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Immunology And Serology > FINALS TOPIC ALL > Flashcards

FINALS TOPIC ALL Flashcards

1
Q

Detection of possible antibodies produced by patients with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid factor latex agglutination test

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2
Q

Conditions in which damage to organs or tissues results from the presence of autoantibody or auto-reactive cells

A

Autoimmunity

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3
Q

These cells would lead to the production of autoantibodies

A

Autoreactive cells

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4
Q

The ability of the immune system to recognize self-produced antigens as a non-threat while recognizing foreign antigens as a threat

A

Self-tolerance

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5
Q

This type of self tolerance happens in the primary lymphoid organs (BM and Thymus). It has a positive and negative selection process in T cell maturation. It is not 100% effective that is why some of the cell reactive T cells can pass through.

A

Central tolerance

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6
Q

What is the main function of central tolerance?

A

Shut down/remove those cells that are self-reactive B or T lymphocytes. It triggers apoptosis

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7
Q

This type of self-tolerance happens in the secondary lymphoid organs (spleen, Lymph nodes, etc.).

A

Peripheral tolerance

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8
Q

What cells mediate the peripheral tolerance which suppress the immune response to the self-antigens ?

A

T-regulatory cells

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9
Q

This particular TH cell is associated as the primary mediators in the development of auto-immune disorders

A

TH1

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10
Q

It is thought to be caused by the loss or breakdown of self-tolerance (there is a problem with the T regulatory cells)

A

Autoimmunity

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11
Q

Other mechanisms that are thought to be contribute to autoimmunity:

A

Release of sequestered antigens, molecular mimicry, polyclonal B-cell activation, inheritance of MHC genes

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12
Q

Hormone related to autoimmunity which makes females more prone in the development of autoimmune disease

A

Estrogen

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13
Q

Tissue target of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Thyroid

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14
Q

Target tissue of Grave’s disease

A

Thyroid

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15
Q

Tissue target of pernicious anemia

A

Gastric parietal

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16
Q

Tissue target of Addison’s disease

A

Adrenal glands

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17
Q

Tissue target of Type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

Pancreas

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18
Q

Tissue target of Myasthenia gravis

A

Nerve muscle synapse

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19
Q

Tissue target of multiple sclerosis

A

Myelin sheath of nerves

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20
Q

Tissue target of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Red blood cells

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21
Q

Tissue target of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Platelets

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22
Q

Tissue target of goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Kidney, lungs

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23
Q

Tissue target of rheumatoid arthirtis

A

Joint, lungs, skin

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24
Q

Tissue target of scleroderma

A

Skin, gut, lungs, kidney

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25
Q

Tissue target of systemic lupus erythematous

A

Skin, joints, kidney, brain, heart, lungs

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26
Q

Considered as the most systemic autoimmune disease

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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27
Q

It affects cytokine production and may influence T cells which becomes more active in a particular response

A

Estrogen

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28
Q

Genetic marker that is strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA-DR4

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29
Q

Principle of RF latex agglutination test

A

Passive agglutination

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30
Q

What is the antibody detected in rf latex agglutination test?

A

Rheumatoid factor

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31
Q

Is RF non-specific or specific?

A

Non specific

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32
Q

What immunoglobulin classification is RF in?

A

IgM

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33
Q

The mechanism of RF:

A

IgM antibodies act against the FC region of IgG molecule which creates an immune complex the becomes deposited in the joints

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34
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is RF classified in?

A

Type 3

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35
Q

Does a positive result in RF latex agglutination test mean the patient already has RA?

A

No

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36
Q

Done as a screening test to see if the patient is positive or negative with RF

A

RF latex agglutination qualitative method

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37
Q

Normal levels for RF latex agglutination test

A

Less than 8 iu/mL

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38
Q

Limit of sensitivity of RF latex agglutination test

A

8 iu/mL

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39
Q

Most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the US

A

Syphilis

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40
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

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41
Q

The causative agent of yaws

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue

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42
Q

The causative agent of nonvenereal endemic syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum

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43
Q

The causative agent of pinta

A

Treponema carateum

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44
Q

What is the principal mode of transmission of syphilis?

A

Sexual contact

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45
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the formation of chancre

A

Primary syphilis

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46
Q

When does the formation of chancre in syphilis occur?

A

10-90 days after infection

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47
Q

This stage of syphilis may give positive result to direct detection (microscopic, IFA)

A

Primary syphilis

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48
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by lymphadenopathy, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and a rash on the skin and mucous membranes. Chancre may also be present.

A

Secondary syphilis

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49
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by a systemic dissemination of microorganism.

A

Secondary syphilis

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50
Q

At this stage of syphilis, patients are noninfectious, with the exception of pregnant women.

A

Latent syphilis

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51
Q

This stage of syphilis is characterized by the absence of symptoms.

A

Latent syphilis

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52
Q

This stage of syphilis is when the patient serum sample may give a positive result in serological test for syphilis.

A

Latent syphilis

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53
Q

This stage of syphilis appears anywhere from months to years after secondary infection. Typically, this occurs most often between 10 and 30 years following the secondary stage.

A

Tertiary syphilis

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54
Q

Three major manifestations of tertiary syphilis

A

Gummatous syphilis, cardiovascular disease, neurosyphilis

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55
Q

Localized area of granulomatous inflammation that is commonly found in the skin, bones, or subcutaneous tissues.

A

Gummas

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56
Q

Lab test for syphilis that uses darkfield and fluorescence microscope and fluorescence labelled antibody.

A

Direct detection of spirochetes

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57
Q

Lab tests for syphilis under direct detection of spirochetes:

A

Dark field microscope, direct immunofluorescence assay

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58
Q

Laboratory test for syphilis which detects antibody cardiolipin. It has been traditionally been used to screen for syphilis because of their high sensitivity and ease of performance.

A

Nontreponemal serological test

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59
Q

Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations.

A

Flocculation

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60
Q

Examples of nontreponemal test:

A

VDRL, RPR, TRUST (toluidine red unheated serum test), USR (unheated serum reagent), RST (regain screen test)

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61
Q

This lab test for syphilis detects treponemal antibodies. It has the highest sensitivity for detecting infection.

A

Treponemal serological test

62
Q

It is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation test for serum and spinal fluid.

A

Venereal disease research laboratory

63
Q

What does the reagent (antigen) of VDRL consist of?

A

0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin

64
Q

Rotation speed and timing for serum VDRL

A

180 rpm for 4 mins

65
Q

Rotation speed and timing for CSF VDRL:

A

180 rpm for 8 mins

66
Q

At what temperature should the VDRL be performed?

A

Room temperature / 23-29C

67
Q

What is the antibody against cardiolipin?

68
Q

How do you inactivate VDRL serums?

A

Incubate serum at 56C for 30 mins

69
Q

What is the required circle for VDRL?

70
Q

It uses 18 gauge needles without bevel. Calibrated to drop 60 drops of antigen suspension per mL.

A

Qualitative Serum VDRL

71
Q

It uses 19 gauge needle without bevel. Calibrated to drop 75 drops of antigen suspension per mL.
It can use 23 gauge needle may be used which dispenses 100 drops per mL.

A

Quantitative serum VDRL

72
Q

It uses 21 or 22 gauge needle that can dispense 100 drops of antigen suspension per mL.

73
Q

GRADING OF FLOCCULATION

A

Reactive- medium to large clumps
Weakly reactive- small clumps
Nonreactive- no clumps or slight roughness

74
Q

This test is a modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic agglutination

A

Rapid plasma reagin test

75
Q

Where is the cardiolipin-containing antigen suspension bound to in RPR?

A

Charcoal particles

76
Q

What is the composition of RPR antigen?

A

0.03% cardiolipin, 0.9% cholesterol, 0.21% lecithin, EDTA, thimerosal, choline chloride

77
Q

What hamilton syringe is used for RPR?

78
Q

Rotation and timing of RPR?

A

100 rpm for 8 mins

79
Q

Which component of the RPR reagent inactivates the serum?

A

Choline chloride

80
Q

What is the test circle size for RPR?

81
Q

What done after a positive reaction is shown in RPR test?

A

Run a semi-quantitative method to determine the titer

82
Q

It is also called as the lateral flow assay or lateral flow immunoassay

A

Immunochromatography

83
Q

What is the principle applied in serological test kits?

A

Immunochromatography

84
Q

What are the components of the lateral flow assay?

A

Sample pad, conjugate pad, membrane pad, absorbent pad

85
Q

Absorbent pad on to which the sample is applied that might be containing the target analyte.

A

Sample pad

86
Q

What is the typical composition of sample pad?

A

Woven mesh or cellulose fiber

87
Q

What should the sample pad demonstrate to avoid lost of analytes?

A

Low protein binding

88
Q

It is typically composed of non-woven glass fiber, into which the detection reagent has been dried

A

Conjugate pad

89
Q

It contains a dye labeled antibody conjugate, specific for the target analyte in this sample

A

Conjugate pad

90
Q

What is the most commonly used label in immunochromatography? This is also the reason why the reaction is colorimetric.

A

Colloidal-gold nanoparticles

91
Q

What is the most important element in the lateral flow assay?

A

Membrane pad

92
Q

What is the composition of membrane pad?

A

Nitrocellulose, cellulose acetate, polyvinylidene fluoride, charge-modified nylon, or polyethersulfone

93
Q

It is considered to be the most commonly used membrane pad

A

Nitrocellulose

94
Q

What is the purpose of membrane pad?

A

Captured antibodies are immobilized across the membrane, typically in two lines

95
Q

It basically consists of specie specific antibody for the detection of the antibodies available on the conjugate pad.

A

Control line

96
Q

This is found at the end of the lateral flow immunoassay. Functions to increase the volume of sample which enters the test strip.

A

Absorbent pad

97
Q

In this assay, the positive reaction will show a colored line on the “T”-test line.

A

Direct assay or sandwich assay

98
Q

Test kits that utilizes direct assay

A

HBsAg, HIV, Dengue

99
Q

In this type of assay, the sign of positive reaction is an absence of colored line on the test line.

A

Competitive assay

100
Q

What test kits use competitive assay?

A

Drugs of abuse: Methemphetamine hydrochloride, tetrahydrocannabinol, etc.

101
Q

Inflammation of liver caused by a heterogenous group of viruses

102
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Picornaviridae

103
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Hepadnaviridae

104
Q

Hepatitis c

A

Flaviviridae

105
Q

Hepatitis D

A

Deltaviridae

106
Q

Hepatitis E

A

Hepeviridae

107
Q

The only DNA hepatitis virus

A

Hepatitis B virus

108
Q

Mode of transmission of hepatitis b

A

Parenteral, perinatal, sexual intercourse

109
Q

What should the mother be positive for in order for vertical transmission be possible for hepatitis b?

A

Hepatitis B envelop antigen (HBeAg)

110
Q

How many doses of the vaccine should a person acquire for the prevention of hepatitis b?

111
Q

What are the immune responses that our body tends to produce?

A

Anti-HbS, anti-HbC, anti-HbE

112
Q

First marker to appear in blood after infection and it’s a sign that the patient is in acute stage of hepatitis B infection

113
Q

A sign that there is a viral replication happening on the patient circulation and sign of infectivity which means that the patient can transmit the virus to other hosts

114
Q

The only serological marker for hepatitis b infection that is not detectable in serum sample because of the HBe which masks it.

115
Q

What hepatitis serological marker can be detected only through liver biopsy?

116
Q

The first antibody to be detected in hepatitis B

117
Q

2 forms of Anti-HBc

A

IgM and IgG

118
Q

The only serological marker that can be detected during the window period of hepatitis B infection.

119
Q

This is when all of the serological markers for hepatitis B are negative.

A

Window period

120
Q

The marker detected during the window period of hepatitis B

A

IgM anti-HBC

121
Q

Serological marker that is a sign that the patient is in chronic stage of hepatitis B infection

A

IgG Anti-HBc

122
Q

Indicates that the patient is recovering from hepatitis B infection

123
Q

Last antibody to appear during hepatitis b infection. It is also present on immunized patients.

124
Q

One step assay designed for qualitative determination of HBsAg in human serum or plasma

A

SD BIOLINE HBsAg

125
Q

What is the membrane strip of the SD BIOLINE test cassette pre-coated with?

A

Mouse monoclonal anti-HBs capture antibdy on test band region

126
Q

After how many minutes should you interpret the results for HBsAg

127
Q

Family of HIV

A

Retroviridae

128
Q

HIV with worldwide distribution (common to US and Europe)

129
Q

HIV that is common to West Africa and less pathogenic

130
Q

What are the three major structural gene of HIV?

A

Gag, Pol, Env

131
Q

Reverse transcriptase (important enzyme during replication process) in HIV

132
Q

An important enzyme during replication process, to integrate genetic material to the host genes

133
Q

Screening tests for HIV Ab

A

ELISA(indirect), ELISA (competitive assay), slide agglutination test, RIA

134
Q

Confirmatory tests for HIV Ab

A

Western blot assay, indirect immunofluorescence assay

135
Q

Most widely used supplementary test for confirming reactive HIV ELISA Ab test. Used to detect proteins

A

Wester blot assay

136
Q

Indication of positive result for westernblot

A

Positive for At least 2 out of 3 Ab

137
Q

Considered confirmatory for HIV

A

2 (+) ELISA’s. And 1 (+) western blot

138
Q

Southern blot hybridization

A

Detects DNA

139
Q

PCR

A

Tests HIV RNA

140
Q

Norhtern blot

A

Measures mRNA Ag

141
Q

Ab that appear relatively early after exposure to HIV

A

Anti-p24, anti-p55 (earliest is Anti-p24)

142
Q

Ab that appear slightly later but remain throughout all diseases stages in an HIV-infected px

A

ANti-gp41, gp120, gp160

143
Q

A rapid, qualitative test kit for the detection of Abs to all isotypes specific to HIV-1 including subtype-0 and HIV-2 SIMULTANEOUSLY IN HUMAN SERUM, PLASMA OR WHOLE BLOOD

A

SD BIOLINE HIV-1/2 3.0

144
Q

What is the membrane pad of SD BIOLINE HIV-1/2 3.0 coated with?

A

HIV-1 capture antigen (gp41, p24) on test band 1 region, recombinant HIV-2 capture antigen (gp36) on test band 2 region

145
Q

Mosquitoes that transmit dengue virus

A

Aedes aegypti, aedes albopticus

146
Q

Ab that rises between 3-5 days of infection and may persist up to 60 days of dengue

147
Q

Ab that appears a the 14th day and persists for life following dengue

148
Q

Principle of SD bioline: rapid dengue IgG and IgM

A

Solid-phase immunochromatography

149
Q

Highly conserved glycoprotein that is present at high concentrations in the sera of dengue-infected patients during the early clinical phase of the disease

150
Q

Found from the first day and up to 9 days after onset of fever in samples of primary and secondary dengue infected patients

Immunology And Serology (11 decks)

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