Ch 7 quiz Flashcards

1
Q

In which bone is the obturator foramen located?

a. os coxa
b. femur
c. sacrum
d. coccyx

A

a. os coxa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which bone contains the depression that articulates with the occipital condyles?

a. atlas
b. axis
c. temporal
d. occipital

A

a. atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which suture is not paired with the bones it separates?

a. lambdoidal / occipital and parietal bones
b. squamous / temporal and sphenoid bones
c. coronal / frontal from two parietal
d. sagittal / parietal bones

A

b. squamous / temporal and sphenoid bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which bone is a good illustration of intramembranous ossification?

a. occipital
b. radius
c. pollex
d. sphenoid

A

a. occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Paranasal sinuses serve what purposes?

a. provide a superior and posterior boundary of the nasal complex
b. provide the lateral and inferior boundaries of the nasal complex
c. pull mucus back toward the throat
d. lighten the skull bones and provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium

A

d. lighten the skull bones and provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Jose suffers a blow to the skull that fractures his nose and breaks the nasal septum superior to the vomer. What bone is broken?

a. frontal bone
b. right temporal bone
c. right parietal bone
d. ethmoid bone

A

d. ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these bones are paired bones of the face?

a. temporal bones
b. inferior nasal conchae
c. parietal bones
d. both A and C

A

b. inferior nasal conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which bone contains the mental foramen and what structures use that passageway?

a. parietal; none
b. occipital; hypoglossal nerves
c. temporal; internal carotid artery
d. mandible; mental nerves

A

d. mandible; mental nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following are part of the ethmoid bone?

a. sella turcica, middle and inferior nasal conchae, and perpendicular plate
b. nasal conchae, crista galli, and olfactory foramina
c. superior and middle nasal conchae, optic foramen, and optic canal
d. None of the above are correct.

A

b. nasal conchae, crista galli, and olfactory foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The significance of the petrous part of the temporal bone is that it serves as ____.

a. the housing for the auditory ossicles
b. a passage for the jugular vein
c. sites of attachment for muscles that move the mandible
d. the housing for the temporal sinuses

A

a. the housing for the auditory ossicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The axial skeleton contains the bones of the ___.

a. pelvic girdle and limb bones
b. pelvic girdle and pectoral girdle
c. skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage
d. both B and C

A

c. skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Improper administration of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can result in a fracture of which bones?

a. cervical vertebrae and ribs
b. thoracic vertebrae and ribs
c. sternum and thoracic vertebrae
d. sternum and ribs

A

d. sternum and ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bones of the axial skeleton have all of the following functions EXCEPT:

a. protect the brain and spinal cord.
b. provide surface area for the attachment of respiratory muscles.
c. contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow.
d. protect organs of the ventral body cavity.

A

c. contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can you distinguish between true ribs and false ribs?

a. True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage.
b. True ribs are entirely bony.
c. False ribs are not part of the thoracic cage.
d. True ribs are attached only to the sternum.

A

a. True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the main difference between vertebrosternal and vertebrochondral ribs?

a. Vertebrosternal ribs attach to the sternum by their own costal cartilages.
b. Vertebrochondral ribs’ costal cartilages fuse and merge with cartilages from rib 7.
c. Vertebrosternal ribs increase in curvature and length from 1 to 7.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When you run your finger along a person’s spine, what part of the vertebrae are you feeling just beneath their skin?

a. superior articular processes
b. pedicles
c. transverse processes
d. spinous processes

A

d. spinous processes

17
Q

Why are the bodies of lumbar vertebrae so large?

a. They develop first and therefore have longer to grow.
b. to provide more flexibility
c. to distribute weight over a larger area
d. to provide greater protection to the lumbar spinal nerves

A

c. to distribute weight over a larger area

18
Q

Which structures form the vertebral arch of vertebrae?

a. superior and inferior articular processes
b. pedicles and lamina
c. transverse and spinous processes
d. vertebral bodies and transverse foramina

A

b. pedicles and lamina

19
Q

Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Which bone is fractured, and where is it located?

a. second cervical vertebra; posterior neck
b. first cervical vertebra; posterior neck
c. occipital bone; posterior base of skull
d. sacrum; posterior pelvis

A

a. second cervical vertebra; posterior neck

20
Q

The secondary curves of the spine are the _______.

a. lumbar and thoracic
b. cervical and sacral
c. lumbar and sacral
d. cervical and lumbar

A

d. cervical and lumbar

21
Q

The sphenoid bone contains all of the following EXCEPT:

a. optic canals.
b. superior orbital fissures.
c. external auditory meatus.
d. foramen ovale.

A

c. external auditory meatus

22
Q

What feature distinguishes cervical vertebrae 2–6 from a thoracic or lumbar vertebra?

a. bifurcated spinous processes
b. demifacets for the ribs
c. transverse foramina
d. both A and C

A

d. both A and C

23
Q

What is a consequence of early closure of one or more sutures?

a. distorted skull shape
b. brain stops growing
c. water on the brain
d. early death

A

a. distorted skull shape

24
Q

Why does the vertebral column of an adult have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn?

a. Vertebrae are absorbed as adult stature is reached.
b. Newborns require more support in the cervical region.
c. The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty.
d. Vertebrae are formed that later become ribs

A

c. The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty

25
Q

Which of these bones form parts of the orbital complex and also contain paranasal sinuses?

a. sphenoid, frontal, maxillary, and lacrimal
b. zygomatic, lacrimal, frontal, and palatine
c. palatine, temporal, ethmoid, and zygomatic
d. maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid

A

d. maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid

26
Q

Several openings occur within the temporal bone for the passage of structures. Which of the following is correct?

a. foramen magnum / medulla oblongata and hypoglossal canals / hypoglossal nerves
b. hypoglossal canals / hypoglossal nerve and jugular foramen / glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves
c. foramen lacerum / small arteries and jugular foramen / jugular vein
d. carotid canal / internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen / facial nerve

A

d. carotid canal / internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen / facial nerve