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Biology 1130 > First Exam; Practice Exam > Flashcards

First Exam; Practice Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What hormones bind to intracellular receptors?

A

Steroids

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2
Q

List the events of cAMP in order

A

Alpha subunit binds to adenylyl cyclase, cAMP is produced, cAMP binds to protein kinase, phosphate groups are attached to enzymes, phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP

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3
Q

Name four different second messengers

A

cAMP, DAG, IP3, and CGMP

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4
Q

When is a G protein active?

A

When GTP is bound to it

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5
Q

The cholera toxin doesn’t allow GTP to be hydrolyzed to GDP. What effects would you expect to see in the cell?

A

The activated G proteins would remain locked in the “on” position, transmitting signal even in the absence of a signaling molecule

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6
Q

What converts ATP to cyclic AMP?

A

Adenylate Cyclase

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7
Q

What event would activate a G protein?

A

The replacement of GDP with GTP

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8
Q

Cholera develops when the bacterial toxin _______________

A

prevents G-protein inactivation, which leads to the continuous production of cAMP

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9
Q

During the transduction of a signal, one molecule or ion may be closely associated or interact with the activity of another. What are 4 examples of correctly combined molecules?

A

Calcium-IP3, cAMP-adenylyl cyclase, cAMP-protein kinase A, and DAG-IP3

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10
Q

What’s the difference between the mechanisms of cAMP and Ca2+ in signal transduction?

A

cAMP is synthesized by an enzyme in response to a signal, and Ca2+ is released from intracellular stores

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11
Q

What is IP3 produced as a result of?

A

IP3 is produced as a result of protein kinase A activation

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12
Q

What does IP3 do?

A

It opens CA2+ channels

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13
Q

What is the general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein?

A

Protein kinase

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14
Q

What do G protein coupled receptors rely on? Examples?

A

G protein coupled receptors rely on second messengers such as Ca2+, cAMP, phosphatidylinositol, and cGMP to activate or inactivate a variety of pathways within the cell.

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15
Q

In an endothermic reaction, is the chemical potential energy lower in the reactants than in the products?

A

Yes

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16
Q

What is true of an endergonic reaction?

A

The reaction isn’t spontaneous and is accompanied by an increase in Gibb’s free energy (🔺G > 0), and the value of 🔺G provides a measure of the amount of free energy needed to drive the reaction

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17
Q

Define work

A

When energy is transferred from one body place to another

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18
Q

What is bond energy measured in? What two things is it equal to?

A

Bond energy is measured in kJ, and is equal to the minimum energy required to break one of the bonds between two types of atoms. It’s also equal to the amount of energy released when a bond is formed

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19
Q

Name 5 ways in which entropy can increase during a chemical reaction

A
  1. Liquid reactants become gaseous products, 2. Solutes move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until they’re uniformly distributed in the volume 3. complex molecules react to form simpler molecules, 4. fewer molecules of reactant molecules form a greater number of moles of product molecules, and 5. solid reactants become liquid or gaseous products
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20
Q

Most of the reactions of metabolism are a series of chain reactions in which the product of one reaction is the reactant of another reaction. What happens to the final product of the chain?

A

It’s released into the external environment

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21
Q

What does the second law of thermodynamics state?

A

That the entropy of the universe increases with any change that occurs

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22
Q

True or false: Living things build up their bodies and the world around them. They do this at the expense of the entropy of the universe as a whole.

A

True

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23
Q

Define Gibbs free energy

A

Energy that can do useful work

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24
Q

True or false: The free energy release of ~54kJ/mol in a living cell ATP reaction makes it a relatively poor source of energy for driving endergonic processes in the cell

A

False

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25
Q

True or false: A cell whose reversible reactions have reached equilibrium is a living cell.

A

False

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26
Q

A diver jumps off a diving tower. When will the diver have the highest kinetic energy?

A

Just when the diver approaches the water

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27
Q

The substance that loses the electron is oxidized, and then the substance that takes the electron is called the ______ agent

A

Oxidizing

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28
Q

Adenosine triphosphate is the secondary source of free energy in living cells

A

False

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29
Q

Define a catabolic reaction

A

A reaction that results in the breakdown of complex substances

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30
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

A

That the total amount of energy in the universe is constant, and that if an object/process gains an amount of energy it does so at the expense of a loss in energy somewhere else in the universe

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31
Q

True or false: nature does provide energy in a readily usable form

A

False

32
Q

Define a transition state

A

A temporary condition in which the bonds within reactants are breaking and bonds between products are forming

33
Q

When a reaction results in a net energy output, what is it called?

A

An exothermic reaction

34
Q

True or false: A reaction that’s spontaneous in one direction is also spontaneous in the reverse direction

A

False

35
Q

What are two factors that need to be taken into consideration when determining whether a given chemical or physical change will occur spontaneously?

A

Energy and reaction rate

36
Q

Define phosphorylation

A

An increase in reactivity of phosphate groups

37
Q

True or false: In an exothermic reaction, the chemical potential energy is higher in the reactants than in in the products

A

True

38
Q

True or false: all of the energy that ever existed on earth will disappear when it experiences a heat death

A

True

39
Q

True or false: since an electron moves to successively stronger electron acceptors, free energy is released in every step of the process

A

False

40
Q

True or false: the value of delta H is negative in exothermic reactions, and positive in endothermic reactions

A

True

41
Q

In exothermic reactions, is delta H positive or negative?

A

Negative

42
Q

Josiah Willard Gibbs discovered the relationship between what?

A

The relationship between energy change, entropy change, and temperature of a reaction

43
Q

True or false: living organisms obey the second law of thermodynamics

A

False

44
Q

Define entropy

A

The amount of heat released by a chemical reaction

45
Q

What does Adenosine triphosphate include/ what are its parts?

A

A pure nitrogenous base (adenine) attached to a five-carbon sugar (ribose) and three phosphate groups

46
Q

Define cellular respiration

A

A series of biochemical reactions that use glucose to make ATP

47
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

The cytoplasm

48
Q

During glycolysis, 6-carbon glucose is broken down into what?

A

2 molecules of 3-carbon pyruvic acid or pyruvate

49
Q

How much net ATP does glycolysis produce?

A

2 ATP

50
Q

When oxygen isn’t present, fermentation may be used to break pyruvate into what three things?

A

Ethanol, carbon dioxide, and lactic acid

51
Q

When oxygen is present, pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle. Where in the eukaryotic cell does this occur?

A

The mitochondria

52
Q

Oxidative decarboxylation links glycolysis to the Krebs cycle. Pyruvate is oxidized into what two things?

A

Carbon dioxide and acetyl-CoA

53
Q

What links glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

A

Oxidative decarboxylation

54
Q

What does oxidative decarboxylation link?

A

It links glycolysis to the Krebs cycle

55
Q

Where can the electron transport system be found in animal cells?

A

The mitochondria

56
Q

Where can the electron transport system be found in plant cells?

A

Chloroplasts

57
Q

Where can the electron transport system be found in bacteria?

A

The plasma membrane

58
Q

Which is more effective, aerobic metabolism or anaerobic metabolism?

A

Aerobic

59
Q

How many ATP molecules theoretically can be generated by the complete oxidation of glucose into carbon dioxide?

A

36-38

60
Q

Which of the following is a product of the Calvin cycle: carbon dioxide, NADP+, oxygen, or FADH2?

A

NADP+ is a product of the Calvin cycle

61
Q

Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?

A

Stroma

62
Q

What are photosystems?

A

Functional pigment groups

63
Q

Where are photosystems located?

A

On the membranes of the thylakoids

64
Q

What happens in the fluids of the vacuoles?

A

The Calvin cycle begins

65
Q

Where does the Calvin cycle begin?

A

In the fluids of vacuoles

66
Q

What does oxygen bind to during photorespiration?

A

RuBP

67
Q

What happens in the light-dependent reactions?

A

ATP and NADPH are formed

68
Q

What is the green pigment in plants that absorbs the sun’s energy?

A

Chlorophyll

69
Q

What are the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis associated with?

A

The thylakoids of the chloroplasts

70
Q

What happens in the photosynthetic reaction center?

A

Electrons are energized

71
Q

Where does the oxygen released during photosynthesis come from?

A

The splitting of water molecules

72
Q

In a noncyclical electron flow, what happens to the electrons that leave the chlorophyll?

A

They’re used to turn NADP+ into NADPH

73
Q

What are four things that happen during light-independent reactions?

A

NADPH is required, carbon dioxide is fixed in organic molecules, energy in the form of ATP is used, and glucose is formed

74
Q

In the C3 cycle, what is carbon dioxide combined with?

A

RuBP

75
Q

The C4 pathway occurs in plants that are adapted to what?

A

Conditions of low moisture and intense sunlight

76
Q

What does ATP stand for?

A

Adenosine triphosphate

Biology 1130 (12 decks)

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