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Technique ST > Final's Technique Questions > Flashcards

Final's Technique Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called a(n)

A

stockinette

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2
Q

An informed consent

A

. protects the surgeolL and the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation
. authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital

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3
Q

The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT

A

the patient’s spouse

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4
Q

Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Kraske

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5
Q

In positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed

A

longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

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6
Q

The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lies with the

A

surgeon

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7
Q

A position often used in cranial procedures is called

A

Fowler’s

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8
Q

Any area that is considered contaminated

A

should be scrubbed last or separately

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9
Q

Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT

A

Answer: firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures

Correct other options:
. utilization of skin-stay sutures
. hyperextension of the neck
. modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder rol

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10
Q

Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?

A

. skeletal changes
. limited range of motion of joints
. tissue fragility

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11
Q

The surgical consent is signed

A

before administration of preoperative medications

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12
Q

All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT

A

Answer: a sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing

. instruments or sutures hanging over the table edge are discarded
. sterile persons pass each other back to back
. wrapper edges are unsterile

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13
Q

In which position would shoulder braces be indicted?

A

extreme Trendelenburg

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14
Q

The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to

A

Answer: cancel surgery until a valid permission can be obtained

. let the surgeon make the decision as to whether surgery could be done
. ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to it
. have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room

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15
Q

A grounding pad is not required for the electrocautery in

A

a bipolar unit

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16
Q

The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the

A

holding area of the OR

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17
Q

While a surgical case is in progress

A

doors should remain closed

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18
Q

The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove a mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should

A

report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority

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19
Q

Which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?

A

gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient

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20
Q

Drapes are

A

placed on a dry area

Not:
. unfolded before being carried to OR table
. passed across the table to surgeon along with towel clips
. adjusted after placement for correct position

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21
Q

The active electrode on the electrocautery is the

A

tip

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22
Q

When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?

A

patient’s body does not touch metal on table
equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient
bony prominences are padded

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23
Q

A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is

A

stockinette

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24
Q

In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted

A

from the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion

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25
Q

At what point should the surgeon be informed of the time of tourniquet application?

A

after 1 hour, then every 15 minutes

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26
Q

The following statements regarding a grounding plate for electrosurgery are true EXCEPT

A

Answer: the plate must be placed directly over a bony prominence

. the plate must be lubricated with electro surgical gel
the plate must have good contact with the patient’s skin
the grounded pathway returns the electrical current to the unit after the surgeon delivers it to the operative
Site

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27
Q

The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to an arm is

A

250-300 mm Hg

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28
Q

Suction tubing should be processed in the following way

A

residual of distilled water in lumen, stearn sterilize, tubing coiled

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29
Q

The inactive electrode of the cautery is the

A

ground pad

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30
Q

In electrosurgery, “buzzing” refers to

A

coagulation of vessel via a metal instrument touching the active electrode

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31
Q

Which statement regarding the withdrawal of a consent by a patient is NOT true?

A

Answer: the surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure

. the surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient
You Answered
the surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out
the surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient’s refusal

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32
Q

Why are only moist sponges utilized during electrocautery use?

A

to prevent fire

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33
Q

Exsanguination of a limb before tourniquet inflation is accomplished with wrapping the elevated extremity with

A

Esmarch

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34
Q

Which suction tip has an angle and is used in the mouth or throat?

A

Yankauer

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35
Q

A dropped sterile item may only be used if the

A

wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry

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36
Q

When using lasers, nomeflective instrumentation

A

decreases accidental direct reflection of the laser beam to another area

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37
Q

Chest rolls (bolsters)

A

facilitate respiration

Not:
. minimize pressure on abdominal organs
secure position
minimize pressure on bony prominences

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38
Q

Sponges and towels used near the laser tissue impact site are kept wet in order to

A

prevent ignition of these materials by reflected beam

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39
Q

Which statement is true regarding a STERIS system for endoscope sterilization?

A

Answer: only one scope or a few instruments can be processed in a cycle

not:
. it is not sporicidal
it is very costly
the processing time is lengthy

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40
Q

Ebonization refers to

A

coating of instruments to decrease reflectivity

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41
Q

A Babcock is used to

A

grasp delicate structures

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42
Q

In which procedural setup would aT-tube be found?

A

exploration of the common bile duct

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43
Q

The Bookwalter is a _______________ instrument.

A

retracting

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44
Q

A small fine needle holder used in plastic surgery is a

A

Webster

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45
Q

A sponge used in brain surgery is a(n)

A

cottonoid patty

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46
Q

Placement of a Levin tube would be in the

A

stomach

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47
Q

Which case would require the use of cottonoid strips?

A

laminectomy

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48
Q

A dissecting sponge that is a small roll of heavy cotton tape is a

A

Kitner

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49
Q

A stab wound is a separate small incision

A

close to operative site

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50
Q

A dissecting sponge made of gauze that is used to dissect or absorb fluid is called a

A

peanut

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51
Q

Which of the following can be a supplement to a subcuticular closure?

A

skin closure tape

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52
Q

A dressing that is held in place by long suture ends crisscrossed and tied is called a

A

stent

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53
Q

An Auvard is a

A

speculum

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54
Q

A catheter commonly used in a gastrostomy is a

A

mushroom

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55
Q

Patties are

A

moistened with saline

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56
Q

The drain that has a reservoir creating negative pressure to facilitate drainage is a

A

hemovac

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57
Q

All of the following statements are true of ureteral catheters EXCEPT that they

A

Answer: provide direct visualization of the bladder

range in caliber from size 3 to 14 French
have graduated markings in centimeters
are made of flexible woven nylon or plastic

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58
Q

A closed-wound suction system works by

A

negative-pressure vacuum

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59
Q

A Pezzer is a

A

mushroom catheter

60
Q

The following statements regarding counts are true EXCEPT

A

Answer: the relief scrub or circulator does not need to repeat count if only one of them is relieved

. persons taking final count must sign the count record
persons taking final count are held accountable
all counts are verified before person being relieved leaves room

61
Q

Which factor is not accomplished by chest drainage?

A

Answer: positive pressure re-establishmen

Other Right Answers:
. suction controlled by level of water
. drains fluid and air from pleural cavity
. provides water seal for gravity drainag

62
Q

The initial count requires

A

that the count be done aloud by circulator and scrub

63
Q

The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and

A

continuous irrigation

64
Q

If a sponge is intentionally left in the patient

A

a notation is placed on the operative record

65
Q

If a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges, the circulating nurse should

A

isolate the pack, do not use it

66
Q

Which of the following statements concerning sponges are true EXCEPT

A

Answer: a count is unnecessary in a vaginal procedure

Other Correct Options:
. only radiopaque sponges should be used on the sterile field
. a pack containing an incorrect number of sponges is discarded
. sponges should be counted from the folded edge

67
Q

During the closure count a discrepancy

A

is reported to surgeon

68
Q

The following statements regarding counting sponges are true EXCEPT

A

Answer: an incorrect number of sponges in a pack should be compensated for on count sheet with a notation

Other Correct Options:
. separate each sponge and number aloud while placing it in a pile on table
. shake pack to separate sponges
. sponges are counted at folded edge

69
Q

In an instrument count

A

all instruments and parts must be counted

70
Q

During the sponge count procedures, which action would constitute an UNACCEPTABLE technique?

A

soiled sponges used for prep remain in kick bucket and are not part of count

71
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy is important because it establishes a hierarchy of ____.

A

needs

72
Q

Omission or commission of an act that is related to normal patient care is the most common cause of a charge of ____.

A

negligence

73
Q

If a patient asks what you do, you should ____.

A

explain in simple factual language

74
Q

The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as ____.

A

bioburden

75
Q

Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.

A

sterile technique

76
Q

What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse environmental conditions?

A

spore

77
Q

Most surgical infections occur because of ____.

A

contamination during the procedure

78
Q

The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.

A

surgical team

78
Q

A surgical procedure involving perforated viscera is classified as a ____.

A

class IV, dirty wound

79
Q

Infection contracted within the health care setting is known as ____.

A

nosocomial

80
Q

Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?

A

may NOT be recapped

81
Q

The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.

A

sterilization

82
Q

A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.

A

enzyme

83
Q

The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.

A

surgical conscience

84
Q

Which of the following tasks is not assigned to adolescence?

A

Answer: select life-long partner

Other Options:
. establish sex role behavior with peers of both sexes
form a new sense of identity
separate from parents emotionally

85
Q

The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.

A

taking preoperative medications

86
Q

Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?

A

salt will pit the stainless steel

87
Q

The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an

A

mechanical decontamination unit

88
Q

The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.

A

ultrasonic washer

89
Q

To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?

A

separate with towel

90
Q

In many instances a patient may be given a preoperative medication to ____.

A

reduce anxiety and nausea

91
Q

The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.

A

aspiration

92
Q

Which of the following must be performed in order for the patient to sign the informed consent?

A

risks and benefits described

93
Q

When identifying a patient, the patient’s verbal identification is compared to the ____.

A

patient’s identification band

94
Q

Patients should be transported slowly and ____.

A

feet first

95
Q

Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.

A

hypothermia

96
Q

When transporting a patient on a stretcher or in a bed, the side rails should be ____.

A

up and locked

97
Q

When moving an unconscious patient to the lateral position, how many individuals should be used to turn the patient?

A

four

98
Q

The first patient complaint about the operating room is the ____.

A

room is cold

99
Q

Once placed on the operating table, the patient may never be ____.

A

left alone

100
Q

In the prone position, the safety belt should be over the ____.

A

thighs

101
Q

The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on the ____.

A

lower abdomen and pelvis

102
Q

Plain gut, chromic gut, PDS II, and Monocryl are examples of ____.

A

monofilament absorbable sutures

103
Q

Perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgery is usually performed with the patient in what position?

A

lithotomy

104
Q

Fowler’s position can be used for surgical procedures on the ____.

A

shoulder

105
Q

During urethral catheterization, which hand is used to expose the meatus?

A

the nondominant hand

106
Q

To prevent bladder distension during long procedures, the surgical patient may receive a(n) ____.

A

indwelling urinary catheter

107
Q

Which of the following is considered a contaminated area when performing the skin prep?

A

vagina

108
Q

What is the general rule for prepping contaminated areas?

A

contaminated area las

109
Q

What is the most commonly used hemostatic device?

A

electrocautery

110
Q

During a cardiac arrest in the operating room, the primary role of the STSR is to ____.

A

protect the sterile field

111
Q

NPO can be defined as

A

Patient must refrain from eating
Patient must refgrain from drinking
Nothing by mouth

112
Q

All of the following can be used to identify a patient except?

A

Answer: OR personnel

Other correct options:
Patient’s chart
Checking wristband
Verbally asking the patient

113
Q

A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.

A

epinephrine

114
Q

A minor may sign his or her operative consent form is he or she is:

A

Emancipated

115
Q

Adult patients are most commonly transported to the OR by which of the following?

A

Guerney

116
Q

Which of the following might the patient be allowed to wear to OR before being administered anesthesia?

A

Dentures
Eye glasses
Hearing aid

117
Q

If significant blood loss is expected to occur during surgery, when might a patient avoid doing typing & cross matching?

A

. When cellsaver is used.
. When family members donate blood in the patient’s name.

118
Q

A sedated patient may sign for his operative consent if:

A

He may never sign.

119
Q

About 40% of nosocomial infections are caused by:

A

Contamination of an inserted catheter

120
Q

Drapes that have an adhesive backing that can be impregnated with an antimicrobial iodine agent are called ____.

A

incise

121
Q

What item disperses the current and heat generated by the electrosurgical unit in tissue?

A

grounding pad

122
Q

Drapes that have openings for exposure of the area to be incised are ____.

A

fenestrated

123
Q

All of the following are purposes of the preoperative patient routine except?

A

To intimidate the patient

124
Q

General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.

A

laparotomy

125
Q

The type of surgical dressing that eliminates dead space and prevents edema or postoperative bleeding is called ____.

A

pressure

126
Q

Which of the following is used for wounds that require frequent dressing changes?

A

Montgomery strap

127
Q

Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is ____.

A

second intention

128
Q

Which of the following is used to irrigate wounds, aspirate fluids, or inject medications?

A

syringe

129
Q

What machine infuses CO2 gas into the abdominal cavity?

A

insufflator

130
Q

The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called ____.

A

dehiscence

131
Q

Which of the following is used on a wound that has been primarily closed and from which little or no drainage is expected?

A

one-layer dressing

132
Q

The suture diameter is referred to as the ____ .

A

gauge

133
Q

Surgical silk is a ____

A

multifilament nonabsorbable suture

134
Q

How much fluid is required to inflate the indwelling Foley catheter 5-cc balloon?

A

10-cc

135
Q

Occlusive adherent polyurethane, liquid collodion, and aerosol adhesive sprays are examples of ____.

A

one-layer dressings

136
Q

Which of the following sutures is absorbable?

A

Dexon

137
Q

A stapler used to insert two straight, evenly spaced, side-by-side rows of staples into tissue is a/an ____ stapler.

A

linear

138
Q

The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as:

A

Evisceration

Evisceration is the rupture of a wound with the spilling of contents.

139
Q

Which suture is a monofilament?

A

Maxon

140
Q

Pieces of plastic or rubber tubing threaded over the retention suture ends prior to tying are called ____.

A

bolsters

141
Q

Which synthetic mesh may be used in the presence of infection?

A

Prolene

142
Q

The EEA surgical stapler is used for:

A

Anastomosis of proximal colon to rectum

The EEA surgical stapler is used for anastomosis of the proximal colon to rectum.

143
Q

Which factor is not accomplished by chest drainage?

A

positive pressure re-establishment

144
Q

Which suture absorbs the fastest?

A

chromic gut

145
Q

A characteristic of polyglycolic acid sutures is they are:

A

Absorbable

Polyglycolic acid suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease its absorbability.

146
Q

The final wound classification is assigned when ____.

A

the procedure is finished

Technique ST (25 decks)

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