Final's Technique Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called a(n)
A
stockinette
2
Q
An informed consent
A
. protects the surgeolL and the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation
. authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital
3
Q
The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT
A
the patient’s spouse
4
Q
Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?
A
Kraske
5
Q
In positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed
A
longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip
6
Q
The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lies with the
A
surgeon
7
Q
A position often used in cranial procedures is called
A
Fowler’s
8
Q
Any area that is considered contaminated
A
should be scrubbed last or separately
9
Q
Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT
A
Answer: firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures
Correct other options:
. utilization of skin-stay sutures
. hyperextension of the neck
. modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder rol
10
Q
Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?
A
. skeletal changes
. limited range of motion of joints
. tissue fragility
11
Q
The surgical consent is signed
A
before administration of preoperative medications
12
Q
All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT
A
Answer: a sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing
. instruments or sutures hanging over the table edge are discarded
. sterile persons pass each other back to back
. wrapper edges are unsterile
13
Q
In which position would shoulder braces be indicted?
A
extreme Trendelenburg
14
Q
The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to
A
Answer: cancel surgery until a valid permission can be obtained
. let the surgeon make the decision as to whether surgery could be done
. ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to it
. have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room
15
Q
A grounding pad is not required for the electrocautery in
A
a bipolar unit
16
Q
The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the
A
holding area of the OR
17
Q
While a surgical case is in progress
A
doors should remain closed
18
Q
The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove a mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should
A
report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority
19
Q
Which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?
A
gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient
20
Q
Drapes are
A
placed on a dry area
Not:
. unfolded before being carried to OR table
. passed across the table to surgeon along with towel clips
. adjusted after placement for correct position
21
Q
The active electrode on the electrocautery is the
A
tip
22
Q
When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?
A
patient’s body does not touch metal on table
equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient
bony prominences are padded
23
Q
A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is
A
stockinette
24
Q
In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted
A
from the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion
25
At what point should the surgeon be informed of the time of tourniquet application?
after 1 hour, then every 15 minutes
26
The following statements regarding a grounding plate for electrosurgery are true EXCEPT
Answer: the plate must be placed directly over a bony prominence
. the plate must be lubricated with electro surgical gel
the plate must have good contact with the patient's skin
the grounded pathway returns the electrical current to the unit after the surgeon delivers it to the operative
Site
27
The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to an arm is
250-300 mm Hg
28
Suction tubing should be processed in the following way
residual of distilled water in lumen, stearn sterilize, tubing coiled
29
The inactive electrode of the cautery is the
ground pad
30
In electrosurgery, "buzzing" refers to
coagulation of vessel via a metal instrument touching the active electrode
31
Which statement regarding the withdrawal of a consent by a patient is NOT true?
Answer: the surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure
. the surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient
You Answered
the surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out
the surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal
32
Why are only moist sponges utilized during electrocautery use?
to prevent fire
33
Exsanguination of a limb before tourniquet inflation is accomplished with wrapping the elevated extremity with
Esmarch
34
Which suction tip has an angle and is used in the mouth or throat?
Yankauer
35
A dropped sterile item may only be used if the
wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry
36
When using lasers, nomeflective instrumentation
decreases accidental direct reflection of the laser beam to another area
37
Chest rolls (bolsters)
facilitate respiration
Not:
. minimize pressure on abdominal organs
secure position
minimize pressure on bony prominences
38
Sponges and towels used near the laser tissue impact site are kept wet in order to
prevent ignition of these materials by reflected beam
39
Which statement is true regarding a STERIS system for endoscope sterilization?
Answer: only one scope or a few instruments can be processed in a cycle
not:
. it is not sporicidal
it is very costly
the processing time is lengthy
40
Ebonization refers to
coating of instruments to decrease reflectivity
41
A Babcock is used to
grasp delicate structures
42
In which procedural setup would aT-tube be found?
exploration of the common bile duct
43
The Bookwalter is a _______________ instrument.
retracting
44
A small fine needle holder used in plastic surgery is a
Webster
45
A sponge used in brain surgery is a(n)
cottonoid patty
46
Placement of a Levin tube would be in the
stomach
47
Which case would require the use of cottonoid strips?
laminectomy
48
A dissecting sponge that is a small roll of heavy cotton tape is a
Kitner
49
A stab wound is a separate small incision
close to operative site
50
A dissecting sponge made of gauze that is used to dissect or absorb fluid is called a
peanut
51
Which of the following can be a supplement to a subcuticular closure?
skin closure tape
52
A dressing that is held in place by long suture ends crisscrossed and tied is called a
stent
53
An Auvard is a
speculum
54
A catheter commonly used in a gastrostomy is a
mushroom
55
Patties are
moistened with saline
56
The drain that has a reservoir creating negative pressure to facilitate drainage is a
hemovac
57
All of the following statements are true of ureteral catheters EXCEPT that they
Answer: provide direct visualization of the bladder
range in caliber from size 3 to 14 French
have graduated markings in centimeters
are made of flexible woven nylon or plastic
58
A closed-wound suction system works by
negative-pressure vacuum
59
A Pezzer is a
mushroom catheter
60
The following statements regarding counts are true EXCEPT
Answer: the relief scrub or circulator does not need to repeat count if only one of them is relieved
. persons taking final count must sign the count record
persons taking final count are held accountable
all counts are verified before person being relieved leaves room
61
Which factor is not accomplished by chest drainage?
Answer: positive pressure re-establishmen
Other Right Answers:
. suction controlled by level of water
. drains fluid and air from pleural cavity
. provides water seal for gravity drainag
62
The initial count requires
that the count be done aloud by circulator and scrub
63
The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and
continuous irrigation
64
If a sponge is intentionally left in the patient
a notation is placed on the operative record
65
If a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges, the circulating nurse should
isolate the pack, do not use it
66
Which of the following statements concerning sponges are true EXCEPT
Answer: a count is unnecessary in a vaginal procedure
Other Correct Options:
. only radiopaque sponges should be used on the sterile field
. a pack containing an incorrect number of sponges is discarded
. sponges should be counted from the folded edge
67
During the closure count a discrepancy
is reported to surgeon
68
The following statements regarding counting sponges are true EXCEPT
Answer: an incorrect number of sponges in a pack should be compensated for on count sheet with a notation
Other Correct Options:
. separate each sponge and number aloud while placing it in a pile on table
. shake pack to separate sponges
. sponges are counted at folded edge
69
In an instrument count
all instruments and parts must be counted
70
During the sponge count procedures, which action would constitute an UNACCEPTABLE technique?
soiled sponges used for prep remain in kick bucket and are not part of count
71
Maslow’s hierarchy is important because it establishes a hierarchy of ____.
needs
72
Omission or commission of an act that is related to normal patient care is the most common cause of a charge of ____.
negligence
73
If a patient asks what you do, you should ____.
explain in simple factual language
74
The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as ____.
bioburden
75
Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.
sterile technique
76
What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse environmental conditions?
spore
77
Most surgical infections occur because of ____.
contamination during the procedure
78
The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.
surgical team
78
A surgical procedure involving perforated viscera is classified as a ____.
class IV, dirty wound
79
Infection contracted within the health care setting is known as ____.
nosocomial
80
Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?
may NOT be recapped
81
The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.
sterilization
82
A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.
enzyme
83
The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.
surgical conscience
84
Which of the following tasks is not assigned to adolescence?
Answer: select life-long partner
Other Options:
. establish sex role behavior with peers of both sexes
form a new sense of identity
separate from parents emotionally
85
The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.
taking preoperative medications
86
Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?
salt will pit the stainless steel
87
The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an
mechanical decontamination unit
88
The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
ultrasonic washer
89
To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?
separate with towel
90
In many instances a patient may be given a preoperative medication to ____.
reduce anxiety and nausea
91
The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.
aspiration
92
Which of the following must be performed in order for the patient to sign the informed consent?
risks and benefits described
93
When identifying a patient, the patient’s verbal identification is compared to the ____.
patient’s identification band
94
Patients should be transported slowly and ____.
feet first
95
Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.
hypothermia
96
When transporting a patient on a stretcher or in a bed, the side rails should be ____.
up and locked
97
When moving an unconscious patient to the lateral position, how many individuals should be used to turn the patient?
four
98
The first patient complaint about the operating room is the ____.
room is cold
99
Once placed on the operating table, the patient may never be ____.
left alone
100
In the prone position, the safety belt should be over the ____.
thighs
101
The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on the ____.
lower abdomen and pelvis
102
Plain gut, chromic gut, PDS II, and Monocryl are examples of ____.
monofilament absorbable sutures
103
Perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgery is usually performed with the patient in what position?
lithotomy
104
Fowler’s position can be used for surgical procedures on the ____.
shoulder
105
During urethral catheterization, which hand is used to expose the meatus?
the nondominant hand
106
To prevent bladder distension during long procedures, the surgical patient may receive a(n) ____.
indwelling urinary catheter
107
Which of the following is considered a contaminated area when performing the skin prep?
vagina
108
What is the general rule for prepping contaminated areas?
contaminated area las
109
What is the most commonly used hemostatic device?
electrocautery
110
During a cardiac arrest in the operating room, the primary role of the STSR is to ____.
protect the sterile field
111
NPO can be defined as
Patient must refrain from eating
Patient must refgrain from drinking
Nothing by mouth
112
All of the following can be used to identify a patient except?
Answer: OR personnel
Other correct options:
Patient’s chart
Checking wristband
Verbally asking the patient
113
A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.
epinephrine
114
A minor may sign his or her operative consent form is he or she is:
Emancipated
115
Adult patients are most commonly transported to the OR by which of the following?
Guerney
116
Which of the following might the patient be allowed to wear to OR before being administered anesthesia?
Dentures
Eye glasses
Hearing aid
117
If significant blood loss is expected to occur during surgery, when might a patient avoid doing typing & cross matching?
. When cellsaver is used.
. When family members donate blood in the patient’s name.
118
A sedated patient may sign for his operative consent if:
He may never sign.
119
About 40% of nosocomial infections are caused by:
Contamination of an inserted catheter
120
Drapes that have an adhesive backing that can be impregnated with an antimicrobial iodine agent are called ____.
incise
121
What item disperses the current and heat generated by the electrosurgical unit in tissue?
grounding pad
122
Drapes that have openings for exposure of the area to be incised are ____.
fenestrated
123
All of the following are purposes of the preoperative patient routine except?
To intimidate the patient
124
General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.
laparotomy
125
The type of surgical dressing that eliminates dead space and prevents edema or postoperative bleeding is called ____.
pressure
126
Which of the following is used for wounds that require frequent dressing changes?
Montgomery strap
127
Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is ____.
second intention
128
Which of the following is used to irrigate wounds, aspirate fluids, or inject medications?
syringe
129
What machine infuses CO2 gas into the abdominal cavity?
insufflator
130
The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called ____.
dehiscence
131
Which of the following is used on a wound that has been primarily closed and from which little or no drainage is expected?
one-layer dressing
132
The suture diameter is referred to as the ____ .
gauge
133
Surgical silk is a ____
multifilament nonabsorbable suture
134
How much fluid is required to inflate the indwelling Foley catheter 5-cc balloon?
10-cc
135
Occlusive adherent polyurethane, liquid collodion, and aerosol adhesive sprays are examples of ____.
one-layer dressings
136
Which of the following sutures is absorbable?
Dexon
137
A stapler used to insert two straight, evenly spaced, side-by-side rows of staples into tissue is a/an ____ stapler.
linear
138
The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as:
Evisceration
Evisceration is the rupture of a wound with the spilling of contents.
139
Which suture is a monofilament?
Maxon
140
Pieces of plastic or rubber tubing threaded over the retention suture ends prior to tying are called ____.
bolsters
141
Which synthetic mesh may be used in the presence of infection?
Prolene
142
The EEA surgical stapler is used for:
Anastomosis of proximal colon to rectum
The EEA surgical stapler is used for anastomosis of the proximal colon to rectum.
143
Which factor is not accomplished by chest drainage?
positive pressure re-establishment
144
Which suture absorbs the fastest?
chromic gut
145
A characteristic of polyglycolic acid sutures is they are:
Absorbable
Polyglycolic acid suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease its absorbability.
146
The final wound classification is assigned when ____.
the procedure is finished
