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Surgery > Fiser ABSITE Ch. 11 Oncology > Flashcards

Fiser ABSITE Ch. 11 Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common CA in women

A

breast CA

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2
Q

Most common cause of CA related death in women

A

lung CA

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3
Q

Most common CA in men

A

Lung CA

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4
Q

Most common cause for CA related death in men

A

lung CA

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5
Q

Used to identify metastases, detects fluorodeoxyglucose molecules

A

PET scan

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6
Q

___ need MHC complex to attack tumor, while ___ cells can independently attack tumor cells

A

T cells, Natural killer cells

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7
Q

What is the tumor marker for colon CA and what is the half-life?

A

CEA, 18 days

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8
Q

What is the tumor marker for liver CA and what is the half life?

A

AFP, 5 days

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9
Q

What is the tumor marker for pancreatic CA?

A

CA 19-9

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10
Q

What is the tumor marker for ovarian CA?

A

CA 125

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11
Q

What is the tumor marker for testicular CA, choriocarcinoma?

A

Beta HCG

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12
Q

What is the tumor marker for prostate CA and what is the half-life?

A

PSA (thought to be the tumor marker with the highest sensitivity), 18 days

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13
Q

What is the tumor marker for small cell lung CA and neuroblastoma?

A

NSE (neuron specific enolase)

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14
Q

Time between exposure and formation of clinically detectable tumor

A

Latency period

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15
Q

What two cancers are associated with the Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal CA

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16
Q

What infectious agent is associated with gastric CA?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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17
Q

What infectious agent is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hep B and C

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18
Q

What infectious agent is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma?

A

HHV-8

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19
Q

What infectious agent is associated with splenic lymphoma?

A

Hep C

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20
Q

What infectious agent is associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

Human T-cell leukemia virus-1

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21
Q

What is the most vulerable stage of the cell cycle for XRT?

A

M phase

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22
Q

How is most damage done to DNA with XRT?

A

formation of oxygen radicals

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23
Q

In XRT, higher-energy radiation has a ___ effect (maximal ionizing potential not reached until deeper structures)

A

skin-preserving

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24
Q

Fractionate doses in XRT allow for:
___ of normal cells
___ of tumor
___ of tumor cells in cell cycle

A

repair
reoxygenation
redistribution

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25
Q

Name 2 very radiosensitive tumors

A

seminomas, lymphomas

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26
Q

Name 2 very radioresistant tumors

A

epithelial, sarcomas

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27
Q

Why are large tumors less responsive to XRT?

A

lack of oxygen in tumor

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28
Q

Lymphocytes as well as what 3 organs have increased sensitivity to XRT?

A

kidneys, liver, lungs

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29
Q

What is the difference in cell killing ability in cell cycle-specific agents (5FU, MTX) and cell cycle-nonspecific agents?

A

cell cycle-specific agents exhibit plateau in cell-killing ability while cell cycle-nonspecific agents have a linear response to cell killing

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30
Q

What chemotherapy agent decreases short-term (5 year) of breast CA but carries a 1% risk of blood clots and a 0.1% endometrial CA.

A

Tamoxifen (blocks estrogen receptor)

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31
Q

What chemotherapy agent promotes microtubule formation and stabilization that cannot be broken down; cells are ruptured

A

Taxol (Paclitaxel)

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32
Q

What 2 chemotherapy agents can cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Bleomycin and busulfan

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33
Q

Name 3 side effects of cisplatin (platinum alkylating agent).

A

nephrotoxic, neurotoxic, ototoxic

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34
Q

Name the primary side effect of carboplatin (platinum alkylating agent).

A

myelo suppression (carBoplatin = bone)

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35
Q

Primary side effect of Vincristine (microtubule inhibitor).

A

peripheral neuropathy

36
Q

Primary side effect of Vinblastine (microtubule inhibitor).

A

myelo suppresion (vinBlastine = bone)

37
Q

What is the active metabolite of cyclophosphamide?

A

acrolein

38
Q

Name 3 side effects of cyclophosphamide?

A

gonadal dysfunction, SIADH, hemorrhagic cystitis

39
Q

What drug can help with hemorrhagic cystitis associated with cyclophosphamide?

A

Mesna

40
Q

What is the antihelminthic drug thought to stimulate the immune system against CA?

A

Levamisole

41
Q

What is the MOA of methotrexate

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis

42
Q

What are two side effects of methotrexate?

A

renal toxicity, radiation recall (inflammatory reaction after radiation therapy, usually a rash with blistering)

43
Q

What can be used to reverse the effects of methotrexate

A

Leucovorin rescue (folinic acid)

44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of 5-Fluorouracil?

A

inhibits thymidylate synthesis, which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis,

45
Q

What drug increases the effectiveness of 5FU

A

leucovorin

46
Q

What is the mechanism of doxorubicin and what is it toxic to?

A

DNA intercalator, O2 radical formation;

heart toxicity secondary to O2 radicals at > 500 mg/m2

47
Q

Etoposide inhibits ___

A

topoismerase (which normally unwinds DNA)

48
Q

What can be used for neutrophil recover after chemo?

A

granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF)

49
Q

What are the side effects of GCSF?

A

Sweet’s syndrome (acute febrile neutropenic dermatitis)

50
Q

What are two indications for resection of normal thyroid to prevent CA

A

RET proto-oncogene or MENIN gene with family history of MEN or thyroid CA

51
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome defect is in __ gene; pts get childhood sarcomas, breast CA, brain tumors, leukemia, adrenal CA

A

p53

52
Q

What is the proto-oncogene associated with medullary CA of the thyroid?

A

Ret

53
Q

What function is the APC gene involved with?

A

cell adhesion and cytoskeleton function

54
Q

What 3 cancers is coal tar associated with?

A

larynx, skin, bronchial

55
Q

What cancer is Beta-naphthylamine assoiciated with?

A

urinary tract CA

56
Q

What cancer is benzen associated with?

A

leukemia

57
Q

What cancer is asbestos associated with?

A

mesothelioma

58
Q

What 4 cancers are associated with a suspicious supraclavicular node?

A

neck, breast, lung, stomach (Virchow’s), pancreas

59
Q

What 3 cancers are associated with a suspicious axillary node?

A

lymphoma (#1), breast, melanoma

60
Q

What cancer is associated with a suspicious periumbilical node?

A

pancreas (Sister Mary Joseph’s node)

61
Q

What 2 cancers are associated with ovarian metastases?

A

stomach (Krukenberg tumor), colon

62
Q

What 2 cancers are associated with bone metastases?

A

breast (#1), prostate

63
Q

What 2 cancers are associated with skin metastases?

A

breast melanoma

64
Q

What is the number one cancer associated with small bowel metastases?

A

melanoma

65
Q

“Name the type of therapy:

sole treatment; often used for advanced disease or when no other treatment exists”

A

Induction

66
Q

“Name the type of therapy:

chemotherapy given 1st, followed by another (secondary) therapy”

A

Primary (neoadjuvant)

67
Q

“Name the type of therapy:

combined with another modality; given after other therapy is used”

A

Adjuvant

68
Q

“Name the type of therapy:

for tumors that fail to respond to initial chemotherapy”

A

Salvage

69
Q

Does colon CA go to bone?

A

not usually

70
Q

Colon metastasis to the liver, if successfully resected what is the 5 year survival rate?

A

25%

71
Q

What are the 2 most successfully cure metastases with surgery?

A

colon CA to liver, sarcoma to the lung

but survival still low overall for these

72
Q

Name the main tumor for which surgical debulking improves chemotherapy (not seen in other tumors)

A

Ovarian CA

73
Q

Name the 2 solid tumors curable with chemotherapy only

A

Hodgkin’s disease, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

74
Q

What are most lymphomas?

A

B cell

75
Q

Name 2 HIV-related malignancies

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma, NHL

76
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 13, cell cycle

A

Rb

77
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 17, cell cycle

A

p53

78
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 5

A

APC

79
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 18, cell adhesion

A

DCC

80
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Apoptosis

A

bcl and p53

81
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: Breast CA

A

BRCA

82
Q

Proto-oncogene: G-protein defect

A

ras

83
Q

Proto-oncogene: Tyrosine kinase defect

A

src

84
Q

Proto-oncogene: PDGF receptor defect

A

sis

85
Q

Proto-oncogene: EGF receptor defect

A

erb B

86
Q

Proto-oncogene: Transcription factors

A

myc

Surgery (33 decks)

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