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A&P 1 > final tests > Flashcards

final tests Flashcards

1
Q

Histology

A

Study of tissues

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2
Q

Avascular

A

Without blood flow

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3
Q

Anatomy

A

Study of structure

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4
Q

Physiology

A

Study of function

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5
Q

Homeostasis

A

Maintaining a constant state

within physiological limits

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6
Q

Effector

A

Responds to control center

stimulus

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7
Q

Receptor

A

Sensitive to particular environmental

change

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8
Q

Negative Feedback System

A

Effector response decreases

stimulus

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9
Q

When a person is standing, facing forward, with their arms at their sides, palms turned forward, and feet together; this position is termed what?

a. Prone position
b. Cephalic position
c. Anatomical position
d. Caudal position
e. Under arrest

A

Anatomical position

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10
Q

Supine means?

a. Face down
b. Face up
c. Face side
d. Face back
e. None of the above

A

Face up

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11
Q

Which quadrant will you most likely find the appendix?

a. Left upper
b. Right upper
c. Left lower
d. Right lower
e. Left lumbar region

A

Right lower

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12
Q

The ankle is said to be in what relationship to the hip?

a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Cephalic
d. Dorsal
e. Thoracic

A

Distal

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13
Q

The heart is found in which cavity?

a. Dorsal
b. Ventral
c. Thoracic
d. Abdominopelvic
e. Two of the above

A

Two of the above

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14
Q

Which plane separates the anterior and posterior parts of the body?

a. Sagital
b. Midsagital
c. Transverse
d. Coronal
e. Oblique

A

Coronal

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15
Q

What is the superior border of the abdominopelvic cavity?

a. Pelvic floor
b. Clavicle
c. Diaphragm
d. Rectus abdominis muscle
e. Crainium

A

Diaphragm

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16
Q

Which is not one of the four types of tissues?

a. Striated
b. Connective
c. Muscular
d. Neural
e. Epithelial

A

a.Striated

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17
Q

Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?

a. Control permeability
b. Physical protection
c. Sensation
d. Strength
e. Secretions

A

d.Strength

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18
Q

What type of junction holds cells together but allows for communication between cells?

a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Button desmosomes
d. CAM’s
e. Vesicles

A

b.Gap junctions

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19
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about the naming of epithelial tissues?

a. Cell shape
b. Layers
c. Attachment to the basal lamina
d. Amount of nuclei

A

d.Amount of nuclei

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20
Q

What is the difference between simple glands and compound glands?

a. Type of secretion
b. Shape or glandular tissue
c. Number of ducts
d. None of the above
e. All of the above are correct

A

c.Number of ducts

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21
Q

Which method of secretion requires the tissue to constantly be replaced?

a. Merocrine
b. Apocrine
c. Neurocrine
d. Holocrine
e. Burstocrine

A

d.Holocrine

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22
Q

Which of the following is a supportive connective tissue?

a. Adipose
b. Bone
c. Loose connective
d. Cartilage
e. Two of the above

A

e.Two of the above

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23
Q

Which of the following type of junction ties the epithelial tissue to the basement membrane?

a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. CAMs
e. Vesicles

A

c.Hemidesmosomes

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24
Q

Fibroblasts have what function in connective tissue?

a. Produce matrix
b. Absorb matrix
c. Destroy bacteria
d. Store energy
e. None of the above

A

a.Produce matrix

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25
Q

Which of the following is an irregular tissue found in organs?

a. Tendon
b. Areolar
c. Reticular
d. Adipose
e. Squamous

A

c.Reticular

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26
Q

Which is not a dense regular tissue?

a. Capsule
b. Tendon
c. Ligament
d. Aponeurosis

A

a.Capsule

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27
Q

What are the types of Cartilage?

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Osseous cartilage
d. Hyaline cartilage
e. A,B, and C
ab. A,B,D

A

ab.A,B,D

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28
Q

Articular cartilage found on the end of bones is composed of what type?

a. Elastic
b. Hyaline
c. Fibro
d. Osseous
e. None of the above

A

b.Hyaline

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29
Q 
What are the types of muscle tissue?
A.  Cardiac	B.  Rough 	C.  Smooth	D.  Fascial 	E.  Skeletal
      a.  A,B,C
      b.  B,C,D
      c.  C,D,E
      d.  A,C,D
      e.  A,C,E
A

e. A,C,E

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30
Q

Which muscle type is voluntary?

a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
c. Skeletal
d. Rough
e. Fascial

A

c.Skeletal

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31
Q

Which muscle type is non-striated?

a. Rough
b. Smooth
c. Cardiac
d. Skeletal
e. fascial

A

Smooth

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32
Q

Neural tissue is composed of what two types of cells?

a. Neurons and Neuroglia
b. Neurons and Dendrites
c. Neuroglia and Axons
d. Neuroglia and Dendrites
e. Neurons and Axons

A

Neurons and Neuroglia

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33
Q

The other term for bone is what?

a. Chondro
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. Serous

A

Osseous

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34
Q

A mature bone cell is called what?

a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocyte
c. Chondrocyte
d. Chondroclast
e. Chondroblasts

A

Osteocyte

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35
Q

Why does cartilage heal slowly?

a. It is Avascular
b. It is all matrix without cells when mature
c. It doesn’t heal slowly
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

It is Avascular

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36
Q

The integumentary system in composed of what parts?

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous
d. Accessory structures
e. All but C

A

All but C

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37
Q

What are the functions of the Integumentary System?

a. Protection
b. Excretion
c. Insulation of Heat
d. Storage of energy
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

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38
Q

What layer of skin is the difference in thick and thin skin?

a. Stratum Germinativum
b. Stratum Spinosum
c. Stratum Lucidum
d. Stratum Granulosum
e. Stratum Corneum

A

Stratum Lucidum

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39
Q

The outermost layer of skin cells have undergone keratinization and are dead.

a. True
b. False

A

True

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40
Q

Melanocytes are the cells that produce the brown to black skin coloration. The color of skin depends on the amount of Melanin not the number of cytes produced.

a. True
b. False

A

True

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41
Q

One layer in the dermis is called the papillary layer, what is the other?

a. Calcitiol
b. Reticular
c. Carotene
d. Cyanosis
e. None of the above

A

Reticular

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42
Q

Which layer of the skin is not vascularized?

a. Dermis
b. Papillary
c. Epidermis
d. Reticular
e. Carotene

A

Epidermis

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43
Q

Hair has two types, name the two (color in the two correct ovals).

a. Vellus
b. Sebaceous
c. Sudoriferous
d. Terminal
e. Apocrine

A

Vellus

Terminal

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44
Q

Where is a nail formed?

a. Hyponychium
b. Lunula
c. Nail root
d. Eponychium
e. Free edge

A

Nail root

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45
Q

The hairs and nails are formed in the dermis of the skin layers and pierce thru the epidermis layers.

a. True
b. False

A

True

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46
Q

What is the name of the muscle associated with the hair follicle?

a. Semishaftoseous
b. Root erector
c. Cuticletitis
d. Arrector pili
e. Follicle pili

A

Arrector pili

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47
Q

Hair is not found on which type of skin?

a. Thin
b. Thick
c. Human
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Thick

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48
Q

Another term for bone is which of the following?

a. Chondral
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. None of the above

A

Osseous

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49
Q

Which is not a function of bone?

a. Support
b. Storage of minerals
c. Protection
d. Blood cell production
e. All of the above are functions

A

All of the above are functions

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50
Q

Which type of bone is described by the following? Thin, roughly parallel surfaces and contain red blood cells.

a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid

A

Flat

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51
Q

A metacarpal is what type of bone?

a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid

A

Long

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52
Q

Which bone is a sesamoid bone?

a. Femur
b. Hyoid
c. Patella
d. Calcaneous
e. Ethmoid

A

Patella

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53
Q

Osteoclast

A

ad.Bone cell that breaksdown bone

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54
Q

Trochanter

A

A large rough projection

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55
Q

Head

A

expanded articular end of an epiphysis

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56
Q

Osteoblast

A

b. bone forming cell

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57
Q

Foramen

A

rounded passageway for blood vessel

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58
Q

Tubercle

A

a small, rounded projection

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59
Q

Spine

A

a pointed process

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60
Q

Osteocyte

A

Mature bone cell

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61
Q

What type of bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and makes it easier for muscles to move the bones?

a. Short
b. Irregular
c. Spongy
d. Seasamoid
e. Compact

A

Spongy

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62
Q

Calcification is the deposition of calcium salts, and occurs during the process of ossification.

a. True
b. False

A

True

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63
Q

In which step of endochondral ossification does remodeling of the bone occur primarily?

a. Step 1, cartilage enlargement
b. Step 2, blood vessel formation around edges
c. Step 3, blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and central region
d. Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation
e. All of the above

A

Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation

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64
Q

What is the name of the cartilage on the ends of bones in the joints?

a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal

A

Articular

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65
Q

Which cartilage allows the bone to grow in length (interstitial)?

a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal

A

Epiphyseal

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66
Q

While on a school skiing trip, Jessica falls and breaks her femur. What would you expect to find as part of her nursing assessment several hours after the fall?

a. Hypertension
b. Tachycardia
c. Erythema
d. Hemotoma
e. Cyanosis

A

Hemotoma

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67
Q

Which is not part of the axial division of the skeleton?

a. Skull
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Pectoral girdle
d. Hyoid bone
e. Vertebral column

A

Pectoral girdle

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68
Q

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

a. Provides an attachment for muscles that move in appendicular skeleton
b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, and neck
c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

All of the above

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69
Q

The foramen magnum would be found in which bone?

a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Parietal
d. Temporal
e. Occipital

A

Occipital

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70
Q

The suture that forms the articulation between the two parietal bones is called?

a. Lambdoidal
b. Sagital
c. Coronal
d. Squamos
e. None of the above

A

Sagital

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71
Q

Which of the following is not part of the eye orbit?

a. Lacrimal
b. Sphenoid
c. Nasal
d. Ethmoid
e. Maxilla

A

Nasal

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72
Q

What is the name of the bone that has no articulations with other bones?

a. Hyoid
b. Inferior nasal concha
c. Scapula
d. Patella
e. None of the above

A

Hyoid

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73
Q

Which bone holds the Cribiform plate for the Olfactory Nerve?

a. Temporal
b. Frontal
c. Ethmoid
d. Sphenoid
e. None of the Above

A

Ethmoid

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74
Q

Damage to the Temporal bone would most likely affect which sense?

a. Sight
b. Taste
c. Smell
d. Hearing
e. Touch

A

Hearing

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75
Q

Which is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?

a. Scapula
b. Sacrum
c. Femur
d. Humerus
e. Pelvis

A

Sacrum

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76
Q

The pectoral girdle contains what bones?( answer all that apply)

a. Clavicle
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Scapula
e. Ulna

A

Clavicle

Scapula

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77
Q

What is the only boney connection for the upper extremity to the axial skeleton?

a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Costoclavicular joint
c. Scapuloverebral joint
d. Scapulohumeral joint
e. Acromioclavicular joint

A

Sternoclavicular joint

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78
Q

What is the name of the short bone of the wrist that most commonly fractures?

a. Pisiform
b. Lunate
c. Cuneiform
d. Scaphoid
e. Hamate

A

Scaphoid

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79
Q

When you put your elbows on the table, what bone are you resting on?

a. Humerus
b. Ulna
c. Scapula
d. Metacarpal
e. None of the above

A

Ulna

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80
Q

What is the largest and strongest bone of the human body?

a. Humerus
b. Nasal
c. Femur
d. Patella
e. Pelvis

A

Femur

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81
Q

An immovable joint is called?

a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
d. Syndesmosis
e. Symphysis

A

Synarthrosis

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82
Q

Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to an

a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synostosis
d. Synchondrosis
e. Gomphosis

A

Gomphosis

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83
Q

A synovial joint is an example of an

a. Synarthrosis
b. Amphiarthrosis
c. Diarthrosis
d. Freely moveable joint
e. Two of the above

A

Two of the above

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84
Q

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?

a. Shock absorption
b. Increases osmotic pressure within joint
c. Lubrication
d. Provides nutrients
e. Protects articular cartilages

A

Increases osmotic pressure within joint

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85
Q

In a monoaxial articulation

a. Movement can occur in all three axes
b. Movement can occur in only two axes
c. Movement can occur in only one axis
d. Only circumduction is possible
e. No movement is possible

A

Movement can occur in only one axis

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86
Q

Triaxial joints are known as ____________ joints.

a. Saddle
b. Hinge
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Ball and socket
e. Gliding

A

Ball and socket

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87
Q

The radiocarpal joint is an ________________ joint

a. Ball and socket
b. Hinge
c. Gliding
d. Saddle
e. Ellipsoidal

A

Ellipsoidal

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88
Q

In regards to joint stability what is the correct relationship?

a. Weaker joint, less movement
b. Stronger joint, less movement
c. Weaker joint, more movement
d. Stronger joint, more movement
e. Two of the above

A

Two of the above

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89
Q

Due to the inflexibility of our skeleton, motion can only occur where?

a. Synarthroses
b. Joints
c. Amphiarthroses
d. Articulations
e. Both b and d

A

Both b and d

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90
Q

The joints that are subject to the greatest forces would be found in the

a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Hands
d. Spine
e. Skull

A

Legs

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91
Q

Which is not a function of skeletal muscle?

a. Produce movement
b. Maintain posture
c. Maintain body temperature
d. support soft tissues
e. all the above are correct

A

all the above are correct

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92
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones.
b. Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts.
c. Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system
d. Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs.
e. Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature

A

Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system

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93
Q

The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscles is the

a. Tendon
b. Epimysium
c. Endomysium
d. Perimysium
e. Fascicle

A

Epimysium

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94
Q

Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the layer that surrounds the fasciles. What is that layer called?

a. Endomysium
b. Perimysium
c. Sarcolemma
d. Sarcomere
e. Myofibril

A

Perimysium

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95
Q

The continuation of the three layers of collagen fibers that separate the muscle layers and attaches to bones is called what?

a. Tendon
b. Fascicle
c. Ligament
d. Epimysium
e. Myofibril

A

Tendon

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96
Q

The cell membrane of a skeletal muscle is called the

a. Sarcomere
b. Sarcosome
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Sarcoplasm
e. Sarcolemma

A

Sarcolemma

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97
Q

The functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the

a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcomere
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Myofibril
e. Myofilament

A

Sarcomere

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98
Q

A series of tubules that are invaginations of the muscle cell membrane and transport the action potential is called what?

a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Myolemma
d. Transverse tubule
e. Sarcoplasm

A

Transverse tubule

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99
Q

Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for

a. Muscle fatigue
b. Conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber
c. Muscle contraction
d. Muscle relaxation
e. C and D

A

C and D

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100
Q

The thin filaments are attached at end of the sarcomere to which of the following?

a. Z line
b. M line
c. Zone of overlap
d. H band
e. I band

A

Z line

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101
Q

The thick filament contains all of the following components except?

a. Actin
b. Troponin
c. Myosin
d. Tropomyosin
e. G- actin

A

Myosin

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102
Q

The action of a muscle contraction occurs in the sarcomere at which location?

a. Zone of overlap
b. M line
c. Z line
d. Titin
e. None of the above

A

Zone of overlap

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103
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores what?

a. Oxygen
b. Glycogen
c. ATP
d. Calcium
e. Sodium

A

Calcium

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104
Q

What is the name of the theory that explains muscle contractions

a. Gliding Filament
b. Ratcheting filament
c. Rotating filament
d. Spinning filament
e. Sliding filament

A

Sliding filament

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105
Q

Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single junction, the space in that junction is called what?

a. Synaptic knob
b. Neuromuscular junction
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Sarcomere
e. Transverse tubule

A

Synaptic cleft

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106
Q

Binding sites on the actin become available when

a. Actin binds to troponin
b. Troponin binds to tropomyosin
c. tropomyosin changes positions
d. Myosin binds to troponin
e. None of the above

A

tropomyosin changes positions

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107
Q

In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Sodium ions
c. Hydrogen ions
d. ATP
e. Calcium ions

A

Calcium ions

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108
Q

When calcium ions binds to troponin,

a. Tropomyosin rotates out of the way
b. Active sites on the myosin are exposed
c. Actin heads will bind to myosin
d. Muscle relaxation occurs
e. Muosin shortens

A

Tropomyosin rotates out of the way

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109
Q

Which ion is outside the muscle cell that starts the action potential down the T tubules.

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
e. ATP

A

Sodium

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110
Q

Stimulation Sequence
A stimulus is started by the _______ cell The neurotransmitter _____________ is released
The neurotransmitter binds to the _______ ________ enters the cell and travels down the T-Tubule.
a. acetylcholine
b. motor end plate
c. sodium
d. nerve

A

nerve
ACh
motor end plate
sodium

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111
Q

Contraction Sequence

Sodium travels down the ___________. Terminal Cisternae release ________ into the muscle cell.
Ca+ binds to ____________. ____________ gets rotated to uncover the binding sites on actin.
Actin then can bind with ___________. _______ breaks the cross bridge a. troponin
b. myosin
c. T- tubule
d. ATP
e. Calcium
ab. Tropomyosin

A 
T- tubule
 Calcium
 troponin
 Tropomyosin
 myosin
ATP
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112
Q

A type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence is termed?

a. Twitch
b. Incomplete tetanus
c. Complete tetanus
d. Summation
e. Incomplete summation

A

Twitch

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113
Q

If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction can occur. This is called

a. Incomplete tetanus
b. Complete tetanus
c. Treppe
d. Wave summation
e. Recruitment

A

Wave summation

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114
Q

The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension and shortens is called.

a. Tetany
b. Treppe
c. Concentric
d. Isotonic
e. Isometric

A

Concentric

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115
Q

When flexing the bicep muscle, while the muscle is legthening, this type of contraction is termed what?

a. Concentric
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Wave summation
e. Treppe

A

Eccentric

116
Q

At maximum exersion, the muscle generates most of its ATP by which process?

a. Anaerobic respiration
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Aerobic respiration
d. Conversion of creatine phosphate
e. The tricarboxylic acid cycle

A

Anaerobic respiration

117
Q

Creatine phosphate

a. Is produced by process of anaerobic respiration
b. Can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
c. Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
d. Is only formed during strenuous exercise
e. Can not transfer its phosphate group to ATP

A

Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue

118
Q

During activities requiring aerobic endurance

a. Oxygen debts are common
b. Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria
c. Fatigue occurs in a few minutes
d. Oxygen is not required
e. Glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of energy

A

Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria

119
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of muscle fatigue?

a. Depletion of metabolic reserves
b. Damage to the sarcolemma
c. Decline in pH within the muscle fibers
d. increased lactic acid titer
e. all of the above are causes

A

all of the above are causes

120
Q

Which is true about a slow fiber?

a. Red- contains myoglobin
b. Anaerobic
c. Fatigue Slow
d. Small diameter
e. None of the above

A

Anaerobic

121
Q

Which is true about fast fibers?

a. White – do not contain myoglobin
b. Aerobic
c. Small diameter
d. Slow fatique
e. None of the above

A

White – do not contain myoglobin

122
Q

Which of the following is false

a. Cardiac muscle contractions cannot be summated
b. Skeletal muscle contractions may be summated
c. Skeletal muscle control is neural
d. Cardiac muscle control is neural
e. Cardiocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs

A

Cardiac muscle control is neural

123
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscle?

a. Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.
b. Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
c. Smooth muscles are uninucleated.
d. Smooth muscles don not contain sarcomeres.
e. The thin filaments of smooth muscle fivers are attached to dense bodies.

A

Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.

124
Q

Which is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle?

a. Automaticity- pacemaker
b. Responds to nervous system to quicken pace or slow
c. Contractions last longer than skeletal
d. No wave summation
e. all of the following are true

A

all of the following are true

125
Q

Which of the following muscles is a good example of a bipennate muscle?

a. Sartorius
b. Gracillis
c. Rectus Femoris
d. Pectoralis Major
e. Deltoid

A

Rectus Femoris

126
Q

Which is an example of a second class lever?

a. Raising up on your toes
b. Flexing your elbow
c. Extending your elbow
d. Nodding your head
e. None of the above

A

Raising up on your toes

127
Q

A first class lever is organized how?

a. Resistance, fulcrum, force
b. Fulcrum, resistance, force
c. Force, resistance, fulcrum
d. Resistance, force, fulcrum
e. None of the above

A

Resistance, fulcrum, force

128
Q

An example of a third class lever is what?

a. Nodding your head
b. Raising up on your toes
c. Flexing your elbow
d. Blinking
e. None of the above

A

Flexing your elbow

129
Q

A muscle with the name Brachii would have an attachment site in which area

A

upper arm

130
Q

a muscle w the name cervicis would have an attachment site in wh area

A

cervical spine

131
Q

when putting on lipstick, what muscle would be good to contract

A

obicularis oris

132
Q

muscles whose fibers run parallel to the sagital plane of the body are termed

A

rectus

133
Q

wh of the following terms would not be a muscle naming for size

A

all are size names

134
Q

a muscle that stabilazes the wrist during forearm flexion would be demonstrating the role of wh term

A

fixator

135
Q

wh of the following muscles compresses the abdominal cavity?

a. rectus abdominus
b. transverse abdominus
c. diaphragm
d. external oblique
e. all but C

A

all but C

136
Q

the invagination of the sarcolemma through the muscle fiber is called what?

A

transverse tubule

137
Q

if you were hit in the rectus abdominus muscle, what would your body position change to?

A

doubling over in flexion

138
Q

which of the following muscles is not self antagonistic?

a. pectoralis major
b. trapezius
c. deltoid
d. flexor digitorum superficialis

A

flexor digitorum superficialis

139
Q

what would be the result of a drug that blocks the ACh receptors?

A

muscle contraction would not occur

140
Q

in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the H-zone?

A

thick filaments

141
Q

in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the zone of overlap

A

both thick and thin

142
Q

which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization?

A

divergent

143
Q

which of the following is true regarding the muscles of the head and neck functions?

a. nonverbal communication
b. controlling the eyes
c. controlling the mouth
d. all the above
e. A and C only

A

all the above

144
Q

synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron containing neurotransmitters are released by this method when the action potential arrives?

A

exocytosis

145
Q

wh of the following situations would result in increased oxygen utilization by the muscle?

a. increased heat production
b. increased conversion of pyruvic acid to ATP
c. increased muscle contraction
d. increased aerobic respiration
e. all the above

A

all the above

146
Q

wh of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension?

A

motor unit of the chest

147
Q

the ability of a smooth muscle cell to function over a wide range of lengths producing the same tension is termed what?

A

plasticity

148
Q 
wh of the following is not correct regarding cardiac muscle?
a. it cannot wave summate
b. it has triads
c. it has an extended contraction time
d. it has automaticity
it has wide T tubles
A

it has triads

149
Q

during the Cori cycle, the liver converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid and then into glucose under anaerobic metabolism.
T of F

A

false

150
Q

The basic functional unit of the nervous system is which of the following?

a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia

A

Neuron

151
Q

What is the name of the supporting cells that separate and protect the nervous system cells?

a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia

A

Neuroglia

152
Q

This area of the nervous system contains the Brain and Spinal cord?

a. Peripheral
b. Efferent
c. Central
d. Afferent
e. Motor

A

Central

153
Q

The Peripheral Nervous system contains what?

a. Brain and spinal cord
b. Cranial and Spinal nerves
c. Afferent only
d. Efferent only
e. Autonomic only

A

Cranial and Spinal nerves

154
Q

Which division of the nervous system is directly tied to motor information? Choose the best answer.

a. Efferent
b. Sensory
c. Visceral
d. Afferent
e. None of the above

A

Efferent

155
Q

If you want to move your muscles which division has the most control over muscle stimulation?

a. Efferent, visceral
b. Afferent, visceral
c. Efferent, autonomic
d. Afferent, motor
e. Efferent, somatic

A

Efferent, somatic

156
Q

In the autonomic nervous system, which of the following is more concerned with saving energy?

a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Efferent
d. Motor
e. None of the above

A

Parasympathetic

157
Q

Which nerve type is mostly sensory in the Peripheral nervous system?

a. Anaxonic
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Multipolar
e. None of the above

A

Unipolar

158
Q

Which type of sensory fibers monitors temperature or pressure in organs?

a. Proprioceptors
b. Interoceptors
c. Exteroceptors
d. Motor efferent
e. None of the above

A

Interoceptors

159
Q

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the blood-brain barrier?

a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Schwann’s cells
e. Satellite cells

A

Astrocytes

160
Q

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the PNS?

a. Astrocytes
b. Schwann’s cells
c. Satellite cells
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microglia

A

Schwann’s cells

161
Q

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the CNS?

a. Schwann’s cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Satellite Cells
d. Microglia
e. Ependymal cells

A

Oligodendrocytes

162
Q

In the nervous tissue, an electrical stimulation can be surmised by the following statement in relation to the what is happening in the nerve cell to depolarize and repolarize?

a. Sodium out/ potassium in
b. Sodium in/ potassium out
c. Sodium in/ Chloride in
d. Potassium and sodium in
e. None of the above

A

Sodium in/ potassium out

163
Q

What is the resting potential charge of a nerve cell?

a. -90
b. -55
c. -70
d. +30
e. 0

A

-70

164
Q

In the all or nothing principle which of the following charges would result in an action potential?

a. -65
b. -70
c. -90
d. -50
e. -120

A

-50

165
Q

With regard to action potential propagation, which of the following statements is true?

a. Action potentials begin by sodium gates closing and potassium gates opening
b. Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.
c. Action potentials begin at the dendrites of the cell body and travel down to the next cell
d. Action potentials are possible when a nerve is at -90mV
e. None of the above is true.

A

Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.

166
Q

An action potential moving down from node to node in skipping fashion is termed what?

a. Saltatory
b. Station to station
c. Continuous
d. Localized
e. None of the above

A

Saltatory

167
Q

Which of the following propagation methods is the slowest?

a. Saltatory
b. Station to Station
c. Continuous
d. None of the above

A

Continuous

168
Q

Which of the following fiber types is the fastest at transmitting action potentials?

a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F

A

Type A

169
Q

Which of the following transmits slow pain and has the smallest diameter?

a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F

A

Type C

170
Q

What is the most common neurotransmitter in the human body?

a. Epinepherine
b. Dopamine
c. Acytelcholine
d. Seratonin
e. L-transferase

A

Acytelcholine

171
Q

Which type of synapse passes its action potential by direct contact?

a. Chemical synapse
b. Acytelcholine synapse
c. Dopamine synapse
d. Electrical synapse
e. All of the above

A

Electrical synapse

172
Q

What is the order of the cranial meninges from external to internal?

a. Dura, pia, arachnoid
b. Pia, dura arachnoid
c. Dura, arachnoid, pia
d. Arachnoid, dura, pia
e. Pia, arachnoid, dura

A

Dura, arachnoid, pia

173
Q

Which is not a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?

a. Cushioning delicate structures
b. Supporting the brain
c. Transporting nutrients
d. Transporting waste products
e. All of the above are functions

A

All of the above are functions

174
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid is made which structures?

a. Choroid Plexus
b. Fourth and fifth ventricles
c. Fourth and Central canal
d. Subarachnoid spaces
e. None of the above

A

Choroid Plexus

175
Q

Which of the following is the connection point for the brain and the spinal cord?

a. Pons
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebrum
d. Limbic
e. Medulla Oblongata

A

Medulla Oblongata

176
Q

The pons holds sites for which of the following?

a. Cranial nerves V,VI,VII,VIII
b. Adjustments to the respiratory centers of the Medulla
c. Relay centers for the cerebellum
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

177
Q

The medulla oblongata controls which of the following?

a. Cardiac and respiratory
b. Cardiac and urinary
c. Respiratory and urinary
d. Hunger
e. Emotional distress

A

Cardiac and respiratory

178
Q

Which of the following is the most important part of the brain for coordination of body movements?

a. Cerebrum
b. Pons
c. Medulla
d. Cerebellum
e. Hypothalamus

A

Cerebellum

179
Q

What section of the brain produces the chemical that helps to regulate day and night cycles and reproductive functions?

a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Pons
d. Medulla
e. Pineal Gland

A

Pineal Gland

180
Q

Which of the following areas is the primary relay station for sensory information to the basal nuclei and cerebral cortex?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Pons
c. Thalamus
d. Medulla
e. Cerebrum

A

Thalamus

181
Q

The hypothalamus does not control which of the following?

a. Feeding reflexes
b. Controls the pituitary gland
c. Secretes AntiDiuretic Hormone
d. Secretes Oxcytocin
e. Formation of voluntary somatic movement

A

Formation of voluntary somatic movement

182
Q

Which of the following does the Limbic system not control?

a. Emotional states
b. Memory storage and retrieval
c. Linking conscious movements to unconscious autonomic functions
d. All are functions of the Limbic System

A

All are functions of the Limbic System

183
Q

The cerebrum is broken up into how many named lobes?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

4

184
Q

If a person has a cerebral stroke on the left side, which muscular side of the face will be affected?

a. Right side
b. Contralateral side
c. Left side
d. Dorsal side
e. None of the above would be affected

A

Left side

185
Q

Which lobe of the cerebrum holds the pre-motor cortex for formation of muscular movements?

a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
e. Ethmoidal lobe

A

Frontal lobe

186
Q

Most afferent information from the thalamus gets distributed to which of the following areas?

a. Precentral gyrus
b. Postcentral gyrus
c. Occipital
d. Temporal
e. All of the above

A

Postcentral gyrus

187
Q

Which wave pattern occurs in normal, healthy, awake adults?

a. Beta waves
b. Theta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Alpha waves
e. Gamma waves

A

Alpha waves

188
Q

Which cranial nerve is primarily a sensory only nerve?

a. VII
b. XII
c. II
d. X
e. III

A

II

189
Q

What is the name of the cranial nerve that controls tongue wrestling?

a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal

A

Hypoglossal

190
Q

Which cranial nerve is the largest and controls the muscles of mastication?

a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal

A

Trigeminal

191
Q

The dorsal root ganglion is made up of what structures?

a. Cell bodies
b. Axons
c. Dendrites
d. Synaptic clefts
e. None of the above

A

Cell bodies

192
Q

The end of the spinal cord is called what? Means horse’s tail

a. Filum Terminalle
b. Spinothalamic Tract
c. Pia Matter
d. Conus Medularis
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

193
Q

What are the two enlargements in the spinal cord?

a. Thoracic and Cervical
b. Cervical and Lumbar
c. Thoracic and Lumbar
d. Sacral and Lumbar
e. None of the above

A

Cervical and Lumbar

194
Q

The dorsal roots carry what type of information?

a. Motor
b. Efferent
c. Sensory
d. Transudent
e. None of the above

A

Sensory

195
Q

What is the order of the spinal meningies?

a. Pia, Dura, Arachnoid
b. Arachnoid, Pia, Dura
c. Dura, Pia, Arachnoid
d. Dura, Arachnoid, Pia
e. Pia, Matter, Arachnoid

A

Dura, Arachnoid, Pia

196
Q

Which space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?

a. Subarachnoid space
b. Subpia space
c. Subdural space
d. Epidural space
e. None of the above

A

Subarachnoid space

197
Q

The spinal meningies and the cranial meningies are the same?

a. True
b. False

A

True

198
Q

In the gray matter, what is the area that carries somatic and visceral sensory information?

a. Anterior horn
b. Lateral horn
c. Posterior horn
d. Anterolateral column
e. None of the above

A

Posterior horn

199
Q

The gray commisure has what function?

a. Crossover spot for information
b. Projects information up the spinal cord
c. Sends information out the spinal cord
d. Has no function
e. Is located in the brain

A

Crossover spot for information

200
Q

The white matter is made up of ascending and descending tracts.

a. True
b. False

A

True

201
Q

Which of the following is part of the organization of the white matter in the spinal cord?

a. Anterior Column
b. Posterior Column
c. Lateral Column
d. Anterior white commisure
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

202
Q

What is the part of the nerve covering that separates the bundles of nerve fibers?

a. Perineurium
b. Epineurium
c. Endoneurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above

A

Perineurium

203
Q

Which level is not penetrated by blood vessels?

a. Epineurium
b. Endoneurium
c. Perineurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above

A

Endoneurium

204
Q

Dorsal rami innervate which parts of the body?

a. Posterior wall
b. limbs
c. organs
d. Anterior wall
e. None of the above

A

Posterior wall

205
Q

What does the union of the ventral and dorsal roots form?

a. Cranial nerves
b. Sympathetic nerves
c. Parasympathetic nerves
d. Spinal nerves
e. None of the above

A

Spinal nerves

206
Q

What nerve supplies the diaphragm?

a. Sciatic
b. Brachial
c. Phrenic
d. Ulnar
e. None of the above

A

Phrenic

207
Q

The brachial plexus is made up of what spinal levels?

a. C1-C5
b. C5-T1
c. T2-T6
d. L1-L5
e. L5-S2

A

C5-T1

208
Q

What is the largest nerve in the body?

a. Musculocutaneous
b. Axial
c. Obturator
d. Sciatic
e. None of the above

A

Sciatic

209
Q

How many trunks are located in the Brachial Plexus?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 6
e. 3

A

3

210
Q

Which plexus supplies the arms?

a. Cervical
b. Brachial
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
e. None of the above

A

Brachial

211
Q

In a reverberation neuronal pool, what is the importance?

a. Negative feedback system
b. Straight line information
c. Weakening of the stimulation
d. Positive feedback system
e. All of the above

A

Positive feedback system

212
Q

Which statement is not part of a reflex arc?

a. Arrival of stimulus
b. Activation of a Sensory neuron
c. Information processing
d. Activation of a Motor neuron
e. Effector response of a peripheral sensor

A

Effector response of a peripheral sensor

213
Q

Which type of reflex arc are you born with?

a. Acquired
b. Innate
c. Skill
d. Repetitive
e. None of the above

A

Innate

214
Q

What type of reflex requires an interneuron?

a. Monosynaptic
b. Visceral
c. Acquired
d. Polysynaptic
e. None of the above

A

Polysynaptic

215
Q

What is an example of a monosynaptic reflex?

a. Stretch
b. Withdrawal
c. Tendon
d. Flexor
e. None of the above

A

Stretch

216
Q

Which is not an example of a general characteristic of polysynaptic reflexes?

a. Involves pools of interneurons
b. They involve reciprocal inhibition
c. They have reverberating circuits
d. Several reflexes may cooperate to produce a coordinated response
e. All of the above are correct

A

All of the above are correct

217
Q

The conscious awareness of a sensation is called what?

a. Sensationalism
b. Equilibrium
c. Olfaction
d. Perception
e. Interception

A

Perception

218
Q

Which is not a mechanoreceptor?

a. Nocioceptor
b. Tactile
c. Baroreceptor
d. Proprioceptor
e. Lamellated corpuscle

A

Nocioceptor

219
Q

Muscular pain is considered a slow achy burning pain. Which type of pain fiber will carry this information to the CNS?

a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
e. None of the above

A

Type C

220
Q

Thermoreceptors carry what type of information?

a. Light touch
b. Pressure
c. Muscle length
d. Temperature
e. None of the above

A

Temperature

221
Q

Which neuron will take the information up the spinal cord if the tract crosses at the Spinal level?

a. First order
b. Second order
c. Third order
d. Fourth order
e. None of the above

A

Second order

222
Q

Which of the somatic tracts crosses at the level of the medulla oblongata?

a. Spinocellebelar column
b. Anterolateral column
c. Posterior column
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

Posterior column

223
Q

A person having a heart attack feels pain down the left arm and shoulder. This is because which column is being affected?

a. Spinocellebelar
b. Lateral Spinothalamic
c. Posterior column
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Lateral Spinothalamic

224
Q

Dorsal roots of T1-L2 and S2-S4 pass through which tract?

a. Posteriorolateral
b. Spinorubrio
c. Spinothalamic
d. Anterolateral
e. All of the above

A

Spinothalamic

225
Q

Lower motor neurons cell bodies are found in which part of the body?

a. Spinal cord
b. Cerebrum
c. Brain stem
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above

A

Two of the above

226
Q

Which pathway is responsible for gross motor movement of the neck, trunk, and proximal limbs?

a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Corticospinal
d. Corticocellebelar
e. None of the above

A

Medial

227
Q

The sympathetic division of the ANS arises from which area?

a. Thoracolumbar
b. Cervicosacral
c. Thoracosacral
d. Cervicolumbar
e. None of the above

A

Thoracolumbar

228
Q

The sympathetic division is responsible of doing what to somatic activity?

a. Lowering
b. Destroying
c. Increasing
d. Absolutely nothing
e. Maintaining current levels

A

Increasing

229
Q

Nor epinephrine is used as the postganglionic neurotransmitter, what is used as the preganglionic neurotransmitter?

a. Nor epinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Oxytocin
d. Acetylcholine
e. Transmitophine

A

Acetylcholine

230
Q

Which is not an occurrence of sympathetic activation?

a. Increased alertness
b. Feeling of energy and euphoria
c. Increased cardiovascular and breathing
d. Increased urination
e. Mobilization of energy reserves

A

Increased urination

231
Q

Preganglionic fibers travel fast in the CNS. What is special about these fibers?

a. They are myelinated
b. They are unmyelinated
c. They are polysynaptic
d. There is nothing special about them

A

They are myelinated

232
Q

Parasympathetic activity increasing does which of the following?

a. Conserves energy
b. Is a couch potatoe
c. Is responsible for rest and response
d. Stores energy
e. All are actions of increased stimulation

A

All are actions of increased stimulation

233
Q

The parasympathetic division is also called what?

a. Craniosacral
b. Thoracolumbar
c. Hyperactive
d. ADD
e. None of the above

A

Craniosacral

234
Q

Where do most of the parasympathetic nerve fibers run in?

a. Cranial nerves
b. Lumbar nerves
c. Intercostal nerves
d. None of the above

A

Cranial nerves

235
Q

In regards to dual ineurvation on organs please answer which division is in charge with the following actions. A. sympathetic B. Parasympathetic

  1. Decrease in blood pressure.
  2. Increase in absorption of the digestive system.
  3. Increased glandular secretion and ejaculation.
A

B
B
A

236
Q

Which is not a functional characteristic of Higher-Order functions?

a. Not part of the programmed brain
b. Modification and adjustments may be made over time
c. Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.
d. The cerebral cortex is required
e. Involves both conscious and unconscious information processing

A

Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.

237
Q

What term do we use for smell?

a. Equilibrium
b. Auditory
c. Vestibularcochlear
d. Olfaction
e. None of the above

A

Olfaction

238
Q

How many olfactory organs are there?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

A

Two

239
Q

What does the olfactory epithelium contain?

a. Basal cells
b. Receptor cells
c. Olfactory glands
d. Supporting cells
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

240
Q

Glands that produce thick, pigmented mucus capable of absorbing water are called?

a. Bowman’s glands
b. Stem cells
c. Supporting cells
d. Olfactory receptor cells
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

241
Q

What is the functional component of the olfactory receptor cell?

a. Supporting cell
b. Mucous
c. Olfactory cilia
d. Olfactory gland

A

Olfactory cilia

242
Q

We can easily detect at least 50 smells, these are called what?

a. Tertiary smells
b. Secondary smells
c. Primary smells
d. Stinky smells
e. Odor

A

Primary smells

243
Q

What is the common name for gustation receptors?

a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Utricle
d. Taste
e. None of the above

A

Taste

244
Q

Which is not a form of lingual papillae?

a. Filiform
b. Myleform
c. Fungiform
d. Circumvallate

A

Myleform

245
Q

Humans have two other taste sensations, please identify them?( pick two)

a. Water
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Acid
d. Base
e. Umami

A

Water

Umami

246
Q

Which is not a function of the accessory structures of the eye?

     a. Opening for light
             b. Production of tears
             c. Secretion of tears
             d. Removal material
A

Opening for light

247
Q

What is the name of the mucous membrane that covers the eye?

a. Lacrimal layer
b. Conjunctiva
c. Lateral canthus
d. Pupil
e. None of the above

A

Conjunctiva

248
Q

Which is not a part of the Lacrimal apparatus to keep the eye moist and clean?

a. Gland
b. Canaliculi
c. Sac
d. Nasolacrimal duct
e. All are parts of the apparatus

A

All are parts of the apparatus

249
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the fibrous tunic?

a. Mechanical support
b. Attachment site for extrinsic muscles
c. Detection of light
d. Focusing process assistance
e. None of the above

A

Detection of light

250
Q

Which is not a function of the vascular tunic?

a. Route for blood vessels
b. Regulating amount of light
c. Secreting vitreous humor
d. Controlling shape of lens
e. Includes the iris, ciliary body, and the choroids

A

Secreting vitreous humor

251
Q

What are the names for the specialized cells called photoreceptors?

a. Rods and cones
b. Rods and staffs
c. Staffs and cones
d. Peanuts, popcorn, and cracker jacks

A

Rods and cones

252
Q

Which is not a step in photoreception?

a. Opsin is activated
b. Cyclic –GMP levels decrease
c. Activation of transducin
d. Dark current is increased
e. Rate of neurotransmitter declines

A

Dark current is increased

253
Q

Light rays that strike the retina of the human eye project an inverted image because the:

a. Photoreceptor cells face the posterior wall of the eye
b. Lack of photoreceptors at the blind spot distorts the image
c. Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image
d. Vitreous humor is a distorting medium
e. Light is refracted as it passes through the lens

A

Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image

254
Q

Hearing is a result of vibratory sensations transmitted by which of the following parts?

a. Tympanic membrane
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Oval window
d. Cochlea
e. All are parts of the pathway

A

All are parts of the pathway

255
Q

Which part of the cochlea is affected by a bass singer?

a. Initial part
b. Middle part
c. Innermost part
d. All over

A

All over

256
Q

The receptors for static and dynamic equilibrium are located in the .

a. Auditory canal and tympanic membrane
b. Round and oval windows
c. Cochlea and scala media
d. Semicircular canals and vestibule
e. Middle ear ossicles

A

Semicircular canals and vestibule

257
Q

Which is not a part of the equilibrium function of the ear?

a. Semicircular ducts
b. Vestibule
c. Saccule
d. Utricle
e. Endolymphatic duct

A

Endolymphatic duct

258
Q

Which is not a form of intercellular communication?

a. Direct
b. Paracrine
c. Endocrine
d. Synaptic
e. All are forms of communication

A

All are forms of communication

259
Q

One of the endocrine glands develops within the sympathetic nervous system during embryological development. What endocrine gland might this be.

a. Pancreas
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Thymus
e. Neurohypophysis

A

Anterior pituitary

260
Q

Hormones released in the neurohypophysis are produced by neurons in the:

a. Adrenal medulla
b. Spinal cord
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Red nucleus
e. Hypothalamus

A

Hypothalamus

261
Q

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Heart
e. Pons

A

Pons

262
Q

Hormones thyroxine and ADH are produced from precursor molecules of

a. Fats
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Glycerol
e. Carbohydrates

A

Amino acids

263
Q

Which of the following is a true protein?

a. FSH
b. Epinephrine
c. Thyroxine
d. Oxytocin
e. Progesterone

A

Oxytocin

264
Q

The adenohypophysis hormone that directly is involved in the stress response is what?

a. FSH
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. ACTH
e. TSH

A

TSH

265
Q

What is the target tissue for prolactin?

a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Mammary glands
d. Gonads
e. Adrenal cortex

A

Mammary glands

266
Q

Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) can lead to which of the following?

a. More absorption of Ca++ by the small intestine
b. Increased renal reabsorption of Ca++
c. Faster bone deposition
d. Hypercalcemia
e. Stimulation of osteoclast activity

A

Faster bone deposition

267
Q

Steroid hormones are made from a derived form of what molecule?

a. Cholesterol
b. Arachidonic acid
c. Amino acids
d. Tyrosine
e. None of the above

A

Cholesterol

268
Q

Secretions of the adrenal medulla act to increase the effects of which system?

a. Parasympathetic innervation
b. Sympathetic stimulation
c. Vagus nerve activity
d. Reflex controls
e. Neruosecretory substances

A

Sympathetic stimulation

269
Q

Which gland has the most direct control over all other endocrine glands?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue

A

Hypothalamus

270
Q

Which gland secretes seven hormones that all use cAMP as the secondary messenger?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue

A

Anterior pituitary

271
Q

The hypothalamus secreting TRH will result in what hormone being secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. LH
d. TSH
e. PRL

A

TSH

272
Q

The parathyroid gland releases its hormone in direct response to what?

a. Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood
b. High levels of Ca++ ions in blood
c. High levels of Calcitonin
d. Elevated osteoclast activity
e. Two of the above

A

Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood

273
Q

Which gland utilizes Iodine to accelerate the formation of hormones?

a. Parathyroid
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Thyroid
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Pancreas

A

Thyroid

274
Q

Which zone of the adrenal gland has the effects of conserving calcium ions?

a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

275
Q

Which Zona of the adrenal gland has its effects on glucose metabolism?

a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above

A

Fasciculate

276
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of the adrenal medulla?

a. Mobilization of glycogen in muscle
b. Break down of stored fats
c. Glycogen break down in the liver
d. Increase rate and force of cardiac muscle contraction
e. All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine

277
Q

The islets of Langerhans are found in which gland

a. Adipose tissue
b. Heart
c. Adrenal
d. Pancreas
e. Pineal

A

Pancreas

278
Q

Which cell produces the hormone insulin?

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Delta cells
d. F cells
e. None of the above

A

Beta cells

279
Q

What is the name of the hormone most responsible for increasing glucose levels?

a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone
c. Glucagon
d. Melatonin
e. ACTH

A

Glucagon

280
Q

What hormonal gland controls the increase of digestive enzymes through production of secretin?

a. Gonads
b. Intestines
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. Adipose tissue

A

Intestines

281
Q

What body tissue suppresses appetite by affecting the hypothalamus?

a. Adipose tissue
b. Thymus
c. Heart
d. Gonads
e. Pancreas

A

Adipose tissue

282
Q

EPO erythropoietin increases production of red blood cells in response to low levels of oxygen in which gland?

a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestines
e. Heart

A

Kidney

283
Q

Which gland decreases in size as we age?

a. Kidney
b. Intestine
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. No gland decreases in size

A

Thymus

284
Q

Which hormone is most responsible for secondary male sex characteristics?

a. Estrogens
b. Progestins
c. Androgens
d. FSH
e. None of the above

A

Androgens

285
Q

An excessive breakdown of tissue proteins and lipid reserves is a principle sign of overproduction of what hormone group?

a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroxine
c. Estrogens
d. Glucocorticoids
e. Mineralocorticoids

A

Glucocorticoids

A&P 1 (28 decks)

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