically” makes him grind his teeth and feel frustrated. How can this phenomenon best be categorized?
A. It is a type of learning, but it is not associative.
B. It is a type of learning, but it is not nonassociative.
C. It is a type of observational learning.
D. It is not a type of learning at all.
A. It is a type of learning, but it is not associative.
The process occurring here is sensitization, or an increase in response after repeated exposures to the same stimulus. Both sensitization and its opposite process, habituation, are types of nonassociative learning.
Which of these pairings do(es) NOT correctly match a disorder with its typical symptoms?
I. Bipolar I disorder – manic episodes that cycle with periods of major depression
II. Panic disorder – sudden episodes of disabling anxiety that can cause shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and sweating
III. Acute stress disorder – generalized anxiety or distress in response to daily life activities
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
B. III only
Acute stress disorder can be conceptualized as a mild form of PTSD. As such, it typically stems from a specific mentally traumatic or fear-inducing event. This condition is characterized by flashbacks or emotional numbness with an onset within four weeks of the event in question. The description given in option III is a better fit for generalized anxiety disorder.
Describe dissociative fugue
Dissociative fugue is an often-temporary loss of identity and personal memories. It often ends in the victim wandering to unfamiliar locations.
An elderly man has no trouble remembering how to play bridge and drive his car, but cannot remember his new nurse’s name, no matter how many times she tells him. This man likely suffers from:
A. anterograde amnesia.
B. dissociative fugue.
C. a defect in his procedural memory.
D. retrograde amnesia.
A. anterograde amnesia.
A is correct. Anterograde amnesia is a defect in the ability to form new memories, often as a result of hippocampal damage. Since this man cannot encode and store the new information regarding his nurse’s name, he certainly could suffer from this condition. The other answers do not make sense given the information in the question.
Recent studies have discovered significant changes to bacterial flora in the gut that correlate with severe obesity. These changes affect the processing of nutrients in the intestines and may partially prevent obese individuals from losing weight. This discovery, if widely accepted, might have what implications on society’s view of obesity?
A. Obesity might become increasingly deindividuated.
B. People might give fewer external attributions to the cause of their obesity.
C. Obesity might become increasingly medicalized.
D. Obesity would become entirely destigmatized.
C. Obesity might become increasingly medicalized.
Medicalization is the process by which a condition is viewed as a disease (and thus deserving of help from the medical profession), rather than as something else, such as a habit, personality trait, character flaw, or lifestyle choice. Here, if obesity begins to be perceived as biological rather than a simple result of overeating, it would likely result in medicalization.
When conducting research on medicalization, what is the next step in the scientific method after a review of the literature?
A. Collecting data
B. Choosing a research design
C. Selecting a researchable problem
D. Formulating a hypothesis
D. Formulating a hypothesis
The steps of the scientific method are:
Ask a question → do background research → construct a hypothesis → test the hypothesis via experimentation →analyze the data/draw conclusions →communicate results.
Ideally, an experimental protocol should be designed to:
A. remove confounding variables.
B. remove moderating variables.
C. remove both confounding and mediating variables.
D. remove confounding, mediating, and moderating variables.
A. remove confounding variables.
A is correct. Confounding variables are factors that stem from the failure to properly control an experiment. For example, imagine that researchers are examining the effect of thing A on thing B. If they completely neglect to consider thing C, which also has an effect on thing B, it may lead them to an incorrect conclusion regarding thing A. Therefore, a protocol should always strive to remove or lessen the effect of these variables.
An ideal experiment would not seek to eliminate mediating or moderating variable
Which of these chemical imbalances can lead to or promote depression?
I. Low levels of serotonin
II. Low levels of glucocorticoids
III. Low levels of norepinephrine
IV. High levels of dopamine
A. I only
B. I and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, III, and IV
B. I and III
Low levels of either serotonin or norepinephrine can lead to major depressive disorder.
Name 4 major markers of depression
- Abnormally high glucose metabolism in the amygdala
- Hippocampal atrophy after a long duration of illness
- Abnormally high levels of glucocorticoids (cortisol)
- Decreased norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine (monoamine theory of depression)
Recalling that lysine is a basic amino acid involves which division(s) of long-term memory?
I. Semantic memory
II. Declarative memory
III. Episodic memory
IV. Explicit memory
I, II, and IV
The storage of facts or general knowledge is accomplished by semantic memory, a type of explicit memory. Declarative memory is simply a synonym for explicit memory, making that choice correct as well.
While AIDS was first recognized as a disease in the early 1980s, it was not until several years later that efforts were made to raise public awareness of the disease and advocate resources towards finding a cure. AIDS (at first) primarily affected groups, namely heroin users and gay men, who were not seen as deserving of help due to their lifestyles. Which term most closely relates to this situation?
A. Social class
B. Prejudice
C. Social stigma
D. Groupthink
C.
Social stigma
Certain lifestyles are frequently viewed with disapproval across wide sectors of society, in a phenomenon known as social stigma. AIDS acquired some of this stigma through association with its sufferers and was seen as “the gay disease” or “the junkie’s disease” for quite some time. Because these groups were, in some ways, seen as having brought the disease on themselves through their stigmatized behavior, it was a slow process to mobilize the wider health community to improve prevention awareness and develop countermeasures.
Which of the following conditions could result in an inability to plan coherent sentences or understand syntax, without affecting an individual’s ability to physically produce words?
I. Wernicke’s aphasia
II. Broca’s aphasia
III. Temporal lobe damage
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
C. I and III only
The ability to form logical sentences and understand syntax is controlled by Wernicke’s area (I). When a patient suffers from aphasia of this region, he is still able to utter “fluent-sounding” sentences, but they lack meaning and are often nonsensical strings of words. Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe (III).
The demographic transition model, below, was proposed by Warren Thompson. It delineates the typical population changes that mark a transition from a pre-industrial to an industrial economic system.
Name the phases shown in this figure, from stage 1 to stage 4.
A. Pre-industrial; urbanization; mature industrial; post-industrial
B. Urbanization; pre-industrial; mature industrial; post-industrial
C. Pre-industrial; mature industrial; urbanization; post-industrial
D. Pre-industrial; mature industrial; post-industrial; urbanization
A. Pre-industrial; urbanization; mature industrial; post-industrial
In stage 1, which marks pre-industrial society, both birth and death rates are high and the population exists in an equilibrium. In stage 2, urbanization, the developing country improves its food supply and sanitation (thus decreasing its mortality rate) while the birth rate remains unaltered. In stage 3, the mature industrial age, birth rates decrease due to contraceptives, women’s rights, and an increase in wages. Finally, stage 4 is the post-industrial phase. Here, both low birth rates and low death rates are present, and the population is at equilibrium again.
Anthropologists are studying a newly-discovered culture that was centered on a chain of islands in the South Pacific over a thousand years ago. It appears that, instead of bartering with various items, members of this island society traded types of rare stones in exchange for goods. What does this monetary agreement exemplify?
A. Symbolic interactionism
B. Exchange-rational choice
C. Social constructionism
D. Functionalism
C. Social constructionism
Social constructionism accounts for our assignment of meaning to certain constructs, including money, obedience, and trustworthiness. Here, the ancient culture chose to assign meaning to the rare stones as a form of currency.
Which of the examples below best demonstrates the concept of Fisherian selection?
A. Male wolf spiders have evolved to exploit a non-mating preference by looking like prey to female spiders in order to mate more often.
B. Male peacocks have developed ornamentation that is both elaborate and a physical hindrance, due to females’ mating preferences.
C. Bee colonies that “dance” in order to communicate the location of food have gained an evolutionary advantage.
D. A hummingbird who feeds on flowers provides a benefit to the plant species through pollination.
B. Male peacocks have developed ornamentation that is both elaborate and a physical hindrance, due to females’ mating preferences.
Fisherian selection suggests that, if a strong enough mating preference for elaborate ornamentation exists, this preference could undermine natural selection even if the feature is otherwise non-adaptive. Fisher hypothesized that, since males of a certain appearance propagate with females who strongly prefer such features, this cycle can continue over many generations. In other words, males progressively become more extreme in appearance, while females continue to desire this type of display. Peacocks are a classic example of this phenomenon.
Researchers building a prosthetic hearing system want to create an auditory pathway as similar as possible to that of humans. The most appropriate order for this pathway would be:
A. organ of Corti, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex.
B. superior olive, organ of Corti, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex.
C. organ of Corti, medial geniculate nucleus, superior olive, auditory cortex.
D. organ of Corti, auditory cortex, medial geniculate nucleus.
A. organ of Corti, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex.
The organ of Corti is housed within the ear, while the other listed terms are part of the brain. For this reason, the organ of Corti must be listed first. Fibers then travel to the inferior colliculus, then to the medial geniculate nucleus (a region of the thalamus). From here, they move to the auditory cortex for final processing.
Organ of corti → inferior colliculus → medial geniculate nucleus (of the thalamus) → auditory cortex of temporal lobe
List the auditory pathway
Organ of corti → inferior colliculus → medial geniculate nucleus (of the thalamus) → auditory cortex of temporal lobe
When trying to retrieve the name “Abraham Lincoln” from memory, we might first think of “government,” then “president,” then “George Washington,” etc. Within the concept of spreading activation, the word “government” in this example is a:
A. node.
B. network.
C. recency effect.
D. primacy effect.
A. node
Long-term memories are thought to be organized within interconnected webs called semantic networks. In these networks, each distinct concept or term exists as a node. When information needs to be retrieved, certain nodes are activated first, and this “memory cascade” spreads to adjacent nodes in a process known as spreading activation.
Which of the following demonstrates an ambivalent attachment style?
A. Neither a father nor his child cares significantly about the other.
B. A caregiver shows little or no response to her child in distress.
C. A mother displays unpredictable and inconsistent responses to her child, sometimes with appropriate attention, sometimes neglectfully.
D. A guardian gives a moderate amount of attention to his child, allowing her to feel safe to explore and grow.
C. A mother displays unpredictable and inconsistent responses to her child, sometimes with appropriate attention, sometimes neglectfully.
With regard to athletic performance, social facilitation is exemplified by:
A. virtually all soccer players performing best when extremely excited.
B. swimmers performing very poorly when moderately alert.
C. experienced NFL players performing worse than usual in a public environment.
D. amateur golfers who are new at the sport making many extra mistakes in front of a large group of their friends.
D. amateur golfers who are new at the sport making many extra mistakes in front of a large group of their friends.
The concept of social facilitation deals with the performance of tasks in front of other individuals. According to this idea, simple or familiar actions can often be executed better in a social environment, but advanced or unfamiliar tasks are performed better in private. Thus, golfers who are not yet familiar with the game’s intricacies would likely perform more poorly in public than when alone.
An 8-year-old child has recently developed the ability to understand the perspectives of her family members. According to Piaget, which stage has she entered?
A. Concrete operational
B. Formal operational
C. Preoperational
D. Sensorimotor
A. Concrete operational
Of Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development, the concrete operational stage is the one characterized by the ability to understand the perspectives of others. Children from ages 7-11 tend to fall into this stage.
Which of the following are components of an individual’s self-image?
I. Physical description
II. Social roles
III. Existential self
IV. Permanent self
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
Self-image is composed of a mosaic of descriptions, roles, and traits, all of which can be adapted to answer the question “Who am I?” This overarching concept includes physical descriptions (“I am tall”), social roles (“I am a father”), the existential self (an abstract, spiritual, or religious characteristic such as “I am a child of God”), and many more (I, II, and III).
All of the following choices accurately describe a conditioned stimulus EXCEPT:
A. as an event or object that was previously neutral to the subject.
B. as a stimulus that eventually elicits the same response as the unconditioned stimulus.
C. as something that produces a response that may eventually undergo extinction.
D. as a stimulus that causes an innate reaction in the subject.
D. as a stimulus that causes an innate reaction in the subject.
It is unconditioned, not conditioned, stimuli that naturally evoke reactions in the subjects involved.
Affirmative action is best exemplified by:
A. a group that assembles outside a courthouse to protest against restrictions to abortion rights.
B. a woman who obtains an advanced degree and, through years of hard work, becomes a CEO in an industry that is typically run by men.
C. a young man who, after losing his job, chooses to focus on the positive results of his situation rather than the negatives.
D. a top medical school that creates several scholarships for individuals of underrepresented ethnic minority groups.
D. a top medical school that creates several scholarships for individuals of underrepresented ethnic minority groups.
Affirmative action refers to policy, laws, or (in this case) scholarships that are intended to favor disadvantaged groups. Specifically, these policies benefit groups that have suffered from discrimination in the past, with the intention of establishing overall fairness.
# Define: Affirmative action
Affirmative action refers to policy, laws, or (in this case) scholarships that are intended to favor disadvantaged groups.
What is Robert Sternberg known for?
Robert Sternberg pioneered a cognitive perspective that focused on how people use their intelligence, rather than taking the traditional approach of trying to measure an individual’s level of intelligence.
More specifically, Sternberg’s triarchic theory of human intelligence defines three subtypes:
analytical intelligence, which involves the ability to evaluate and reason; creative intelligence, which is the ability to solve problems using novel methods; and practical intelligence, which involves dealing with everyday problems at home or at work.
The psychologist who proposed the existence of multiple intelligences, including bodily-kinesthetic and interpersonal intelligence, is:
A. Robert Sternberg.
B. Sigmund Freud.
C. Charles Spearman.
D. Howard Gardner.
D. Howard Gardner.
Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, when proposed in 1983, delineated eight distinct forms of intelligence. These include bodily-kinesthetic, visual-spatial, inter- and intrapersonal, naturalistic, logical-mathematical, musical-rhythmic, and verbal-linguistic intelligence.
# Define: Latent learning
Latent learning occurs when one learns something, but only demonstrates that learning much later when a need (or reward) arises
