final tests Flashcards
1
Q
Histology
A
Study of tissues
2
Q
Avascular
A
Without blood flow
3
Q
Anatomy
A
Study of structure
4
Q
Physiology
A
Study of function
5
Q
Homeostasis
A
Maintaining a constant state
within physiological limits
6
Q
Effector
A
Responds to control center
stimulus
7
Q
Receptor
A
Sensitive to particular environmental
change
8
Q
Negative Feedback System
A
Effector response decreases
stimulus
9
Q
When a person is standing, facing forward, with their arms at their sides, palms turned forward, and feet together; this position is termed what?
a. Prone position
b. Cephalic position
c. Anatomical position
d. Caudal position
e. Under arrest
A
Anatomical position
10
Q
Supine means?
a. Face down
b. Face up
c. Face side
d. Face back
e. None of the above
A
Face up
11
Q
Which quadrant will you most likely find the appendix?
a. Left upper
b. Right upper
c. Left lower
d. Right lower
e. Left lumbar region
A
Right lower
12
Q
The ankle is said to be in what relationship to the hip?
a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Cephalic
d. Dorsal
e. Thoracic
A
Distal
13
Q
The heart is found in which cavity?
a. Dorsal
b. Ventral
c. Thoracic
d. Abdominopelvic
e. Two of the above
A
Two of the above
14
Q
Which plane separates the anterior and posterior parts of the body?
a. Sagital
b. Midsagital
c. Transverse
d. Coronal
e. Oblique
A
Coronal
15
Q
What is the superior border of the abdominopelvic cavity?
a. Pelvic floor
b. Clavicle
c. Diaphragm
d. Rectus abdominis muscle
e. Crainium
A
Diaphragm
16
Q
Which is not one of the four types of tissues?
a. Striated
b. Connective
c. Muscular
d. Neural
e. Epithelial
A
a.Striated
17
Q
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?
a. Control permeability
b. Physical protection
c. Sensation
d. Strength
e. Secretions
A
d.Strength
18
Q
What type of junction holds cells together but allows for communication between cells?
a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Button desmosomes
d. CAM’s
e. Vesicles
A
b.Gap junctions
19
Q
Which of the following is incorrect about the naming of epithelial tissues?
a. Cell shape
b. Layers
c. Attachment to the basal lamina
d. Amount of nuclei
A
d.Amount of nuclei
20
Q
What is the difference between simple glands and compound glands?
a. Type of secretion
b. Shape or glandular tissue
c. Number of ducts
d. None of the above
e. All of the above are correct
A
c.Number of ducts
21
Q
Which method of secretion requires the tissue to constantly be replaced?
a. Merocrine
b. Apocrine
c. Neurocrine
d. Holocrine
e. Burstocrine
A
d.Holocrine
22
Q
Which of the following is a supportive connective tissue?
a. Adipose
b. Bone
c. Loose connective
d. Cartilage
e. Two of the above
A
e.Two of the above
23
Q
Which of the following type of junction ties the epithelial tissue to the basement membrane?
a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. CAMs
e. Vesicles
A
c.Hemidesmosomes
24
Q
Fibroblasts have what function in connective tissue?
a. Produce matrix
b. Absorb matrix
c. Destroy bacteria
d. Store energy
e. None of the above
A
a.Produce matrix
25
Which of the following is an irregular tissue found in organs?
a. Tendon
b. Areolar
c. Reticular
d. Adipose
e. Squamous
c.Reticular
26
Which is not a dense regular tissue?
a. Capsule
b. Tendon
c. Ligament
d. Aponeurosis
a.Capsule
27
What are the types of Cartilage?
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Osseous cartilage
d. Hyaline cartilage
e. A,B, and C
ab. A,B,D
ab.A,B,D
28
Articular cartilage found on the end of bones is composed of what type?
a. Elastic
b. Hyaline
c. Fibro
d. Osseous
e. None of the above
b.Hyaline
29
```
What are the types of muscle tissue?
A. Cardiac B. Rough C. Smooth D. Fascial E. Skeletal
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,E
d. A,C,D
e. A,C,E
```
e. A,C,E
30
Which muscle type is voluntary?
a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
c. Skeletal
d. Rough
e. Fascial
c.Skeletal
31
Which muscle type is non-striated?
a. Rough
b. Smooth
c. Cardiac
d. Skeletal
e. fascial
Smooth
32
Neural tissue is composed of what two types of cells?
a. Neurons and Neuroglia
b. Neurons and Dendrites
c. Neuroglia and Axons
d. Neuroglia and Dendrites
e. Neurons and Axons
Neurons and Neuroglia
33
The other term for bone is what?
a. Chondro
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. Serous
Osseous
34
A mature bone cell is called what?
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocyte
c. Chondrocyte
d. Chondroclast
e. Chondroblasts
Osteocyte
35
Why does cartilage heal slowly?
a. It is Avascular
b. It is all matrix without cells when mature
c. It doesn’t heal slowly
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
It is Avascular
36
The integumentary system in composed of what parts?
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous
d. Accessory structures
e. All but C
All but C
37
What are the functions of the Integumentary System?
a. Protection
b. Excretion
c. Insulation of Heat
d. Storage of energy
e. All of the above
All of the above
38
What layer of skin is the difference in thick and thin skin?
a. Stratum Germinativum
b. Stratum Spinosum
c. Stratum Lucidum
d. Stratum Granulosum
e. Stratum Corneum
Stratum Lucidum
39
The outermost layer of skin cells have undergone keratinization and are dead.
a. True
b. False
True
40
Melanocytes are the cells that produce the brown to black skin coloration. The color of skin depends on the amount of Melanin not the number of cytes produced.
a. True
b. False
True
41
One layer in the dermis is called the papillary layer, what is the other?
a. Calcitiol
b. Reticular
c. Carotene
d. Cyanosis
e. None of the above
Reticular
42
Which layer of the skin is not vascularized?
a. Dermis
b. Papillary
c. Epidermis
d. Reticular
e. Carotene
Epidermis
43
Hair has two types, name the two (color in the two correct ovals).
a. Vellus
b. Sebaceous
c. Sudoriferous
d. Terminal
e. Apocrine
Vellus
| Terminal
44
Where is a nail formed?
a. Hyponychium
b. Lunula
c. Nail root
d. Eponychium
e. Free edge
Nail root
45
The hairs and nails are formed in the dermis of the skin layers and pierce thru the epidermis layers.
a. True
b. False
True
46
What is the name of the muscle associated with the hair follicle?
a. Semishaftoseous
b. Root erector
c. Cuticletitis
d. Arrector pili
e. Follicle pili
Arrector pili
47
Hair is not found on which type of skin?
a. Thin
b. Thick
c. Human
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
Thick
48
Another term for bone is which of the following?
a. Chondral
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. None of the above
Osseous
49
Which is not a function of bone?
a. Support
b. Storage of minerals
c. Protection
d. Blood cell production
e. All of the above are functions
All of the above are functions
50
Which type of bone is described by the following? Thin, roughly parallel surfaces and contain red blood cells.
a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid
Flat
51
A metacarpal is what type of bone?
a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid
Long
52
Which bone is a sesamoid bone?
a. Femur
b. Hyoid
c. Patella
d. Calcaneous
e. Ethmoid
Patella
53
Osteoclast
ad.Bone cell that breaksdown bone
54
Trochanter
A large rough projection
55
Head
expanded articular end of an epiphysis
56
Osteoblast
b. bone forming cell
57
Foramen
rounded passageway for blood vessel
58
Tubercle
a small, rounded projection
59
Spine
a pointed process
60
Osteocyte
Mature bone cell
61
What type of bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and makes it easier for muscles to move the bones?
a. Short
b. Irregular
c. Spongy
d. Seasamoid
e. Compact
Spongy
62
Calcification is the deposition of calcium salts, and occurs during the process of ossification.
a. True
b. False
True
63
In which step of endochondral ossification does remodeling of the bone occur primarily?
a. Step 1, cartilage enlargement
b. Step 2, blood vessel formation around edges
c. Step 3, blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and central region
d. Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation
e. All of the above
Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation
64
What is the name of the cartilage on the ends of bones in the joints?
a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal
Articular
65
Which cartilage allows the bone to grow in length (interstitial)?
a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal
Epiphyseal
66
While on a school skiing trip, Jessica falls and breaks her femur. What would you expect to find as part of her nursing assessment several hours after the fall?
a. Hypertension
b. Tachycardia
c. Erythema
d. Hemotoma
e. Cyanosis
Hemotoma
67
Which is not part of the axial division of the skeleton?
a. Skull
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Pectoral girdle
d. Hyoid bone
e. Vertebral column
Pectoral girdle
68
Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
a. Provides an attachment for muscles that move in appendicular skeleton
b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, and neck
c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
All of the above
69
The foramen magnum would be found in which bone?
a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Parietal
d. Temporal
e. Occipital
Occipital
70
The suture that forms the articulation between the two parietal bones is called?
a. Lambdoidal
b. Sagital
c. Coronal
d. Squamos
e. None of the above
Sagital
71
Which of the following is not part of the eye orbit?
a. Lacrimal
b. Sphenoid
c. Nasal
d. Ethmoid
e. Maxilla
Nasal
72
What is the name of the bone that has no articulations with other bones?
a. Hyoid
b. Inferior nasal concha
c. Scapula
d. Patella
e. None of the above
Hyoid
73
Which bone holds the Cribiform plate for the Olfactory Nerve?
a. Temporal
b. Frontal
c. Ethmoid
d. Sphenoid
e. None of the Above
Ethmoid
74
Damage to the Temporal bone would most likely affect which sense?
a. Sight
b. Taste
c. Smell
d. Hearing
e. Touch
Hearing
75
Which is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?
a. Scapula
b. Sacrum
c. Femur
d. Humerus
e. Pelvis
Sacrum
76
The pectoral girdle contains what bones?( answer all that apply)
a. Clavicle
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Scapula
e. Ulna
Clavicle
| Scapula
77
What is the only boney connection for the upper extremity to the axial skeleton?
a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Costoclavicular joint
c. Scapuloverebral joint
d. Scapulohumeral joint
e. Acromioclavicular joint
Sternoclavicular joint
78
What is the name of the short bone of the wrist that most commonly fractures?
a. Pisiform
b. Lunate
c. Cuneiform
d. Scaphoid
e. Hamate
Scaphoid
79
When you put your elbows on the table, what bone are you resting on?
a. Humerus
b. Ulna
c. Scapula
d. Metacarpal
e. None of the above
Ulna
80
What is the largest and strongest bone of the human body?
a. Humerus
b. Nasal
c. Femur
d. Patella
e. Pelvis
Femur
81
An immovable joint is called?
a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
d. Syndesmosis
e. Symphysis
Synarthrosis
82
Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to an
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synostosis
d. Synchondrosis
e. Gomphosis
Gomphosis
83
A synovial joint is an example of an
a. Synarthrosis
b. Amphiarthrosis
c. Diarthrosis
d. Freely moveable joint
e. Two of the above
Two of the above
84
Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
a. Shock absorption
b. Increases osmotic pressure within joint
c. Lubrication
d. Provides nutrients
e. Protects articular cartilages
Increases osmotic pressure within joint
85
In a monoaxial articulation
a. Movement can occur in all three axes
b. Movement can occur in only two axes
c. Movement can occur in only one axis
d. Only circumduction is possible
e. No movement is possible
Movement can occur in only one axis
86
Triaxial joints are known as ____________ joints.
a. Saddle
b. Hinge
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Ball and socket
e. Gliding
Ball and socket
87
The radiocarpal joint is an ________________ joint
a. Ball and socket
b. Hinge
c. Gliding
d. Saddle
e. Ellipsoidal
Ellipsoidal
88
In regards to joint stability what is the correct relationship?
a. Weaker joint, less movement
b. Stronger joint, less movement
c. Weaker joint, more movement
d. Stronger joint, more movement
e. Two of the above
Two of the above
89
Due to the inflexibility of our skeleton, motion can only occur where?
a. Synarthroses
b. Joints
c. Amphiarthroses
d. Articulations
e. Both b and d
Both b and d
90
The joints that are subject to the greatest forces would be found in the
a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Hands
d. Spine
e. Skull
Legs
91
Which is not a function of skeletal muscle?
a. Produce movement
b. Maintain posture
c. Maintain body temperature
d. support soft tissues
e. all the above are correct
all the above are correct
92
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones.
b. Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts.
c. Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system
d. Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs.
e. Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system
93
The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscles is the
a. Tendon
b. Epimysium
c. Endomysium
d. Perimysium
e. Fascicle
Epimysium
94
Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the layer that surrounds the fasciles. What is that layer called?
a. Endomysium
b. Perimysium
c. Sarcolemma
d. Sarcomere
e. Myofibril
Perimysium
95
The continuation of the three layers of collagen fibers that separate the muscle layers and attaches to bones is called what?
a. Tendon
b. Fascicle
c. Ligament
d. Epimysium
e. Myofibril
Tendon
96
The cell membrane of a skeletal muscle is called the
a. Sarcomere
b. Sarcosome
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Sarcoplasm
e. Sarcolemma
Sarcolemma
97
The functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcomere
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Myofibril
e. Myofilament
Sarcomere
98
A series of tubules that are invaginations of the muscle cell membrane and transport the action potential is called what?
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Myolemma
d. Transverse tubule
e. Sarcoplasm
Transverse tubule
99
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
a. Muscle fatigue
b. Conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber
c. Muscle contraction
d. Muscle relaxation
e. C and D
C and D
100
The thin filaments are attached at end of the sarcomere to which of the following?
a. Z line
b. M line
c. Zone of overlap
d. H band
e. I band
Z line
101
The thick filament contains all of the following components except?
a. Actin
b. Troponin
c. Myosin
d. Tropomyosin
e. G- actin
Myosin
102
The action of a muscle contraction occurs in the sarcomere at which location?
a. Zone of overlap
b. M line
c. Z line
d. Titin
e. None of the above
Zone of overlap
103
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores what?
a. Oxygen
b. Glycogen
c. ATP
d. Calcium
e. Sodium
Calcium
104
What is the name of the theory that explains muscle contractions
a. Gliding Filament
b. Ratcheting filament
c. Rotating filament
d. Spinning filament
e. Sliding filament
Sliding filament
105
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single junction, the space in that junction is called what?
a. Synaptic knob
b. Neuromuscular junction
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Sarcomere
e. Transverse tubule
Synaptic cleft
106
Binding sites on the actin become available when
a. Actin binds to troponin
b. Troponin binds to tropomyosin
c. tropomyosin changes positions
d. Myosin binds to troponin
e. None of the above
tropomyosin changes positions
107
In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Sodium ions
c. Hydrogen ions
d. ATP
e. Calcium ions
Calcium ions
108
When calcium ions binds to troponin,
a. Tropomyosin rotates out of the way
b. Active sites on the myosin are exposed
c. Actin heads will bind to myosin
d. Muscle relaxation occurs
e. Muosin shortens
Tropomyosin rotates out of the way
109
Which ion is outside the muscle cell that starts the action potential down the T tubules.
a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
e. ATP
Sodium
110
Stimulation Sequence
A stimulus is started by the _______ cell The neurotransmitter _____________ is released
The neurotransmitter binds to the _______ ________ enters the cell and travels down the T-Tubule.
a. acetylcholine
b. motor end plate
c. sodium
d. nerve
nerve
ACh
motor end plate
sodium
111
Contraction Sequence
Sodium travels down the ___________. Terminal Cisternae release ________ into the muscle cell.
Ca+ binds to ____________. ____________ gets rotated to uncover the binding sites on actin.
Actin then can bind with ___________. _______ breaks the cross bridge a. troponin
b. myosin
c. T- tubule
d. ATP
e. Calcium
ab. Tropomyosin
```
T- tubule
Calcium
troponin
Tropomyosin
myosin
ATP
```
112
A type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence is termed?
a. Twitch
b. Incomplete tetanus
c. Complete tetanus
d. Summation
e. Incomplete summation
Twitch
113
If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction can occur. This is called
a. Incomplete tetanus
b. Complete tetanus
c. Treppe
d. Wave summation
e. Recruitment
Wave summation
114
The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension and shortens is called.
a. Tetany
b. Treppe
c. Concentric
d. Isotonic
e. Isometric
Concentric
115
When flexing the bicep muscle, while the muscle is legthening, this type of contraction is termed what?
a. Concentric
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Wave summation
e. Treppe
Eccentric
116
At maximum exersion, the muscle generates most of its ATP by which process?
a. Anaerobic respiration
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Aerobic respiration
d. Conversion of creatine phosphate
e. The tricarboxylic acid cycle
Anaerobic respiration
117
Creatine phosphate
a. Is produced by process of anaerobic respiration
b. Can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
c. Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
d. Is only formed during strenuous exercise
e. Can not transfer its phosphate group to ATP
Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
118
During activities requiring aerobic endurance
a. Oxygen debts are common
b. Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria
c. Fatigue occurs in a few minutes
d. Oxygen is not required
e. Glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of energy
Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria
119
Which of the following is not a cause of muscle fatigue?
a. Depletion of metabolic reserves
b. Damage to the sarcolemma
c. Decline in pH within the muscle fibers
d. increased lactic acid titer
e. all of the above are causes
all of the above are causes
120
Which is true about a slow fiber?
a. Red- contains myoglobin
b. Anaerobic
c. Fatigue Slow
d. Small diameter
e. None of the above
Anaerobic
121
Which is true about fast fibers?
a. White – do not contain myoglobin
b. Aerobic
c. Small diameter
d. Slow fatique
e. None of the above
White – do not contain myoglobin
122
Which of the following is false
a. Cardiac muscle contractions cannot be summated
b. Skeletal muscle contractions may be summated
c. Skeletal muscle control is neural
d. Cardiac muscle control is neural
e. Cardiocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs
Cardiac muscle control is neural
123
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscle?
a. Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.
b. Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
c. Smooth muscles are uninucleated.
d. Smooth muscles don not contain sarcomeres.
e. The thin filaments of smooth muscle fivers are attached to dense bodies.
Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.
124
Which is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
a. Automaticity- pacemaker
b. Responds to nervous system to quicken pace or slow
c. Contractions last longer than skeletal
d. No wave summation
e. all of the following are true
all of the following are true
125
Which of the following muscles is a good example of a bipennate muscle?
a. Sartorius
b. Gracillis
c. Rectus Femoris
d. Pectoralis Major
e. Deltoid
Rectus Femoris
126
Which is an example of a second class lever?
a. Raising up on your toes
b. Flexing your elbow
c. Extending your elbow
d. Nodding your head
e. None of the above
Raising up on your toes
127
A first class lever is organized how?
a. Resistance, fulcrum, force
b. Fulcrum, resistance, force
c. Force, resistance, fulcrum
d. Resistance, force, fulcrum
e. None of the above
Resistance, fulcrum, force
128
An example of a third class lever is what?
a. Nodding your head
b. Raising up on your toes
c. Flexing your elbow
d. Blinking
e. None of the above
Flexing your elbow
129
A muscle with the name Brachii would have an attachment site in which area
upper arm
130
a muscle w the name cervicis would have an attachment site in wh area
cervical spine
131
when putting on lipstick, what muscle would be good to contract
obicularis oris
132
muscles whose fibers run parallel to the sagital plane of the body are termed
rectus
133
wh of the following terms would not be a muscle naming for size
all are size names
134
a muscle that stabilazes the wrist during forearm flexion would be demonstrating the role of wh term
fixator
135
wh of the following muscles compresses the abdominal cavity?
a. rectus abdominus
b. transverse abdominus
c. diaphragm
d. external oblique
e. all but C
all but C
136
the invagination of the sarcolemma through the muscle fiber is called what?
transverse tubule
137
if you were hit in the rectus abdominus muscle, what would your body position change to?
doubling over in flexion
138
which of the following muscles is not self antagonistic?
a. pectoralis major
b. trapezius
c. deltoid
d. flexor digitorum superficialis
flexor digitorum superficialis
139
what would be the result of a drug that blocks the ACh receptors?
muscle contraction would not occur
140
in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the H-zone?
thick filaments
141
in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the zone of overlap
both thick and thin
142
which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization?
divergent
143
which of the following is true regarding the muscles of the head and neck functions?
a. nonverbal communication
b. controlling the eyes
c. controlling the mouth
d. all the above
e. A and C only
all the above
144
synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron containing neurotransmitters are released by this method when the action potential arrives?
exocytosis
145
wh of the following situations would result in increased oxygen utilization by the muscle?
a. increased heat production
b. increased conversion of pyruvic acid to ATP
c. increased muscle contraction
d. increased aerobic respiration
e. all the above
all the above
146
wh of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension?
motor unit of the chest
147
the ability of a smooth muscle cell to function over a wide range of lengths producing the same tension is termed what?
plasticity
148
```
wh of the following is not correct regarding cardiac muscle?
a. it cannot wave summate
b. it has triads
c. it has an extended contraction time
d. it has automaticity
it has wide T tubles
```
it has triads
149
during the Cori cycle, the liver converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid and then into glucose under anaerobic metabolism.
T of F
false
150
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is which of the following?
a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia
Neuron
151
What is the name of the supporting cells that separate and protect the nervous system cells?
a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia
Neuroglia
152
This area of the nervous system contains the Brain and Spinal cord?
a. Peripheral
b. Efferent
c. Central
d. Afferent
e. Motor
Central
153
The Peripheral Nervous system contains what?
a. Brain and spinal cord
b. Cranial and Spinal nerves
c. Afferent only
d. Efferent only
e. Autonomic only
Cranial and Spinal nerves
154
Which division of the nervous system is directly tied to motor information? Choose the best answer.
a. Efferent
b. Sensory
c. Visceral
d. Afferent
e. None of the above
Efferent
155
If you want to move your muscles which division has the most control over muscle stimulation?
a. Efferent, visceral
b. Afferent, visceral
c. Efferent, autonomic
d. Afferent, motor
e. Efferent, somatic
Efferent, somatic
156
In the autonomic nervous system, which of the following is more concerned with saving energy?
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Efferent
d. Motor
e. None of the above
Parasympathetic
157
Which nerve type is mostly sensory in the Peripheral nervous system?
a. Anaxonic
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Multipolar
e. None of the above
Unipolar
158
Which type of sensory fibers monitors temperature or pressure in organs?
a. Proprioceptors
b. Interoceptors
c. Exteroceptors
d. Motor efferent
e. None of the above
Interoceptors
159
Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the blood-brain barrier?
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Schwann’s cells
e. Satellite cells
Astrocytes
160
Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the PNS?
a. Astrocytes
b. Schwann’s cells
c. Satellite cells
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microglia
Schwann’s cells
161
Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the CNS?
a. Schwann’s cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Satellite Cells
d. Microglia
e. Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes
162
In the nervous tissue, an electrical stimulation can be surmised by the following statement in relation to the what is happening in the nerve cell to depolarize and repolarize?
a. Sodium out/ potassium in
b. Sodium in/ potassium out
c. Sodium in/ Chloride in
d. Potassium and sodium in
e. None of the above
Sodium in/ potassium out
163
What is the resting potential charge of a nerve cell?
a. -90
b. -55
c. -70
d. +30
e. 0
-70
164
In the all or nothing principle which of the following charges would result in an action potential?
a. -65
b. -70
c. -90
d. -50
e. -120
-50
165
With regard to action potential propagation, which of the following statements is true?
a. Action potentials begin by sodium gates closing and potassium gates opening
b. Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.
c. Action potentials begin at the dendrites of the cell body and travel down to the next cell
d. Action potentials are possible when a nerve is at -90mV
e. None of the above is true.
Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.
166
An action potential moving down from node to node in skipping fashion is termed what?
a. Saltatory
b. Station to station
c. Continuous
d. Localized
e. None of the above
Saltatory
167
Which of the following propagation methods is the slowest?
a. Saltatory
b. Station to Station
c. Continuous
d. None of the above
Continuous
168
Which of the following fiber types is the fastest at transmitting action potentials?
a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F
Type A
169
Which of the following transmits slow pain and has the smallest diameter?
a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F
Type C
170
What is the most common neurotransmitter in the human body?
a. Epinepherine
b. Dopamine
c. Acytelcholine
d. Seratonin
e. L-transferase
Acytelcholine
171
Which type of synapse passes its action potential by direct contact?
a. Chemical synapse
b. Acytelcholine synapse
c. Dopamine synapse
d. Electrical synapse
e. All of the above
Electrical synapse
172
What is the order of the cranial meninges from external to internal?
a. Dura, pia, arachnoid
b. Pia, dura arachnoid
c. Dura, arachnoid, pia
d. Arachnoid, dura, pia
e. Pia, arachnoid, dura
Dura, arachnoid, pia
173
Which is not a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Cushioning delicate structures
b. Supporting the brain
c. Transporting nutrients
d. Transporting waste products
e. All of the above are functions
All of the above are functions
174
The cerebrospinal fluid is made which structures?
a. Choroid Plexus
b. Fourth and fifth ventricles
c. Fourth and Central canal
d. Subarachnoid spaces
e. None of the above
Choroid Plexus
175
Which of the following is the connection point for the brain and the spinal cord?
a. Pons
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebrum
d. Limbic
e. Medulla Oblongata
Medulla Oblongata
176
The pons holds sites for which of the following?
a. Cranial nerves V,VI,VII,VIII
b. Adjustments to the respiratory centers of the Medulla
c. Relay centers for the cerebellum
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
All of the above
177
The medulla oblongata controls which of the following?
a. Cardiac and respiratory
b. Cardiac and urinary
c. Respiratory and urinary
d. Hunger
e. Emotional distress
Cardiac and respiratory
178
Which of the following is the most important part of the brain for coordination of body movements?
a. Cerebrum
b. Pons
c. Medulla
d. Cerebellum
e. Hypothalamus
Cerebellum
179
What section of the brain produces the chemical that helps to regulate day and night cycles and reproductive functions?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Pons
d. Medulla
e. Pineal Gland
Pineal Gland
180
Which of the following areas is the primary relay station for sensory information to the basal nuclei and cerebral cortex?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pons
c. Thalamus
d. Medulla
e. Cerebrum
Thalamus
181
The hypothalamus does not control which of the following?
a. Feeding reflexes
b. Controls the pituitary gland
c. Secretes AntiDiuretic Hormone
d. Secretes Oxcytocin
e. Formation of voluntary somatic movement
Formation of voluntary somatic movement
182
Which of the following does the Limbic system not control?
a. Emotional states
b. Memory storage and retrieval
c. Linking conscious movements to unconscious autonomic functions
d. All are functions of the Limbic System
All are functions of the Limbic System
183
The cerebrum is broken up into how many named lobes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
4
184
If a person has a cerebral stroke on the left side, which muscular side of the face will be affected?
a. Right side
b. Contralateral side
c. Left side
d. Dorsal side
e. None of the above would be affected
Left side
185
Which lobe of the cerebrum holds the pre-motor cortex for formation of muscular movements?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
e. Ethmoidal lobe
Frontal lobe
186
Most afferent information from the thalamus gets distributed to which of the following areas?
a. Precentral gyrus
b. Postcentral gyrus
c. Occipital
d. Temporal
e. All of the above
Postcentral gyrus
187
Which wave pattern occurs in normal, healthy, awake adults?
a. Beta waves
b. Theta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Alpha waves
e. Gamma waves
Alpha waves
188
Which cranial nerve is primarily a sensory only nerve?
a. VII
b. XII
c. II
d. X
e. III
II
189
What is the name of the cranial nerve that controls tongue wrestling?
a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal
Hypoglossal
190
Which cranial nerve is the largest and controls the muscles of mastication?
a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal
Trigeminal
191
The dorsal root ganglion is made up of what structures?
a. Cell bodies
b. Axons
c. Dendrites
d. Synaptic clefts
e. None of the above
Cell bodies
192
The end of the spinal cord is called what? Means horse’s tail
a. Filum Terminalle
b. Spinothalamic Tract
c. Pia Matter
d. Conus Medularis
e. None of the above
None of the above
193
What are the two enlargements in the spinal cord?
a. Thoracic and Cervical
b. Cervical and Lumbar
c. Thoracic and Lumbar
d. Sacral and Lumbar
e. None of the above
Cervical and Lumbar
194
The dorsal roots carry what type of information?
a. Motor
b. Efferent
c. Sensory
d. Transudent
e. None of the above
Sensory
195
What is the order of the spinal meningies?
a. Pia, Dura, Arachnoid
b. Arachnoid, Pia, Dura
c. Dura, Pia, Arachnoid
d. Dura, Arachnoid, Pia
e. Pia, Matter, Arachnoid
Dura, Arachnoid, Pia
196
Which space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Subpia space
c. Subdural space
d. Epidural space
e. None of the above
Subarachnoid space
197
The spinal meningies and the cranial meningies are the same?
a. True
b. False
True
198
In the gray matter, what is the area that carries somatic and visceral sensory information?
a. Anterior horn
b. Lateral horn
c. Posterior horn
d. Anterolateral column
e. None of the above
Posterior horn
199
The gray commisure has what function?
a. Crossover spot for information
b. Projects information up the spinal cord
c. Sends information out the spinal cord
d. Has no function
e. Is located in the brain
Crossover spot for information
200
The white matter is made up of ascending and descending tracts.
a. True
b. False
True
201
Which of the following is part of the organization of the white matter in the spinal cord?
a. Anterior Column
b. Posterior Column
c. Lateral Column
d. Anterior white commisure
e. All of the above
All of the above
202
What is the part of the nerve covering that separates the bundles of nerve fibers?
a. Perineurium
b. Epineurium
c. Endoneurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above
Perineurium
203
Which level is not penetrated by blood vessels?
a. Epineurium
b. Endoneurium
c. Perineurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above
Endoneurium
204
Dorsal rami innervate which parts of the body?
a. Posterior wall
b. limbs
c. organs
d. Anterior wall
e. None of the above
Posterior wall
205
What does the union of the ventral and dorsal roots form?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Sympathetic nerves
c. Parasympathetic nerves
d. Spinal nerves
e. None of the above
Spinal nerves
206
What nerve supplies the diaphragm?
a. Sciatic
b. Brachial
c. Phrenic
d. Ulnar
e. None of the above
Phrenic
207
The brachial plexus is made up of what spinal levels?
a. C1-C5
b. C5-T1
c. T2-T6
d. L1-L5
e. L5-S2
C5-T1
208
What is the largest nerve in the body?
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Axial
c. Obturator
d. Sciatic
e. None of the above
Sciatic
209
How many trunks are located in the Brachial Plexus?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 6
e. 3
3
210
Which plexus supplies the arms?
a. Cervical
b. Brachial
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
e. None of the above
Brachial
211
In a reverberation neuronal pool, what is the importance?
a. Negative feedback system
b. Straight line information
c. Weakening of the stimulation
d. Positive feedback system
e. All of the above
Positive feedback system
212
Which statement is not part of a reflex arc?
a. Arrival of stimulus
b. Activation of a Sensory neuron
c. Information processing
d. Activation of a Motor neuron
e. Effector response of a peripheral sensor
Effector response of a peripheral sensor
213
Which type of reflex arc are you born with?
a. Acquired
b. Innate
c. Skill
d. Repetitive
e. None of the above
Innate
214
What type of reflex requires an interneuron?
a. Monosynaptic
b. Visceral
c. Acquired
d. Polysynaptic
e. None of the above
Polysynaptic
215
What is an example of a monosynaptic reflex?
a. Stretch
b. Withdrawal
c. Tendon
d. Flexor
e. None of the above
Stretch
216
Which is not an example of a general characteristic of polysynaptic reflexes?
a. Involves pools of interneurons
b. They involve reciprocal inhibition
c. They have reverberating circuits
d. Several reflexes may cooperate to produce a coordinated response
e. All of the above are correct
All of the above are correct
217
The conscious awareness of a sensation is called what?
a. Sensationalism
b. Equilibrium
c. Olfaction
d. Perception
e. Interception
Perception
218
Which is not a mechanoreceptor?
a. Nocioceptor
b. Tactile
c. Baroreceptor
d. Proprioceptor
e. Lamellated corpuscle
Nocioceptor
219
Muscular pain is considered a slow achy burning pain. Which type of pain fiber will carry this information to the CNS?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
e. None of the above
Type C
220
Thermoreceptors carry what type of information?
a. Light touch
b. Pressure
c. Muscle length
d. Temperature
e. None of the above
Temperature
221
Which neuron will take the information up the spinal cord if the tract crosses at the Spinal level?
a. First order
b. Second order
c. Third order
d. Fourth order
e. None of the above
Second order
222
Which of the somatic tracts crosses at the level of the medulla oblongata?
a. Spinocellebelar column
b. Anterolateral column
c. Posterior column
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Posterior column
223
A person having a heart attack feels pain down the left arm and shoulder. This is because which column is being affected?
a. Spinocellebelar
b. Lateral Spinothalamic
c. Posterior column
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
Lateral Spinothalamic
224
Dorsal roots of T1-L2 and S2-S4 pass through which tract?
a. Posteriorolateral
b. Spinorubrio
c. Spinothalamic
d. Anterolateral
e. All of the above
Spinothalamic
225
Lower motor neurons cell bodies are found in which part of the body?
a. Spinal cord
b. Cerebrum
c. Brain stem
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above
Two of the above
226
Which pathway is responsible for gross motor movement of the neck, trunk, and proximal limbs?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Corticospinal
d. Corticocellebelar
e. None of the above
Medial
227
The sympathetic division of the ANS arises from which area?
a. Thoracolumbar
b. Cervicosacral
c. Thoracosacral
d. Cervicolumbar
e. None of the above
Thoracolumbar
228
The sympathetic division is responsible of doing what to somatic activity?
a. Lowering
b. Destroying
c. Increasing
d. Absolutely nothing
e. Maintaining current levels
Increasing
229
Nor epinephrine is used as the postganglionic neurotransmitter, what is used as the preganglionic neurotransmitter?
a. Nor epinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Oxytocin
d. Acetylcholine
e. Transmitophine
Acetylcholine
230
Which is not an occurrence of sympathetic activation?
a. Increased alertness
b. Feeling of energy and euphoria
c. Increased cardiovascular and breathing
d. Increased urination
e. Mobilization of energy reserves
Increased urination
231
Preganglionic fibers travel fast in the CNS. What is special about these fibers?
a. They are myelinated
b. They are unmyelinated
c. They are polysynaptic
d. There is nothing special about them
They are myelinated
232
Parasympathetic activity increasing does which of the following?
a. Conserves energy
b. Is a couch potatoe
c. Is responsible for rest and response
d. Stores energy
e. All are actions of increased stimulation
All are actions of increased stimulation
233
The parasympathetic division is also called what?
a. Craniosacral
b. Thoracolumbar
c. Hyperactive
d. ADD
e. None of the above
Craniosacral
234
Where do most of the parasympathetic nerve fibers run in?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Lumbar nerves
c. Intercostal nerves
d. None of the above
Cranial nerves
235
In regards to dual ineurvation on organs please answer which division is in charge with the following actions. A. sympathetic B. Parasympathetic
47. Decrease in blood pressure.
48. Increase in absorption of the digestive system.
49. Increased glandular secretion and ejaculation.
B
B
A
236
Which is not a functional characteristic of Higher-Order functions?
a. Not part of the programmed brain
b. Modification and adjustments may be made over time
c. Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.
d. The cerebral cortex is required
e. Involves both conscious and unconscious information processing
Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.
237
What term do we use for smell?
a. Equilibrium
b. Auditory
c. Vestibularcochlear
d. Olfaction
e. None of the above
Olfaction
238
How many olfactory organs are there?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five
Two
239
What does the olfactory epithelium contain?
a. Basal cells
b. Receptor cells
c. Olfactory glands
d. Supporting cells
e. All of the above
All of the above
240
Glands that produce thick, pigmented mucus capable of absorbing water are called?
a. Bowman’s glands
b. Stem cells
c. Supporting cells
d. Olfactory receptor cells
e. None of the above
None of the above
241
What is the functional component of the olfactory receptor cell?
a. Supporting cell
b. Mucous
c. Olfactory cilia
d. Olfactory gland
Olfactory cilia
242
We can easily detect at least 50 smells, these are called what?
a. Tertiary smells
b. Secondary smells
c. Primary smells
d. Stinky smells
e. Odor
Primary smells
243
What is the common name for gustation receptors?
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Utricle
d. Taste
e. None of the above
Taste
244
Which is not a form of lingual papillae?
a. Filiform
b. Myleform
c. Fungiform
d. Circumvallate
Myleform
245
Humans have two other taste sensations, please identify them?( pick two)
a. Water
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Acid
d. Base
e. Umami
Water
| Umami
246
Which is not a function of the accessory structures of the eye?
a. Opening for light
b. Production of tears
c. Secretion of tears
d. Removal material
Opening for light
247
What is the name of the mucous membrane that covers the eye?
a. Lacrimal layer
b. Conjunctiva
c. Lateral canthus
d. Pupil
e. None of the above
Conjunctiva
248
Which is not a part of the Lacrimal apparatus to keep the eye moist and clean?
a. Gland
b. Canaliculi
c. Sac
d. Nasolacrimal duct
e. All are parts of the apparatus
All are parts of the apparatus
249
Which of the following is not a function of the fibrous tunic?
a. Mechanical support
b. Attachment site for extrinsic muscles
c. Detection of light
d. Focusing process assistance
e. None of the above
Detection of light
250
Which is not a function of the vascular tunic?
a. Route for blood vessels
b. Regulating amount of light
c. Secreting vitreous humor
d. Controlling shape of lens
e. Includes the iris, ciliary body, and the choroids
Secreting vitreous humor
251
What are the names for the specialized cells called photoreceptors?
a. Rods and cones
b. Rods and staffs
c. Staffs and cones
d. Peanuts, popcorn, and cracker jacks
Rods and cones
252
Which is not a step in photoreception?
a. Opsin is activated
b. Cyclic –GMP levels decrease
c. Activation of transducin
d. Dark current is increased
e. Rate of neurotransmitter declines
Dark current is increased
253
Light rays that strike the retina of the human eye project an inverted image because the:
a. Photoreceptor cells face the posterior wall of the eye
b. Lack of photoreceptors at the blind spot distorts the image
c. Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image
d. Vitreous humor is a distorting medium
e. Light is refracted as it passes through the lens
Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image
254
Hearing is a result of vibratory sensations transmitted by which of the following parts?
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Oval window
d. Cochlea
e. All are parts of the pathway
All are parts of the pathway
255
Which part of the cochlea is affected by a bass singer?
a. Initial part
b. Middle part
c. Innermost part
d. All over
All over
256
The receptors for static and dynamic equilibrium are located in the .
a. Auditory canal and tympanic membrane
b. Round and oval windows
c. Cochlea and scala media
d. Semicircular canals and vestibule
e. Middle ear ossicles
Semicircular canals and vestibule
257
Which is not a part of the equilibrium function of the ear?
a. Semicircular ducts
b. Vestibule
c. Saccule
d. Utricle
e. Endolymphatic duct
Endolymphatic duct
258
Which is not a form of intercellular communication?
a. Direct
b. Paracrine
c. Endocrine
d. Synaptic
e. All are forms of communication
All are forms of communication
259
One of the endocrine glands develops within the sympathetic nervous system during embryological development. What endocrine gland might this be.
a. Pancreas
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Thymus
e. Neurohypophysis
Anterior pituitary
260
Hormones released in the neurohypophysis are produced by neurons in the:
a. Adrenal medulla
b. Spinal cord
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Red nucleus
e. Hypothalamus
Hypothalamus
261
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Heart
e. Pons
Pons
262
Hormones thyroxine and ADH are produced from precursor molecules of
a. Fats
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Glycerol
e. Carbohydrates
Amino acids
263
Which of the following is a true protein?
a. FSH
b. Epinephrine
c. Thyroxine
d. Oxytocin
e. Progesterone
Oxytocin
264
The adenohypophysis hormone that directly is involved in the stress response is what?
a. FSH
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. ACTH
e. TSH
TSH
265
What is the target tissue for prolactin?
a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Mammary glands
d. Gonads
e. Adrenal cortex
Mammary glands
266
Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) can lead to which of the following?
a. More absorption of Ca++ by the small intestine
b. Increased renal reabsorption of Ca++
c. Faster bone deposition
d. Hypercalcemia
e. Stimulation of osteoclast activity
Faster bone deposition
267
Steroid hormones are made from a derived form of what molecule?
a. Cholesterol
b. Arachidonic acid
c. Amino acids
d. Tyrosine
e. None of the above
Cholesterol
268
Secretions of the adrenal medulla act to increase the effects of which system?
a. Parasympathetic innervation
b. Sympathetic stimulation
c. Vagus nerve activity
d. Reflex controls
e. Neruosecretory substances
Sympathetic stimulation
269
Which gland has the most direct control over all other endocrine glands?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue
Hypothalamus
270
Which gland secretes seven hormones that all use cAMP as the secondary messenger?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue
Anterior pituitary
271
The hypothalamus secreting TRH will result in what hormone being secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. LH
d. TSH
e. PRL
TSH
272
The parathyroid gland releases its hormone in direct response to what?
a. Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood
b. High levels of Ca++ ions in blood
c. High levels of Calcitonin
d. Elevated osteoclast activity
e. Two of the above
Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood
273
Which gland utilizes Iodine to accelerate the formation of hormones?
a. Parathyroid
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Thyroid
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Pancreas
Thyroid
274
Which zone of the adrenal gland has the effects of conserving calcium ions?
a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above
None of the above
275
Which Zona of the adrenal gland has its effects on glucose metabolism?
a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above
Fasciculate
276
Which of the following is not an effect of the adrenal medulla?
a. Mobilization of glycogen in muscle
b. Break down of stored fats
c. Glycogen break down in the liver
d. Increase rate and force of cardiac muscle contraction
e. All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine
All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine
277
The islets of Langerhans are found in which gland
a. Adipose tissue
b. Heart
c. Adrenal
d. Pancreas
e. Pineal
Pancreas
278
Which cell produces the hormone insulin?
a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Delta cells
d. F cells
e. None of the above
Beta cells
279
What is the name of the hormone most responsible for increasing glucose levels?
a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone
c. Glucagon
d. Melatonin
e. ACTH
Glucagon
280
What hormonal gland controls the increase of digestive enzymes through production of secretin?
a. Gonads
b. Intestines
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. Adipose tissue
Intestines
281
What body tissue suppresses appetite by affecting the hypothalamus?
a. Adipose tissue
b. Thymus
c. Heart
d. Gonads
e. Pancreas
Adipose tissue
282
EPO erythropoietin increases production of red blood cells in response to low levels of oxygen in which gland?
a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestines
e. Heart
Kidney
283
Which gland decreases in size as we age?
a. Kidney
b. Intestine
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. No gland decreases in size
Thymus
284
Which hormone is most responsible for secondary male sex characteristics?
a. Estrogens
b. Progestins
c. Androgens
d. FSH
e. None of the above
Androgens
285
An excessive breakdown of tissue proteins and lipid reserves is a principle sign of overproduction of what hormone group?
a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroxine
c. Estrogens
d. Glucocorticoids
e. Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
