Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology And Serology > FINALS TOPIC ALL > Flashcards

FINALS TOPIC ALL Flashcards

1
Q

Detection of possible antibodies produced by patients with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid factor latex agglutination test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Conditions in which damage to organs or tissues results from the presence of autoantibody or auto-reactive cells

A

Autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These cells would lead to the production of autoantibodies

A

Autoreactive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ability of the immune system to recognize self-produced antigens as a non-threat while recognizing foreign antigens as a threat

A

Self-tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This type of self tolerance happens in the primary lymphoid organs (BM and Thymus). It has a positive and negative selection process in T cell maturation. It is not 100% effective that is why some of the cell reactive T cells can pass through.

A

Central tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the main function of central tolerance?

A

Shut down/remove those cells that are self-reactive B or T lymphocytes. It triggers apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This type of self-tolerance happens in the secondary lymphoid organs (spleen, Lymph nodes, etc.).

A

Peripheral tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What cells mediate the peripheral tolerance which suppress the immune response to the self-antigens ?

A

T-regulatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This particular TH cell is associated as the primary mediators in the development of auto-immune disorders

A

TH1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is thought to be caused by the loss or breakdown of self-tolerance (there is a problem with the T regulatory cells)

A

Autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Other mechanisms that are thought to be contribute to autoimmunity:

A

Release of sequestered antigens, molecular mimicry, polyclonal B-cell activation, inheritance of MHC genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hormone related to autoimmunity which makes females more prone in the development of autoimmune disease

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tissue target of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Target tissue of Grave’s disease

A

Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tissue target of pernicious anemia

A

Gastric parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tissue target of Addison’s disease

A

Adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tissue target of Type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tissue target of Myasthenia gravis

A

Nerve muscle synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tissue target of multiple sclerosis

A

Myelin sheath of nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tissue target of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tissue target of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tissue target of goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Kidney, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tissue target of rheumatoid arthirtis

A

Joint, lungs, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tissue target of scleroderma

A

Skin, gut, lungs, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tissue target of systemic lupus erythematous

A

Skin, joints, kidney, brain, heart, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Considered as the most systemic autoimmune disease

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It affects cytokine production and may influence T cells which becomes more active in a particular response

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Genetic marker that is strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA-DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Principle of RF latex agglutination test

A

Passive agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the antibody detected in rf latex agglutination test?

A

Rheumatoid factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is RF non-specific or specific?

A

Non specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What immunoglobulin classification is RF in?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The mechanism of RF:

A

IgM antibodies act against the FC region of IgG molecule which creates an immune complex the becomes deposited in the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is RF classified in?

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Does a positive result in RF latex agglutination test mean the patient already has RA?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Done as a screening test to see if the patient is positive or negative with RF

A

RF latex agglutination qualitative method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal levels for RF latex agglutination test

A

Less than 8 iu/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Limit of sensitivity of RF latex agglutination test

A

8 iu/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the US

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The causative agent of yaws

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The causative agent of nonvenereal endemic syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The causative agent of pinta

A

Treponema carateum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the principal mode of transmission of syphilis?

A

Sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the formation of chancre

A

Primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When does the formation of chancre in syphilis occur?

A

10-90 days after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This stage of syphilis may give positive result to direct detection (microscopic, IFA)

A

Primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by lymphadenopathy, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and a rash on the skin and mucous membranes. Chancre may also be present.

A

Secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by a systemic dissemination of microorganism.

A

Secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

At this stage of syphilis, patients are noninfectious, with the exception of pregnant women.

A

Latent syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the absence of symptoms.

A

Latent syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This stage of syphilis is when the patient serum sample may give a positive result in serological test for syphilis.

A

Latent syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This stage of syphilis appears anywhere from months to years after secondary infection. Typically, this occurs most often between 10 and 30 years following the secondary stage.

A

Tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Three major manifestations of tertiary syphilis

A

Gummatous syphilis, cardiovascular disease, neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Localized area of granulomatous inflammation that is commonly found in the skin, bones, or subcutaneous tissues.

A

Gummas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Lab test for syphilis that uses darkfield and fluorescence microscope and fluorescence labelled antibody.

A

Direct detection of spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lab tests for syphilis under direct detection of spirochetes:

A

Dark field microscope, direct immunofluorescence assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Laboratory test for syphilis which detects antibody cardiolipin. It has been traditionally been used to screen for syphilis because of their high sensitivity and ease of performance.

A

Nontreponemal serological test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations.

A

Flocculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Examples of nontreponemal test:

A

VDRL, RPR, TRUST (toluidine red unheated serum test), USR (unheated serum reagent), RST (regain screen test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This lab test for syphilis detects treponemal antibodies. It has the highest sensitivity for detecting infection.

A

Treponemal serological test

62
Q

It is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation test for serum and spinal fluid.

A

Venereal disease research laboratory

63
Q

What does the reagent (antigen) of VDRL consist of?

A

0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin

64
Q

Rotation speed and timing for serum VDRL

A

180 rpm for 4 mins

65
Q

Rotation speed and timing for CSF VDRL:

A

180 rpm for 8 mins

66
Q

At what temperature should the VDRL be performed?

A

Room temperature / 23-29C

67
Q

What is the antibody against cardiolipin?

A

Reagin

68
Q

How do you inactivate VDRL serums?

A

Incubate serum at 56C for 30 mins

69
Q

What is the required circle for VDRL?

A

14mm ring

70
Q

It uses 18 gauge needles without bevel. Calibrated to drop 60 drops of antigen suspension per mL.

A

Qualitative Serum VDRL

71
Q

It uses 19 gauge needle without bevel. Calibrated to drop 75 drops of antigen suspension per mL.
It can use 23 gauge needle may be used which dispenses 100 drops per mL.

A

Quantitative serum VDRL

72
Q

It uses 21 or 22 gauge needle that can dispense 100 drops of antigen suspension per mL.

A

CSF VDRL

73
Q

GRADING OF FLOCCULATION

A

Reactive- medium to large clumps
Weakly reactive- small clumps
Nonreactive- no clumps or slight roughness

74
Q

This test is a modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic agglutination

A

Rapid plasma reagin test

75
Q

Where is the cardiolipin-containing antigen suspension bound to in RPR?

A

Charcoal particles

76
Q

What is the composition of RPR antigen?

A

0.03% cardiolipin, 0.9% cholesterol, 0.21% lecithin, EDTA, thimerosal, choline chloride

77
Q

What hamilton syringe is used for RPR?

A

20 gauge

78
Q

Rotation and timing of RPR?

A

100 rpm for 8 mins

79
Q

Which component of the RPR reagent inactivates the serum?

A

Choline chloride

80
Q

What is the test circle size for RPR?

A

18 mm

81
Q

What done after a positive reaction is shown in RPR test?

A

Run a semi-quantitative method to determine the titer

82
Q

It is also called as the lateral flow assay or lateral flow immunoassay

A

Immunochromatography

83
Q

What is the principle applied in serological test kits?

A

Immunochromatography

84
Q

What are the components of the lateral flow assay?

A

Sample pad, conjugate pad, membrane pad, absorbent pad

85
Q

Absorbent pad on to which the sample is applied that might be containing the target analyte.

A

Sample pad

86
Q

What is the typical composition of sample pad?

A

Woven mesh or cellulose fiber

87
Q

What should the sample pad demonstrate to avoid lost of analytes?

A

Low protein binding

88
Q

It is typically composed of non-woven glass fiber, into which the detection reagent has been dried

A

Conjugate pad

89
Q

It contains a dye labeled antibody conjugate, specific for the target analyte in this sample

A

Conjugate pad

90
Q

What is the most commonly used label in immunochromatography? This is also the reason why the reaction is colorimetric.

A

Colloidal-gold nanoparticles

91
Q

What is the most important element in the lateral flow assay?

A

Membrane pad

92
Q

What is the composition of membrane pad?

A

Nitrocellulose, cellulose acetate, polyvinylidene fluoride, charge-modified nylon, or polyethersulfone

93
Q

It is considered to be the most commonly used membrane pad

A

Nitrocellulose

94
Q

What is the purpose of membrane pad?

A

Captured antibodies are immobilized across the membrane, typically in two lines

95
Q

It basically consists of specie specific antibody for the detection of the antibodies available on the conjugate pad.

A

Control line

96
Q

This is found at the end of the lateral flow immunoassay. Functions to increase the volume of sample which enters the test strip.

A

Absorbent pad

97
Q

In this assay, the positive reaction will show a colored line on the “T”-test line.

A

Direct assay or sandwich assay

98
Q

Test kits that utilizes direct assay

A

HBsAg, HIV, Dengue

99
Q

In this type of assay, the sign of positive reaction is an absence of colored line on the test line.

A

Competitive assay

100
Q

What test kits use competitive assay?

A

Drugs of abuse: Methemphetamine hydrochloride, tetrahydrocannabinol, etc.

101
Q

Inflammation of liver caused by a heterogenous group of viruses

A

Hepatitis

102
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Picornaviridae

103
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Hepadnaviridae

104
Q

Hepatitis c

A

Flaviviridae

105
Q

Hepatitis D

A

Deltaviridae

106
Q

Hepatitis E

A

Hepeviridae

107
Q

The only DNA hepatitis virus

A

Hepatitis B virus

108
Q

Mode of transmission of hepatitis b

A

Parenteral, perinatal, sexual intercourse

109
Q

What should the mother be positive for in order for vertical transmission be possible for hepatitis b?

A

Hepatitis B envelop antigen (HBeAg)

110
Q

How many doses of the vaccine should a person acquire for the prevention of hepatitis b?

A

3

111
Q

What are the immune responses that our body tends to produce?

A

Anti-HbS, anti-HbC, anti-HbE

112
Q

First marker to appear in blood after infection and it’s a sign that the patient is in acute stage of hepatitis B infection

A

HBsAg

113
Q

A sign that there is a viral replication happening on the patient circulation and sign of infectivity which means that the patient can transmit the virus to other hosts

A

HBeAg

114
Q

The only serological marker for hepatitis b infection that is not detectable in serum sample because of the HBe which masks it.

A

HBcAg

115
Q

What hepatitis serological marker can be detected only through liver biopsy?

A

HBcAg

116
Q

The first antibody to be detected in hepatitis B

A

Anti-HBc

117
Q

2 forms of Anti-HBc

A

IgM and IgG

118
Q

The only serological marker that can be detected during the window period of hepatitis B infection.

A

Anti-HBc

119
Q

This is when all of the serological markers for hepatitis B are negative.

A

Window period

120
Q

The marker detected during the window period of hepatitis B

A

IgM anti-HBC

121
Q

Serological marker that is a sign that the patient is in chronic stage of hepatitis B infection

A

IgG Anti-HBc

122
Q

Indicates that the patient is recovering from hepatitis B infection

A

Anti-HBe

123
Q

Last antibody to appear during hepatitis b infection. It is also present on immunized patients.

A

Anti-HBs

124
Q

One step assay designed for qualitative determination of HBsAg in human serum or plasma

A

SD BIOLINE HBsAg

125
Q

What is the membrane strip of the SD BIOLINE test cassette pre-coated with?

A

Mouse monoclonal anti-HBs capture antibdy on test band region

126
Q

After how many minutes should you interpret the results for HBsAg

A

20 mins

127
Q

Family of HIV

A

Retroviridae

128
Q

HIV with worldwide distribution (common to US and Europe)

A

HIV I

129
Q

HIV that is common to West Africa and less pathogenic

A

HIV II

130
Q

What are the three major structural gene of HIV?

A

Gag, Pol, Env

131
Q

Reverse transcriptase (important enzyme during replication process) in HIV

A

P64

132
Q

An important enzyme during replication process, to integrate genetic material to the host genes

A

P32

133
Q

Screening tests for HIV Ab

A

ELISA(indirect), ELISA (competitive assay), slide agglutination test, RIA

134
Q

Confirmatory tests for HIV Ab

A

Western blot assay, indirect immunofluorescence assay

135
Q

Most widely used supplementary test for confirming reactive HIV ELISA Ab test. Used to detect proteins

A

Wester blot assay

136
Q

Indication of positive result for westernblot

A

Positive for At least 2 out of 3 Ab

137
Q

Considered confirmatory for HIV

A

2 (+) ELISA’s. And 1 (+) western blot

138
Q

Southern blot hybridization

A

Detects DNA

139
Q

PCR

A

Tests HIV RNA

140
Q

Norhtern blot

A

Measures mRNA Ag

141
Q

Ab that appear relatively early after exposure to HIV

A

Anti-p24, anti-p55 (earliest is Anti-p24)

142
Q

Ab that appear slightly later but remain throughout all diseases stages in an HIV-infected px

A

ANti-gp41, gp120, gp160

143
Q

A rapid, qualitative test kit for the detection of Abs to all isotypes specific to HIV-1 including subtype-0 and HIV-2 SIMULTANEOUSLY IN HUMAN SERUM, PLASMA OR WHOLE BLOOD

A

SD BIOLINE HIV-1/2 3.0

144
Q

What is the membrane pad of SD BIOLINE HIV-1/2 3.0 coated with?

A

HIV-1 capture antigen (gp41, p24) on test band 1 region, recombinant HIV-2 capture antigen (gp36) on test band 2 region

145
Q

Mosquitoes that transmit dengue virus

A

Aedes aegypti, aedes albopticus

146
Q

Ab that rises between 3-5 days of infection and may persist up to 60 days of dengue

A

IgM

147
Q

Ab that appears a the 14th day and persists for life following dengue

A

IgG

148
Q

Principle of SD bioline: rapid dengue IgG and IgM

A

Solid-phase immunochromatography

149
Q

Highly conserved glycoprotein that is present at high concentrations in the sera of dengue-infected patients during the early clinical phase of the disease

A

NS1 Ag

150
Q

Found from the first day and up to 9 days after onset of fever in samples of primary and secondary dengue infected patients

A

NS1 Ag

Immunology And Serology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions