FL 8 - Psych/Soc Flashcards

1
Q

Some researchers believe that VT is a learned response to witnessed trauma. From that perspective, which of the following is NOT a stage of observational learning?

A. Attention to witnessed trauma

B. Memory of witnessed trauma

C. Ability to respond similarly to witnessed trauma

D. Emotional response to witnessed trauma

A

D. Emotional response to witnessed trauma

Observational learning has 4 stages – attention to the behavior, memory of the behavior, ability or capability to behave similarly and motivation or drive to behave similarly. A person may have an emotional response or feel strongly about a behavior acquired through observational learning, but emotional response is not a stage.

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2
Q

What are the 4 stages of observational learning?

A

Observational learning has 4 stages –

  1. Attention to the behavior
  2. Memory of the behavior
  3. Ability or capability to behave similarly
  4. Motivation or drive to behave similarly
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3
Q

What stage of observational learning does an emotional response fall under?

A

It does not fall under any stage

Observational learning has 4 stages – attention to the behavior, memory of the behavior, ability or capability to behave similarly and motivation or drive to behave similarly.

A person may have an emotional response or feel strongly about a behavior acquired through observational learning, but emotional response is not a stage.

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4
Q

Both of the questionnaires in a study used a Likert scale. Which of the following biases are associated with Likert scales?

I. Social desirability bias

II. Acquiescence bias

III. Central tendency bias

A

I, II, and III

Likert scales require participants to rate their agreement with statements about attitudes, feelings, and beliefs. They are the most common type of scales used in research, but they do have weaknesses!

Participants may avoid extreme responses and gravitate toward the mean, which is known as the central tendency bias.

If they know what the researcher is interested in or the aim of the study, they may select certain responses to please the researcher, which is known as acquiescence bias.

They also may want to portray themselves as being more empathetic or less negative or emotional, which could be a more socially acceptable but less honest way to respond; this is known as the social desirability bias.

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5
Q

How can a researcher measure a study’s criterion validity?

A

To measure criterion validity, researchers typically compare their test to another test that is used most often in the field.

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6
Q

describe a developmental model

A

A developmental model shows how experiences at an early age can impact a person throughout his life.

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7
Q

Describe the stress-diathesis model

A

The stress-diathesis model explains that underlying stress, when exacerbated by current stressors, can lead to disturbed functioning.

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8
Q

The __________ model, also known as the vulnerability–stress model, is a psychological theory that attempts to explain a disorder, or its trajectory, as the result of an interaction between a predispositional vulnerability, the diathesis, and a stress caused by life experiences.

A

The diathesis–stress model, also known as the vulnerability–stress model, is a psychological theory that attempts to explain a disorder, or its trajectory, as the result of an interaction between a predispositional vulnerability, the diathesis, and a stress caused by life experiences.

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9
Q

What are the 4 styles of parenting identified in psychology?

A

Modern psychology has identified authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and neglectful styles of parenting.

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10
Q

Describe the authoritarian style of parenting

A

Authoritarian parenting is associated with parents being demanding but not responsive, establishing strict rules with little rationale.

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11
Q

Harsh parenting with little explanation of expectations given to a child would be classified as what kind of parenting style?

A

authoritarian parenting

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12
Q

Describe the authoritative style of parenting

A

Authoritative parenting is associated with being both demanding and responsive; such parents impose boundaries and expectations, but provide explanations and respond to their children’s needs.

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13
Q

What is a major difference between authoritarian and authoritative styles of parenting?

A

Authoritative parenting is associated with being both demanding and responsive; explanations and expectations are provided.

Authoritarian parenting is demanding but unresponsive, with no explanations or expectations provided.

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14
Q

What parenting style has been associated with the most optical outcomes?

A

Current research has identified that authoritative parenting (both demanding and responsive) is associated with the best outcomes.

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15
Q

Describe the permissive style of parenting

A

Permissive parenting is responsive but not demanding; such parents may be very loving, but fail to provide structure.

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16
Q

What is a major difference between authoritative and permissive styles of parenting?

A

Authoritative is responsive and demanding

Permissive parenting is responsive but not demanding; such parents may be very loving, but fail to provide structure.

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17
Q

Describe the neglectful style of parenting

A

Neglectful parenting is neither demanding nor responsive; parents with this style do not engage with the care of their children.

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18
Q

What is a major similarity between neglectful parenting and permissive parenting?

A

Neither are demanding

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19
Q

What is a major similarity between neglectful parenting and authoritative parenting?

A

There is no similarity

These styles have neither aspect in common.

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20
Q

What is a major similarity between neglectful parenting and authoritarian parenting?

A

Neither are responsive

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21
Q

A sociologist investigating the efficacy of a newly implemented breast cancer screening tool and how it has impacted healthcare delivery for all women in the country would best achieve this goal by conducting a:

A. repertory grid test.

B. Weber test.

C. Cochrane review.

D. power analysis.

A

C. Cochrane review.

Cochrane reviews are systematic reviews of primary research in human health care and health policy and are currently the highest standard in evidence-based health care.

They investigate the effects of interventions for prevention, treatment and rehabilitation.

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22
Q

A __________ has a patient report a sound that ideally should be heard equally on both sides. In an affected patient, if the defective ear hears the Weber tuning fork louder, the finding indicates a conductive hearing loss in the defective ear. This is very similar to a diagnostic application of Weber’s law.

A

A Weber test has a patient report a sound that ideally should be heard equally on both sides. In an affected patient, if the defective ear hears the Weber tuning fork louder, the finding indicates a conductive hearing loss in the defective ear. This is very similar to a diagnostic application of Weber’s law.

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23
Q

The ____________ is a test designed to reveal the respondent’s way of construing the world according to the personal construct theory. This test if often used to determine an idiographic (the effort to understand the meaning of contingent, unique, and often subjective phenomena) measure of personality.

A

The repertory grid is a test designed to reveal the respondent’s way of construing the world according to the personal construct theory. This test if often used to determine an idiographic (the effort to understand the meaning of contingent, unique, and often subjective phenomena) measure of personality.

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24
Q

Describe a power analysis

A

A power analysis is a statistical calculation performed before a study to determine the minimum sample size needed for the study to have enough power.

In other words, it determines the minimum number of participants you need to have in your study.

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25
Q

What test determines the minimum number of participants that should be included in a study?

A

A power analysis is a statistical calculation performed before a study to determine the minimum sample size needed for the study to have enough power. In other words, it determines the minimum number of participants you need to have in your study.

26
Q

What glands/organs release hormones in response to stress?

A

The second response to stress is cognitive, initiating when the hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which in turn stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands (both the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla).

27
Q

By the end of the semester, many first-year medical students feel drained. They no longer have the resources or the energy to manage their exam-related stress. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome are they probably experiencing?

A. Resistance stage

B. Burnout stage

C. Exhaustion stage

D. Alarm stage

A

C. Exhaustion stage

There are three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome – alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

The alarm stage (choice D) represents the initial reaction to the stressor, when the body interprets a threatening situation and begins to respond. This may take place at the beginning of the semester, when the students take their first exam.

During the resistance stage (choice A), the body has responded to the stressor but is still on guard if the stressor has only been reduced. Students experience the resistance stage as the semester goes on and they continue to experience exam stress.

According to this model, their ability to manage the stress decreases as time goes on. Finally, during the exhaustion stage, the stress has been present for a long time and the body has lost its ability to combat stressors and reduce their impact. By the end of a semester, students have had exam-related stress for months; they no longer feel able to manage their stress. This is considered exhaustion.

28
Q

Describe the burnout stage of the general adaptation syndrome

A

Burnout is not an official stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome. It can be a consequence of the exhaustion stage, which is considered the “gateway” to burnout.

29
Q

Does failing to recognize workplace abuse or considering it to be unimportant better reflect antisocial personality disorder or narcissism?

A

antisocial personality disorder.

Findings have shown a much higher incidence of antisocial personality disorder among those at or near the top of corporate hierarchies. Those with the disorder tend to display a disregard for the feelings or rights of others, an impoverished moral sense, and aggressive behavior. Those with such behavior would be very likely to fail to recognize the existence of workplace abuse, or to be dismissive of its importance.

Narcissism is more closely associated with a pathologically grandiose view of oneself.

30
Q

What imaging technique analyzes the differences in oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin concentration in parts of the brain.

A

Functional MRI, or fMRI, trades spatial resolution for temporal resolution and allows scientists to map active parts of the brain. It does so by analyzing the differences in oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin concentration in parts of the brain.

31
Q

Describe CT scans

A

CT scans use X-rays, but unlike a typical single two-dimensional X-ray film, CT machines use computer processing to take many X-ray measurements from multiple different angles, generating images that can be used for diagnosis. CT scans can provide high-resolution images, but unlike fMRI, CT is not useful for imaging processes in progress.

32
Q

What imaging technique is often used to detect cancer at any location in the body?

A

PET scans are frequently used for imaging designed to detect cancer in any part of the body, due to the increased glucose flux through tumor cells.

PET scans work by injecting the patient with a radioactive analogue of glucose, and then measuring the radioactive emissions from the body. Much like MRI and fMRI, PET scans work on the principle that more active areas of the brain will show increased metabolism, and thus increase their uptake of glucose. Such uptake can then be converted into a false-color “heat map” of the brain to show areas of increased or decreased activity.

33
Q

A bipolar patient’s wife has a brother whose son also suffers from bipolar disorder. The relationship of the two bipolar patients is best characterized as:

A. primary kin.

B. secondary kin.

C. tertiary kin.

D. not having a kinship relationship.

A

C. tertiary kin.

Sociological theory states that primary kin are immediate family – husband-wife, father-daughter, sister-brother, etc. Secondary kin are the immediate kin of someone with whom you have a primary kin relationship (e.g., husband and mother-in-law). Finally, tertiary kin are the secondary kin of someone with whom you have a primary kin relationship (e.g., the son of your wife’s brother). This is what the question is asking, and therefore C is the appropriate answer.

34
Q

In the sociological theory of norms and deviance, describe primary deviance

A

primary deviance is deviance from a norm that is considered “acceptable” by society and does not result in any aggressive reactions that could cause ostracism.

35
Q

In the sociological theory of norms and deviance, describe secondary deviance

A

Secondary deviance from a norm is not considered “acceptable” in society and often results in the individual being excluded from a group.

36
Q

At a formal dinner party, a guest requests a vegetarian meal in lieu of the steak dinner served. Upon being served steak, a different guest with bipolar I disorder proceeds to flip his chair over and walk out of the room. How would a sociologist most likely describe these two behaviors?

A. The vegetarian guest exhibits primary deviance, while the bipolar guest exhibits secondary deviance.

B. The vegetarian guest exhibits secondary deviance, while the bipolar guest exhibits primary deviance.

C. Both the vegetarian guest and the bipolar guest exhibit primary deviance.

D. Neither of the guests exhibits norm deviance.

A

A. The vegetarian guest exhibits primary deviance, while the bipolar guest exhibits secondary deviance.

This question requires you to be familiar with the sociological theory of norms and deviance. Primary deviance is deviance from a norm that is considered “acceptable” by society and does not result in any aggressive reactions that could cause ostracism. Secondary deviance from a norm, however, is not considered acceptable and often results in the individual being excluded from a group.

Vegetarianism is a diet that is generally considered acceptable among most societies; however, aggressive behavior of flipping a chair over and storming out of a room is likely not acceptable at a fancy dinner. Therefore, the vegetarian’s behavior represents a primary deviance from the norm, while the bipolar patient has committed a secondary deviance.

37
Q

Which of the following symptoms would make it more difficult for a physician to differentiate between bipolar disorder and schizophrenia in a new patient?

I. Delusions

II. Anhedonia

III. Disorganized speech

A

I and II only

Delusions are a symptom of both disorders (I). Schizophrenic patients may present with delusions at any time, while delusions are associated with manic and depressive episodes in bipolar patients. Anhedonia (loss of pleasure) is one of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It is also characteristic of depressive episodes of bipolar disorder (II).

38
Q

What psychological disorder related to dopamine is characterized by disorganized speech?

A

Disorganized speech is characteristic of schizophrenia. Schizophrenics who display the positive symptom of disorganized speech will utter incoherent sentences or nonsense strings of words (“word salad”) in reflection of their disorganized thought processes.

39
Q

A patient with a severed corpus callosum is shown a picture in her left field of vision. She is unable to see it, but her left hand is able to draw it when prompted. Which of the following best explains this?

A. The left field of vision and left hand are connected to the left brain, which deals more in analytical behaviors.

B. The left field of vision and left hand are connected to the right brain, which deals more in analytical behaviors.

C. The left field of vision and left hand are connected to the left brain, which deals more in artistic behaviors.

D. The left field of vision and left hand are connected to the right brain which deals more in artistic behaviors.

A

D. The left field of vision and left hand are connected to the right brain which deals more in artistic behaviors.

This question relies on knowledge not relayed in the passage. You should know that most of the left side of the body and the left field of vision is under the control of the right brain hemisphere and vice versa. This means that even though the patient couldn’t see the image in question, the right brain was able to control the left hand to draw the image, without the conscious left brain knowing it.

Also, you should know that the right brain is typically associated with creative or artistic aspects of consciousness, while the left brain is often described in relation to logic or analytical thinking, as shown below. Thus choice D is correct.

40
Q

What is Harry Harlow known for?

A

Harry Harlow examined parent/child attachment, social isolation, and dependency in rhesus monkeys.

41
Q

What is the significance of Sharif’s Robber’s Cave experiment?

A

Muzafer Sharif’s Robber’s Cave experiment examined the intergroup conflicts that arise in response to competition over limited resources.

In Sherif’s Robber’s Cave Experiment, children were grouped into different camps and, through manipulation, were encouraged to have negative attitudes towards each other. However, after given a task in which they had to collaborate, they began to view each other more favorably.

42
Q

In social cognitive theory, individuals learn behavior through __________.

A

In social cognitive theory, individuals learn behavior through observing others.

43
Q

What happens when two cultures are exposed to each other (i.e. forced to live among each other)

A

Social research has shown that cultures being merely exposed to each other does not lead to more agreeableness. In fact, it tends to lead to more negative views of each other.

44
Q

Social research has shown that cultures being merely exposed to each other does not lead to more agreeableness. In fact, it tends to lead to more negative views of each other.

How can this be countered?

A

Being given a task in which they have to collaborate, they may begin to view each other more favorably.

In Sherif’s Robber’s Cave Experiment, children were grouped into different camps and, through manipulation, were encouraged to have negative attitudes towards each other. However, after given a task in which they had to collaborate, they began to view each other more favorably.

45
Q

Describe false consciousness

A

False consciousness is a belief by individuals that doesn’t reflect the reality of the system.

Believing in mobility when there is actually little mobility is an example.

46
Q

A mother complains to her pediatrician that her daughter obsessively cleans her room, often doing laundry after every outfit so that the hamper is always empty. Freud would argue that the daughter has become fixated with which stage of psychosexual development?

A. Anal stage

B. Genital stage

C. Phallic stage

D. Latency stage

A

A. Anal stage

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

If a child becomes fixated in the anal phase, then he or she is considered anal retentive and is obsessively organized and excessively neat. This is the best fit for the given situation.

47
Q

What age range and characteristics fall under freud’s genital stage of psychosexual development?

A

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

The genital stage is the final stage. If prior development had proceeded correctly, the person should enter into healthy heterosexual relationships. However, if sexual traumas of childhood have not been resolved, behaviors such as homosexuality, asexuality, and fetishism may result.

48
Q

What age range and characteristics fall under freud’s latency stage of psychosexual development?

A

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

Once the child has “sublimated” (de-eroticizes), they enter the latency stage, in which libido is largely diminished. This lasts until puberty is reached.

An individual fixated with this stage may repress or be unfulfilled with sexual experiences.

49
Q

What age range and characteristics fall under freud’s phallic stage of psychosexual development?

A

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

The phallic stage, sometimes known as the oedipal stage, centers on resolution of the Oedipal conflict for male children or the analogous Electra conflict for female children.

The male child envies his father’s intimate relationship with his mother and fears castration at his father’s hands. He wish to eliminate his father and possess his mother, but the child feels guilty about this. To resolve this conflict, the child must identify with his father, establish his sexual identity, and internalize his moral values. The child largely sublimates his libidinal energy. This can be expressed by collecting object or focusing on schoolwork.

Since women cannot fear castration, they experience “penis envy”. Because of this, they are expected to exhibit less stereotypically female behavior and to be less morally developed.

50
Q

What age range and characteristics fall under freud’s anal stage of psychosexual development?

A

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

In the anal stage, the libido is centered on the anus and gratification is gained through the elimination and retention of waste materials. Toilet training occurs during this stage. Fixation during this stage would lead to either excessive orderliness (anal-retentiveness) or sloppinnes in adulthood.

51
Q

What age range and characteristics fall under freud’s oral stage of psychosexual development?

A

Freudian psychosexual development has five stages: oral (birth-1 year), anal (1-3 years), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-puberty), and genital (puberty-death).

During this stage, gratification is obtained primarily through putting objects into the mouth, biting, and sucking. Libidinal energy is centered on the mouth. An orally fixated adult would be expected to exhibit excessive dependency.

52
Q

A psychologist may argue that a psychic claiming to be hearing voices could be suffering from auditory hallucinations caused by malfunctioning of which region of the brain?

A. Frontotemporal structures

B. Occipital structures

C. Parietal structures

D. Brain stem structures

A

A. Frontotemporal structures

The processing of auditory information is conducted in the brain structures within the frontal and temporal lobes (primarily the latter). Therefore, malfunctioning of this portion of the brain could cause auditory hallucinations.

53
Q

__________ occurs when immigrants are not involved in many processes in main-stream society.

A

Marginalization occurs when immigrants are not involved in many processes in main-stream society.

54
Q

Some psychologists believe that people may have biological predispositions for mental illness that can be triggered if they live in high-poverty areas. It is thought these people are more likely to react to that vulnerability and develop depression. What model of depression best fits this belief?

A. Learned helplessness model

B. Cognitive behavioral model

C. Diathesis-stress model

D. Sociocultural model

A

C. Diathesis-stress model

The diathesis-stress model postulates that some people are born with genetic or biological traits that predispose them to depression. When they are in certain environments, these traits are activated and depression emerges.

55
Q

Define the cognitive behavioral model of depression

A

The cognitive behavioral model of depression suggests that a person’s thoughts and behaviors can cause depression.

56
Q

Describe the sociocultural model of depression

A

Sociocultural models of depression focus on the individual’s social influences and culture

57
Q

Describe Seligman’s learned optimism theory?

A

According to SLOT, optimistic individuals tend to interpret negative events as external, temporary, and non-global (will not affect all aspects of life).

58
Q

According to labeling theory, what is tertiary deviance?

A

Tertiary deviance is a consequence of secondary deviance; when a person is labeled as a deviant by society for a long time, he tries to normalize or rationalize his behavior by relabeling it non-deviant. It becomes his master status, or a normal and central part of who he is as a person

59
Q

According to labeling theory, what is secondary deviance?

A

Secondary deviance occurs when a person’s self-concept and behavior begins to change after his actions are labeled as deviant. For example, if the customer were violent and aggressive every time he went shopping, he would develop a reputation as a “bad customer,” which may make him even more violent and aggressive

60
Q

According to labeling theory, what is primary deviance?

A

According to labeling theory, a person engages in primary deviance when they violate norms, but this violation does not result in any long-term effects on the individual’s self-image or interactions with others. He still feels like he belongs in society and conforms to norms during all other experiences

61
Q

If a person is only violent and aggressive when shopping on one day of the year, and his actions do not produce any long-term effects on his self-image or interactions with others, this is an example of:

I. primary deviance.

II. secondary deviance.

III. tertiary deviance.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

A

A. I only

According to labeling theory, a person engages in primary deviance when they violate norms, but this violation does not result in any long-term effects on the individual’s self-image or interactions with others. He still feels like he belongs in society and conforms to norms during all other experiences