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A&P 1 > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The heart is found in which cavity?
    a. Dorsal
    b. Ventral
    c. Thoracic
    d. Abdominopelvic
    e. Two of the above
A

e. Two of the above

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2
Q
  1. Which plane separates the anterior and posterior parts of the body?
    a. Sagital
    b. Midsagital
    c. Transverse
    d. Coronal
    e. Oblique
A

d. Coronal

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3
Q
  1. What is the superior border of the abdominopelvic cavity?
    a. Pelvic floor
    b. Clavicle
    c. Diaphragm
    d. Rectus abdominis muscle
    e. Crainium
A

c. Diaphragm

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4
Q
  1. When a person is standing, facing forward, with their arms at their sides, palms turned forward, and feet together; this position is termed what?
    a. Prone position
    b. Cephalic position
    c. Anatomical position
    d. Caudal position
    e. Under arrest
A

c. Anatomical position

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5
Q
  1. Supine means?
    a. Face down
    b. Face up
    c. Face side
    d. Face back
    e. None of the above
A

b. Face up

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6
Q
  1. Which quadrant will you most likely find the appendix?
    a. Left upper
    b. Right upper
    c. Left lower
    d. Right lower
    e. Left lumbar region
A

d. Right lower

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7
Q
  1. The ankle is said to be in what relationship to the hip?
    a. Distal
    b. Proximal
    c. Cephalic
    d. Dorsal
    e. Thoracic
A

a. Distal

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8
Q
  1. The study of structures is termed?
    a. Histology
    b. Anatomy
    c. Physiology
    d. Structureology
A

b. Anatomy

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9
Q
  1. What is the term for the head?
    a. Inferior
    b. Manus
    c. Antecubital
    d. Cephalic
A

d. Cephalic

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10
Q
  1. A pathophysiologist looks at what?
    a. Relationships between organs of a system
    b. Relationships between organ systems
    c. The course and effect of a disease on organ systems
    d. Cell structure
A

c. The course and effect of a disease on organ systems

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11
Q
  1. Which is not one of the four types of tissues?
    a. Striated
    b. Connective
    c. Muscular
    d. Neural
    e. Epithelial
A

a. Striated

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12
Q
  1. Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?
    a. Control permeability
    b. Physical protection
    c. Sensation
    d. Strength
    e. Secretions
A

d. Strength

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13
Q
  1. What type of junction holds cells together but allows for communication between cells?
    a. Tight junctions
    b. Gap junctions
    c. Button desmosomes
    d. CAM’s
    e. Vesicles
A

b. Gap junctions

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect about the naming of epithelial tissues?
    a. Cell shape
    b. Layers
    c. Attachment to the basal lamina
    d. Amount of nuclei
A

d. Amount of nuclei

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15
Q
  1. Which method of secretion requires the tissue to constantly be replaced?
    a. Merocrine
    b. Apocrine
    c. Neurocrine
    d. Holocrine
    e. Burstocrine
A

d. Holocrine

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a supportive connective tissue?
    a. Adipose
    b. Bone
    c. Loose connective
    d. Cartilage
    e. Two of the above
A

e. Two of the above

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17
Q
  1. Which is not a dense regular tissue?
    a. Capsule
    b. Tendon
    c. Ligament
    d. Aponeurosis
A

a. Capsule

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18
Q
  1. What are the types of Cartilage?
    a. Fibrocartilage
    b. Elastic cartilage
    c. Osseous cartilage
    d. Hyaline cartilage
    e. A,B, and C
    ab. A,B,D
A

ab. A,B,D

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19
Q
  1. What layer of skin is the difference in thick and thin skin?
    a. Stratum Germinativum
    b. Stratum Spinosum
    c. Stratum Lucidum
    d. Stratum Granulosum
    e. Stratum Corneum
A

c. Stratum Lucidum

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20
Q
  1. One layer in the dermis is called the papillary layer, what is the other?
    a. Calcitiol
    b. Reticular
    c. Carotene
    d. Cyanosis
    e. None of the above
A

b. Reticular

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21
Q
  1. Which is not a function of bone?
    a. Support
    b. Storage of minerals
    c. Protection
    d. Blood cell production
    e. All of the above are functions
A

e. All of the above are functions

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22
Q
  1. Which type of bone is described by the following? Thin, roughly parallel surfaces and contain red blood cells.
    a. Flat
    b. Short
    c. Irregular
    d. Long
    e. Sesamoid
A

a. Flat

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23
Q
  1. In which step of endochondral ossification does remodeling of the bone occur the most?
    a. Step 1, cartilage enlargement
    b. Step 2, blood vessel formation around edges
    c. Step 3, blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and central region
    d. Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation
    e. All but A
A

d. Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation

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24
Q
  1. What is the name of the cartilage on the ends of bones in the joints?
    a. Epiphyseal
    b. Articular
    c. Fibrous
    d. Symphysis
    e. Costal
A

b. Articular

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25
Q
  1. Which cartilage allows the bone to grow in length (interstitial)?
    a. Epiphyseal
    b. Articular
    c. Fibrous
    d. Symphysis
    e. Costal
A

a. Epiphyseal

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26
Q
  1. Which is not part of the axial division of the skeleton?
    a. Skull
    b. Auditory ossicles
    c. Pectoral girdle
    d. Hyoid bone
    e. Vertebral column
A

c. Pectoral girdle

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
    a. Provides an attachment for muscles that move in appendicular skeleton
    b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, and neck
    c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. All of the above

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28
Q
  1. The ribs attach to the thoracic vertebrae at two locations. Please name the two. (circle all that apply)
    a. Body
    b. Transverse process
    c. Spinous process
    d. Pedicle
A

a. Body

b. Transverse process

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29
Q
  1. What is the name of the bone that holds the Olfactory nerve?
    a. Sphenoid
    b. Occipital
    c. Temporal
    d. Ethmoid
    e. Nasal
A

d. Ethmoid

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30
Q
  1. What is the only boney connection for the upper extremity to the axial skeleton?
    a. Sternoclavicular joint
    b. Costoclavicular joint
    c. Scapuloverebral joint
    d. Scapulohumeral joint
    e. Acromioclavicular joint
A

a. Sternoclavicular joint

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31
Q
  1. An immovable joint is called?
    a. Synarthrosis
    b. Diarthrosis
    c. Amphiarthrosis
    d. Syndesmosis
    e. Symphysis
A

a. Synarthrosis

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32
Q
  1. Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to an
    a. Amphiarthrosis
    b. Syndesmosis
    c. Synostosis
    d. Synchondrosis
    e. Gomphosis
A

e. Gomphosis

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33
Q
  1. A synovial joint is an example of an
    a. Synarthrosis
    b. Amphiarthrosis
    c. Diarthrosis
    d. Freely moveable joint
    e. Two of the above
A

e. Two of the above

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
    a. Shock absorption
    b. Increases osmotic pressure within joint
    c. Lubrication
    d. Transports nutrients
    e. Protects articular cartilages
A

b. Increases osmotic pressure within joint

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35
Q
  1. In a monoaxial articulation
    a. Movement can occur in all three axes
    b. Movement can occur in only two axes
    c. Movement can occur in only one axis
    d. Only circumduction is possible
    e. No movement is possible
A

c. Movement can occur in only one axis

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36
Q
  1. Triaxial joints are known as ____________ joints.
    a. Saddle
    b. Hinge
    c. Ellipsoidal
    d. Ball and socket
    e. Gliding
A

d. Ball and socket

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37
Q
  1. The radiocarpal joint is an ________________ joint
    a. Ball and socket
    b. Hinge
    c. Gliding
    d. Saddle
    e. Ellipsoidal
A

e. Ellipsoidal

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38
Q
  1. In regards to joint stability what is the correct relationship?
    a. Weaker joint, less movement
    b. Stronger joint, less movement
    c. Weaker joint, more movement
    d. Stronger joint, more movement
    e. Two of the above
A

e. Two of the above

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39
Q

Which of the following is not an accessory structure of support for a diarthroidial joint?

a. Ligament
b. Tendon
c. Fat pad
d. Blood vessel
e. All of the above are supporting structures

A

d. Blood vessel

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40
Q
  1. A syndesmosis becomes a synostosis when it calcifies.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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41
Q
  1. A first class lever is organized how?
    a. Resistance, fulcrum, force
    b. Fulcrum, resistance, force
    c. Force, resistance, fulcrum
    d. Resistance, force, fulcrum
    e. None of the above
A

a. Resistance, fulcrum, force

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42
Q
  1. An example of a third class lever is what?
    a. Nodding your head
    b. Raising up on your toes
    c. Flexing your elbow
    d. Blinking
    e. None of the above
A

c. Flexing your elbow

43
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
    a. Automaticity- pacemaker
    b. Responds to nervous system to quicken pace or slow
    c. Contractions last longer than skeletal
    d. No wave summation
    e. Muscle fibers end in aperneurosis
A

e. Muscle fibers end in aperneurosis

44
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles is a good example of a convergent muscle?
    a. Sartorius
    b. Gracillis
    c. Rectus Femoris
    d. Pectoralis Major
    e. Deltoid
A

d. Pectoralis Major

45
Q
  1. During activities requiring aerobic endurance
    a. Oxygen debts are common
    b. Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria
    c. Fatigue occurs in a few minutes
    d. Oxygen is not required
    e. Glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of energy
A

b. Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a cause of muscle fatigue?
    a. Depletion of metabolic reserves
    b. Damage to the sarcolemma
    c. Decline in pH within the muscle fibers
    d. High concentration of ATP
    e. Sense or weariness
A

d. High concentration of ATP

47
Q
  1. In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?
    a. Acetylcholine
    b. Sodium ions
    c. Hydrogen ions
    d. ATP
    e. Calcium ions
A

e. Calcium ions

48
Q
  1. When calcium ions binds to troponin,
    a. Tropomyosin rotates out of the way
    b. Active sites on the myosin are exposed
    c. Actin heads will bind to myosin
    d. Muscle relaxation occurs
    e. Muosin shortens
A

a. Tropomyosin rotates out of the way

49
Q
  1. The thin filament contains all of the following components except?
    a. Actin
    b. Troponin
    c. Myosin
    d. Tropomyosin
    e. G- actin
A

c. Myosin

50
Q
  1. The action of a muscle contraction occurs in the sarcomere at which location?
    a. Zone of overlap
    b. M line
    c. Z line
    d. Titin
    e. None of the above
A

a. Zone of overlap

51
Q
  1. Which of the following does not describe a fast fiber?
    a. White
    b. Fast Fatigue
    c. Anaerobic
    d. High in myoglobin
    e. All describe the fast fiber
A

d. High in myoglobin

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is best described by this statement? “muscle fiber goes through a latent/ contraction/ full relaxation period.
    a. Wave summation
    b. Tetany
    c. Twitch
    d. Treppe
A

c. Twitch

53
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles is a good example of a multipenate muscle?
    a. Sartorius
    b. Gracillis
    c. Rectus Femoris
    d. Pectoralis Major
    e. Deltoid
A

e. Deltoid

54
Q
  1. In a sarcomere, what lines converge on each other during a contraction
    a. M-line
    b. Z-line
    c. H band
    d. I band
    e. None of the above
A

b. Z-line

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is false
    a. Cardiac muscle contractions cannot be summated
    b. Skeletal muscle contractions may be summated
    c. Skeletal muscle control is neural
    d. Cardiac muscle control is neural
    e. Cardiocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs
A

d. Cardiac muscle control is neural

56
Q
  1. The basic functional unit of the nervous system is which of the following?
    a. Neuroglia
    b. Receptor
    c. Neurotransmitter
    d. Neuron
    e. Neuralgia
A

d. Neuron

57
Q
  1. What is the name of the supporting cells that separate and protect the nervous system cells?
    a. Neuroglia
    b. Receptor
    c. Neurotransmitter
    d. Neuron
    e. Neuralgia
A

a. Neuroglia

58
Q
  1. This area of the nervous system contains the brain and spinal cord?
    a. Peripheral
    b. Efferent
    c. Central
    d. Afferent
    e. Motor
A

c. Central

59
Q
  1. The Peripheral Nervous system contains what?
    a. Brain and spinal cord
    b. Cranial and Spinal nerves
    c. Afferent only
    d. Efferent only
    e. Autonomic only
A

b. Cranial and Spinal nerves

60
Q
  1. Which division of the nervous system is most directly tied to sensory information? Choose the best answer.
    a. Efferent
    b. Sensory
    c. Visceral
    d. Afferent
    e. None of the above
A

d. Afferent

61
Q
  1. What is the resting potential charge of a nerve cell?
    a. -90
    b. -55
    c. -70
    d. +30
    e. 0
A

c. -70

62
Q
  1. In the all or nothing principle which of the following charges would result in an action potential?
    a. -65
    b. -70
    c. -90
    d. -50
    e. -120
A

d. -50

63
Q
  1. With regard to action potential propagation, which of the following statements is true?
    a. Action potentials begin by sodium gates closing and potassium gates opening
    b. Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.
    c. Action potentials begin at the dendrites of the cell body and travel down to the next cell
    d. Action potentials occur when a nerve is at -90mV
    e. None of the above is true.
A

b. Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.

64
Q
  1. An action potential moving down the axon in a jumping fashion is termed what?
    a. Saltatory
    b. Station to station
    c. Continuous
    d. Localized
    e. None of the above
A

a. Saltatory

65
Q
  1. What is the most common neurotransmitter in the human body?
    a. Epinepherine
    b. Dopamine
    c. Acytelcholine
    d. Seratonin
    e. L-transferase
A

c. Acytelcholine

66
Q
  1. The dorsal root ganglion is made up of what structures?
    a. Cell bodies
    b. Axons
    c. Dendrites
    d. Synaptic clefts
    e. None of the above
A

a. Cell bodies

67
Q
  1. Which space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
    a. Subarachnoid space
    b. Subpia space
    c. Subdural space
    d. Epidural space
    e. None of the above
A

a. Subarachnoid space

68
Q
  1. Dorsal rami innervate which parts of the body?
    a. Posterior wall
    b. limbs
    c. organs
    d. Anterior wall
    e. None of the above
A

a. Posterior wall

69
Q
  1. What does the union of the ventral and dorsal roots form?
    a. Cranial nerves
    b. Sympathetic nerves
    c. Parasympathetic nerves
    d. Spinal nerves
    e. None of the above
A

d. Spinal nerves

70
Q
  1. Which plexus supplies the arms?
    a. Cervical
    b. Brachial
    c. Lumbar
    d. Sacral
    e. None of the above
A

b. Brachial

71
Q
  1. Somatic Motor information is found in which horn of the spinal cord?
    a. Posterior
    b. Lateral
    c. Anterior
    d. Superior
    e. Inferior
A

c. Anterior

72
Q
  1. Afferent information is most likely tied to which gray horn?
    a. Posterior
    b. Lateral
    c. Anterior
    d. Superior
    e. Inferior
A

a. Posterior

73
Q
  1. What is the outer layer of the peripheral nerve’s connective tissue called?
    a. Endoneurium
    b. Perineurium
    c. Echoneurium
    d. Epineurium
    e. Myelin Sheath
A

d. Epineurium

74
Q
  1. What nerve controls the diaphragm?
    a. Vagus
    b. Diaphgragmatic
    c. Sciatic
    d. Long Thoracic
    e. Phrenic
A

e. Phrenic

75
Q
  1. What is the term for a rapid, automatic response to a specific stimuli?
    a. Perception
    b. Reflex
    c. Neuronal Pool
    d. Thought
    e. Memory
A

b. Reflex

76
Q
  1. The conscious awareness of a sensation is called what?
    a. Sensationalism
    b. Equilibrium
    c. Olfaction
    d. Perception
    e. Interception
A

d. Perception

77
Q
  1. Which is not a mechanoreceptor?
    a. Nocioceptor
    b. Tactile
    c. Baroreceptor
    d. Proprioceptor
    e. Lamellated corpuscle
A

a. Nocioceptor

78
Q
  1. Lower motor neurons cell bodies are found in which part of the body?
    a. Spinal cord
    b. Cerebrum
    c. Brain stem
    d. Two of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. Two of the above

79
Q
  1. Which pathway is responsible for gross motor movement of the neck, trunk, and proximal limbs?
    a. Lateral
    b. Medial
    c. Corticospinal
    d. Corticocellebelar
    e. None of the above
A

b. Medial

80
Q
  1. Which corpuscle is deep in the dermis and shows little to any adaptation?
    a. Tactile corpuscles
    b. Tactile discs
    c. Ruffini corpuscles
    d. Lamellated corpuscles
    e. None of the above
A

c. Ruffini corpuscles

81
Q
  1. Which mechanoreceptor is found on the cornea of the eye?
    a. Root hair plexus
    b. Free nerve endings
    c. Ruffini Corpuscles
    d. Lamellated corpuscles
    e. Merkel cells
A

b. Free nerve endings

82
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a location for proprioceptors ?
    a. Skeletal muscle
    b. Tendon
    c. Joint capsule
    d. Aortic bodies
    e. All of the above are locations
A

d. Aortic bodies

83
Q
  1. In the posterior columns, which fasciculus handles the lower body?
    a. Fasciculus cuneatus
    b. Fasciculus femoris
    c. Fasciculus brachialis
    d. Fasciculus gracilis
    e. Fasciculus piriformis
A

d. Fasciculus gracilis

84
Q
  1. Which sensory tract can be overstimulated to carry referred pain?
    a. Posterior Column
    b. Anterior spinothalamic tract
    c. Sensory homunculus
    d. Lateral spinothalamic tract
    e. None of the above
A

d. Lateral spinothalamic tract

85
Q
  1. Where is the motor homunculus located?
    a. Postcentral Gyrus
    b. Prefrontal Cortex
    c. Precentral Gyrus
    d. Occipitoprietal Gyrus
    e. None of the above
A

c. Precentral Gyrus

86
Q
  1. The sympathetic division of the ANS arises from which area?
    a. Thoracolumbar
    b. Cervicosacral
    c. Thoracosacral
    d. Cervicolumbar
    e. None of the above
A

a. Thoracolumbar

87
Q
  1. The sympathetic division is responsible of doing what to somatic activity?
    a. Lowering
    b. Destroying
    c. Increasing
    d. Absolutely nothing
    e. Maintaining current levels
A

c. Increasing

88
Q
  1. Nor epinephrine is used as the postganglionic neurotransmitter, what is used as the preganglionic neurotransmitter?
    a. Nor epinephrine
    b. Epinephrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. Acetylcholine
    e. Transmitophine
A

d. Acetylcholine

89
Q
  1. Parasympathetic activity increasing does which of the following?
    a. Conserves energy
    b. Is a couch potatoe
    c. Is responsible for rest and response
    d. Stores energy
    e. All are actions of increased stimulation
A

e. All are actions of increased stimulation

90
Q
  1. The parasympathetic division is also called what?
    a. Craniosacral
    b. Thoracolumbar
    c. Hyperactive
    d. ADD
    e. None of the above
A

a. Craniosacral

91
Q
  1. Where do most of the parasympathetic nerve fibers run in?
    a. Cranial nerves
    b. Lumbar nerves
    c. Intercostal nerves
    d. None of the above
A

a. Cranial nerves

92
Q
  1. Which is not a functional characteristic of Higher-Order functions?

a. Not part of the programmed brain
b. Modification and adjustments may be made over time
c. Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.
d. The cerebral cortex is required
e. Involves both conscious and unconscious information processing

A

c. Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.

93
Q
  1. What is the name of the process by which we convert short-term memories into long-term ones?
    a. Constriction
    b. Consolidation
    c. Impaction
    d. Grouping
A

b. Consolidation

94
Q
  1. What is the order of the cranial meninges from internal to external?
    a. Dura, pia, arachnoid
    b. Pia, dura arachnoid
    c. Dura, arachnoid, pia
    d. Arachnoid, dura, pia
    e. Pia, arachnoid, dura
A

e. Pia, arachnoid, dura

95
Q
  1. Which is not a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
    a. Cushioning delicate structures
    b. Supporting the brain
    c. Transporting nutrients
    d. Transporting waste products
    e. All of the above are functions
A

e. All of the above are functions

96
Q
  1. The pons holds sites for which of the following?
    a. Cranial nerves V,VI,VII,VIII
    b. Adjustments to the respiratory centers of the Medulla
    c. Relay centers for the cerebellum
    d. None of the above
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

97
Q
  1. The medulla oblongata controls which of the following?
    a. Cardiac and respiratory
    b. Cardiac and urinary
    c. Respiratory and urinary
    d. Hunger
    e. Emotional distress
A

a. Cardiac and respiratory

98
Q
  1. The hypothalamus does not control which of the following?
    a. Feeding reflexes
    b. Controls the pituitary gland
    c. Secretes AntiDiuretic Hormone
    d. Secretes Oxcytocin
    e. It controls all of the above
A

e. It controls all of the above

99
Q
  1. If a person has a cerebral stroke on the left side, which muscular side of the body will be affected?
    a. Right side
    b. Ipsilateral side
    c. Left side
    d. Dorsal side
    e. None of the above would be affected
A

a. Right side

100
Q
  1. Which lobe of the cerebrum holds the pre-motor cortex for formation of muscular movements?
    a. Parietal lobe
    b. Frontal lobe
    c. Occipital lobe
    d. Temporal lobe
    e. Ethmoidal lobe
A

b. Frontal lobe

101
Q
  1. Most afferent information from the thalamus gets distributed to which of the following areas?
    a. Precentral gyrus
    b. Postcentral gyrus
    c. Occipital
    d. Temporal
    e. All of the above
A

b. Postcentral gyrus

102
Q
  1. Which cranial nerve is primarily a sensory only nerve?
    a. VII
    b. XII
    c. VIII
    d. X
    e. III
A

c. VIII

103
Q
  1. What is the name of the cranial nerve that controls almost all the thoracic and abdominal organs?
    a. Optic
    b. Vagus
    c. Facial
    d. Trigeminal
    e. Hypoglossal
A

b. Vagus

A&P 1 (28 decks)

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