FINAL REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study of body structures you can see with the naked eye?

A

gross anatomy

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2
Q

What is the relative standard position for a body

A

anatomical position

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3
Q

What is the anatomical position

A

body erect, head and toes pointed forward and arms hanging at the sides with palms facing forward

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4
Q

What is the anterior body trunk region inferior to the ribs

A

abdominal

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5
Q

what is the anterior surface of the elbow

A

antecubital

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6
Q

the armpit

A

axillary

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7
Q

the arm

A

brachial

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8
Q

the cheek

A

buccal

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9
Q

the wrist

A

carpal

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10
Q

the neck region

A

cervical

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11
Q

the hip

A

coxal

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12
Q

the roundness of the shoulder caused by the underlying deltoid muscle

A

deltoid

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13
Q

the fingers or toes

A

digital

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14
Q

the thigh

A

femoral

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15
Q

the side of the leg

A

fibular

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16
Q

the groin

A

inguinal

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17
Q

the breast

A

mammary

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18
Q

the hand

A

manus

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19
Q

the nose

A

nasal

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20
Q

the mouth

A

oral

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21
Q

the bony eye socket

A

orbital

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22
Q

the anterior knee region

A

patelar

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23
Q

the pelvis region

A

pelvic

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24
Q

the genital region

A

pubic

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25
Q

the region of the breastbone

A

sternal

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26
Q

the ankle

A

tarsal

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27
Q

the chest

A

thoracic

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28
Q

the naval

A

umbilical

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29
Q

the head

A

cephalic

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30
Q

the buttocks or rump

A

gluteal

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31
Q

the area of the back between the ribs and hips. the loin

A

lumbar

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32
Q

the posterior aspect of the head or base of the skull

A

occipital

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33
Q

the area between the hips

A

sacral

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34
Q

the scapula or shoulder blade area

A

scapular

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35
Q

the calf or posterior surface of the leg

A

sural

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36
Q

the area of the spinal column

A

vertebral

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37
Q

above/below

A

superior/inferior

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38
Q

front/back

A

anterior/posterior

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39
Q

toward the midline/ away from the midline

A

medial/ lateral

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40
Q

toward the head/ toward the tail

A

cephalad/ caudad

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41
Q

backside/ belly side

A

dorsal/ ventral

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42
Q

nearer the trunk or attached end/ farther from the trunk or point of attachment

A

proximal/ distal

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43
Q

toward or at body surface/ away from the body surface or more internal

A

superficial/ deep

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44
Q

a plane that runs lengthwise or longitudinally down the length of the body dividing it into right and left parts

A

saggital plane

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45
Q

a plane down the midline separating left and right is

A

median or midsaggital plane

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46
Q

a longitudinal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

A

frontal plane

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47
Q

a plane that runs horizontally dividing the body into superior and inferior parts

A

transverse planes

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48
Q

what are transverse planes often called

A

cross sections

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49
Q

what is the cavity that contains the brain within the skull

A

cranial cavity

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50
Q

cavity which runs within the bony vertebral column to protect the spinal cord

A

spinal cavity

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51
Q

cavity that is separated from the rest of the ventral cavity by the muscular diaphragm

A

thoracic cavity

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52
Q

cavity inferior to the diaphragm

A

abdominopelvic cavity

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53
Q

cavity that houses the stomach, intestines, liber and other organs

A

andominal cavity

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54
Q

cavity partially enclosed by the bony pelvis and contains the reproductive organs, bladder, and rectume

A

pelvic cavity

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55
Q

four quadrants of abdominopelvic cavity

A

upper right, upper left, lower right, lower left

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56
Q

9 quadrants of abdominopelvic cavity

A

right hypo chondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac
right lumbar, umbilical region, left lumbar
right iliac, hypogastric, left iliac

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57
Q

groups of cells that are similar in structure and function are called

A

tissues

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58
Q

four primary types of tissues

A

epithelial, connective, nervous, muscular

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59
Q

tissues are organized into what to perform functions

A

organs

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60
Q

what tissue covers surfaces

A

epithelial tissues

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61
Q

functions of epithelial tissue

A

protection, absorption, filtration, excretion, secretion, sensory reception

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62
Q

5 characteristics of epithelial

A

1) cells fit closely together to form membranes
2) membranes always have one exposed surface
3) cells are attached/ supported by basement membrane
4) epithelial has no blood supply of own
5) well nourished cells can easily regenerate

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63
Q

what is free surface called

A

apical surface

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64
Q

three styles of epithelial shapes

A

cuboidal, columnar, squamous

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65
Q

two types of layers of epithelial

A

simple, stratified

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66
Q

fake stratified

A

pseudostratified

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67
Q

peculiar strtified squamous epithelium formed of rouded or plump cells with the ability to slide over one another to allow the organ to be stretched

A

transitional epithelium

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68
Q

tissue found in all parts of the body and is the most abundant and widely distributed of the tissue type

A

connective tissue

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69
Q

what is connective tissue of bone

A

osseous tissue

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70
Q

connective tissue of ligaments and tendons

A

dense regular connective tissue

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71
Q

nonliving material between the cells

A

extracellular matrix

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72
Q

primary function of extracellular matrix

A

for the strength associated with connective tissue

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73
Q

two components of the extracellular matrix

A

ground substance and fibers

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74
Q

what is the ground substance of extracellular matrix

A

glycoproteins and large polysaccharide molecules

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75
Q

what are the fibers of extracellular matrix

A

collagenic white, elastic yellow, reticular fine collagenic

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76
Q

tissue specialized to contract to produce movement of some body parts

A

muscle tissue

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77
Q

three types of muscle tissue

A

cardiac, skeletal, smooth

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78
Q

the “meat” or flesh of the body is attached to the skeleton, under voluntary control

A

skeletal muscle

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79
Q

found only in the heart, acts as pump, propelling the blood into the blood vessels

A

cardiac muscle

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80
Q

junctions in cardiac muscle

A

intercalated disks

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81
Q

found mainly in the walls of all hollow organs except the heart, no striations, uninucleate spindle shaped cells

A

smooth muscle

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82
Q

tissue composd of two major cell populations

A

nervous tissue

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83
Q

two types of cell populations in nervous tissue

A

neuroglia and neurons

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84
Q

special supporting cell that protect, support, and insulate neurons

A

neurolglia

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85
Q

highly specialized to receive stimuli and to conduct impulses to all parts of the body

A

neurons

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86
Q

what organ system is the skin

A

integumentary system

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87
Q

functions of the skin

A

protect, insulate, cushions, mini excretory system, metabolic duties, vitamin D synthesis, contains cutaneous sense organs, regulates heat loss from body

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88
Q

two distinct regions of the skin

A

epidermis

dermis

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89
Q

epidermis composed of

A

epithelium

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90
Q

dermis composed of

A

connective tissue

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91
Q

immediately deep to dermis is

A

hypodermis or subucutaneous tissue

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92
Q

most epidermal cells are

A

keratinocytes

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93
Q

what do keratinocytes produce

A

keratin

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94
Q

what is keratin

A

tough fibrous protein that gives epidermis its durability and protective capabilities

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95
Q

Deepest layer of epidermis

A

stratum basale

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96
Q

layer above statum basale

A

stratum spinosum

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97
Q

what is stratum basale layer

A

single row of cells that abuts the dermis, constantly undergoes cell division to produce new cells daily

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98
Q

about a quarter of the cells in stratum basale layer are what

A

melanocytes

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99
Q

melanocytes are what

A

produce melanin that gives skin pigmentation

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100
Q

what is stratum spinosum layer

A

cells appear spiky

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101
Q

What is layer above stratum spinosum

A

stratum granulosum

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102
Q

what is stratum granulosum

A

abundent granules in its cells, in this layer begin to die

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103
Q

layer above stratum granulosum

A

stratum lucidum

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104
Q

what is stratum lucidum

A

thin translucent band of flattened dead keratinocytes

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105
Q

what is outermost layer of skin

A

stratum corneum

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106
Q

what is stratum corneum

A

20-30 cell layers thick and cells are dead and flattened scalelike remnants and are full of keratin

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107
Q

two regions of dermis

A

papillary and reticular

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108
Q

what is superficial layer of the dermis

A

papillary layer

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109
Q

what is papillary layer

A

very uneven and has fingerlike projections from its superior surface

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110
Q

fingerlike projections of papillary layer

A

dermal papillae

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111
Q

dermal papillae produce what

A

fingerprints

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112
Q

what are the pain and touch receptors found in papillary layer

A

meissners corpuscles

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113
Q

what is deepest layer of dermis

A

reticular layer

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114
Q

what is contained in reticular layer

A

sebaceous and sweat glands, pressure receptors (pacinian corpuscles), blood vessels

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115
Q

ability to determine which portion of the skin has been touched

A

tactile localization

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116
Q

rate of receptor response slows and our conscious awareness of the stimulus declines or is lost until some type of stimulus changes

A

adaption

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117
Q

two types of cutaneous glands

A

sebaceous oil glands

sweat glands

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118
Q

sebaceous glands are found where

A

all over the skin except for the palms of the hand and soles of the feet

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119
Q

product of sebaceous glands

A

sebum

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120
Q

function of sebum

A

lubricate the skin and keep soft and moist

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121
Q

epithelial openings, the outlets for the sweat glands

A

pores

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122
Q

where are sweat glands found

A

all over the posy

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123
Q

sweat glands produce

A

clear perspiration, consisting primarily of water, salts, and urea

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124
Q

what glands found chiefly in axillary and genital areas

A

apocrine glands

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125
Q

apocrine glands secrete

A

milky protein and fat-rich substance containing water, salts, and urea

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126
Q

hair is found where

A

all over body except palms of hands, soles of feet, external genitalia, nipples, and lips

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127
Q

hair is enclosed in what

A

hair follicle

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128
Q

hair enclosed within the follicle is what

A

root

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129
Q

portion of hair projecting from the skin

A

shaft

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130
Q

base of the follicle

A

hair bulb

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131
Q

small bands of smooth muscle cells that connect each hair follicle to the dermis

A

arrector pili

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132
Q

skeleton is constructed of two supportive tissues

A

cartilage and bone

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133
Q

functions of skeleton

A

system of levers for muscles to move body
bones store lipids and minerals
provide a site for blood cell formation

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134
Q

skeleton has two main subdivision

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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135
Q

bone surfaces are not featureless and smooth but are scarred with an array of bumps, holes, ridges called

A

bone markings

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136
Q

two categories of bone markings

A

projections and depressions

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137
Q

what are projections

A

processes that grow out from the bone and serve as sites of muscle attachment or help form joints

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138
Q

what are depressions

A

indentations or openings in the bone that serve as passageways for nerves and blood vessels

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139
Q

total bones in human adult body

A

206

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140
Q

two basic kinds of osseous bone tissue

A

compact and spongy

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141
Q

compact tissue is what

A

dense and looks smooth and homogeneous

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142
Q

spongy tissue is what

A

composed of small trabeculae of bone and lots of open space

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143
Q

Four classifications of bone

A

long, short, flat, irregular

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144
Q

what are long bones

A

much longer than they are wide and consist of a shaft with heads at either end

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145
Q

long bones are typically what tissue

A

compact

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146
Q

what are short bones

A

typically cube shaped

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147
Q

short bones are typically what tissue

A

more spongy than compact bone

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148
Q

what are flat bones

A

generally thin

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149
Q

flat bones are typically what tissue

A

layer of spongy bone sandwiched between two layers of compact bone

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150
Q

what are irregular bones

A

bones that do not fall into one of previous categories

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151
Q

shaft of bone

A

diaphysis

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152
Q

fibrous membrane that covers the bone surface

A

periosteum

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153
Q

fibers of periosteum penetrating into the bone

A

sharpey’s fibers or perforating fibers

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154
Q

end of the long bone

A

epipyshis

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155
Q

covers the epiphyseal surface in place of periosteum

A

articular cartilage

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156
Q

function of articular cartilage

A

provides a smooth surface to prevent friction at joint surfaces

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157
Q

a thin area of hyaline cartilage that provides for growth in bone length

A

epiphyseal plate

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158
Q

in adults epiphyseal plate becomes

A

epiphyseal line

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159
Q

central cavity of the shaft is a storage region for

A

adipose tissue or yellow marrow

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160
Q

in the infant, central marrow cavities store what

A

red marrow

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161
Q

in adults what is stored in ephyses

A

red marrow

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162
Q

lining of the medullary cavity

A

endosteum

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163
Q

Central canal runs parallel to long axis of the bone and carries blood vessels and nerves through the bony matrix

A

central canal

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164
Q

chamber in the bone cell

A

lacunae

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165
Q

lacunae houses what

A

osteocytes

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166
Q

lacunae are arranged in circles around central canal called what

A

lamellae

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167
Q

central canal and all the lamellae are referred to as

A

osteon or Haversian system

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168
Q

tiny canals running from a central canal to the lacunae of the first lamella and from lamella to lamella

A

canalicli

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169
Q

canals run into the compact bone and marrow cavity from the periosteum at right angles to the shaft

A

perforating canals

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170
Q

3 parts of the axial skeleton

A

skull, vertebral column, bony thorax

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171
Q

two sets of bones in skull

A

cranial bones, facial bones

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172
Q

anterior portion of cranium, forms the forehead, superior part of the orbit and anterior part of cranial floor

A

frontal bone

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173
Q

posterior and lateral to the frontal bone, forming sides of cranium

A

parietal bone

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174
Q

midline articulation point of the two parietal bones

A

sagittal suture

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175
Q

point where the pareitals meet the frontal bone

A

coronal suture

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176
Q

inferior to the parietal bone on lateral part of the skull

A

temporal bone

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177
Q

point where the temporal bone articulates with the parietal bone

A

squamous suture

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178
Q

a bridgelike projection that joins the zygomatic bone anteriorly

A

zygomatic process

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179
Q

zygomatic process and zygomatic bone form

A

zygomatic arch

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180
Q

canal leading to eardrum

A

external acoustic meatus

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181
Q

needle like projection inferior to external auditory meatus that serves as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments of the neck

A

styloid

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182
Q

rough projection inferior and posterior to external auditory meatus, an attachment site for muscles

A

mastoid process

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183
Q

opening medial to styloid process through which the internal jugular vein and cranial nerves pass

A

juglar foramen

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184
Q

opening medial to styloid process that allows the internal carotid artery to enter the cranial cavity

A

carotid canal

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185
Q

opening on posterior aspect of temporal bone allowing cranial nerves to pass

A

internal acoustic meatus

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186
Q

most posterior bone of cranium, forms the floor and back wall, joins the sphenoid bone anteriorly

A

occipital bone

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187
Q

point of articulation of occipital bone and parietal bones

A

lambdoid suture

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188
Q

large opening in base of occipital that allows the spinal cord to join with the brain

A

foramen magnum

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189
Q

rounded projections lateral to the foramen magnum that articulate with the first cervical vertebrae

A

occipital condyles

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190
Q

bat shaped bone forming a plateu across the width of the skull

A

sphenoid bone

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191
Q

portions of the sphenoid seen exteriorly on the lateral aspect of the skull anterior to the temporal bones. form part of the orbits of the eye

A

greater wings

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192
Q

a saddle shaped region the sphenoid midline which nearly encloses the pituitary gland

A

sella turcica

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193
Q

bat shaped portions of the sphenoid anterior to the sella turcica

A

lesser wings

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194
Q

opening posterior to the sella turcica that allows a branch of cranial nerve to pass

A

foramen ovale

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195
Q

allows the optic nerve to pass

A

optic canal

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196
Q

transmits cranial nerves to the eye

A

superior orbital fissure

197
Q

vertical projection to which the dura mater attaches

A

crista galli

198
Q

irregularly shaped bone anterior to the sphenoid, forms the roof of the nasal cavity, upper nasal septum, part of the medial orbit walls

A

ethmoid bone

199
Q

bony plates lateral to the crista galli through which olfactory fibers pass to the brain from the nasal mucosa

A

cribriform plates

200
Q

thin delicately coied plates of bone extending medially from the ethmoid into the nasal cavity. the conchae increase the surfae area of the mucosa that covers them

A

superior and middle nasal conchae

201
Q

form the base for the muscles of the face which allow us to show our feelings and to chew

A

facial bones

202
Q

lower jawbone, articulates with the temporal bones in the only freely movable joints of the skull

203
Q

horizaontal portion that forms chin

A

mandible body

204
Q

vertical extension of the body on either side

A

ramus mandible

205
Q

superior margin of mandible contains sockets for the lower teeth

A

alveolar margin

206
Q

two bones fused in a median suture, form the upper jawbone and part of the orbits

207
Q

inferior margin contianing sockets in which teet lie

A

alveolar margin

208
Q

form the anterior hard palate

A

palatine processes

209
Q

paired bones posterior to the palatine processes, form the posterior hard palate and part of the orbit

A

palatine bone

210
Q

fingernail sized bones forming a part of the medial orbit walls between the maxilla and the ethmoid

A

lacrimal bone

211
Q

small rectangular bones forming the bridge of the nose

A

nasal bone

212
Q

blad shaped bone in median plane of nasal cavity that forms most of the nasal septum

A

vomer (plow)

213
Q

thin curved bones protruding medially from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity

A

inferior nasal concae

214
Q

located in the throat above the larynx and is the point of attachment for many tongue and neck muscles

A

hyoid bone

215
Q

hyoid bone is horseshoe shaped with a body and two pairs of horns called

216
Q

four skull bones lead into sinuses called

A

paranasal sunuses

217
Q

function of paranasal sinuses

A

lighten facial bones and act as resonance chambers for the voice

218
Q

fibrous membranes between the bones of the fetal skull which allow the fetal skull to be compressed slightly during birth and allow for brain growth

219
Q

what is the spine

A

vertebral column

220
Q

consists of how many vertebrae

221
Q

of the 24 what are the three types and how many

A

7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar

222
Q

individual vertebrae are separated by pads of fibrocartilage that absorb shock while providing the spine flexibility

A

intervertebral discs

223
Q

part of vertebrae composed of pedicles, laminae, and a spinous process, it represents the junction of all posterior extensions from the vertebral body

A

vertebral arch

224
Q

opening enclosed by the body and vertebral arch through which the spinal cord passes

A

vertebral foramen

225
Q

two lateral projections from the vertebral arch

A

transverse processes

226
Q

single posterior projection from the vertebral arch

A

spinous process

227
Q

paired projections lateral to the vertebral foramen that enable adjacent vertebre to articulate with one another

A

superior and inferior articular processes

228
Q

what is c1

229
Q

what is unique about the atlas

A

lacks a body and its lateral processes contian large depressions on their superior surfaces that receive the occipital condyles of the skull. allows nodding yes

230
Q

what is c2

231
Q

what is unique about the axis

A

acts a pivot point for rotation of the atlas above. large vertical process called dens

232
Q

thoracic vertibrae have what unique identifying feature

A

costal demifacets that articulate with the heads of the corresponding ribs

233
Q

formd from the fusion of five vertebrae, is the posterior border of the pelvis

234
Q

remnant of the spinous processes of the fused vertebrae

A

median sacral crest

235
Q

wingike articulate laterally with the hip bones forming the sacroiliac joints

236
Q

paried _____ are evidence that the sacrum is formed of separate fused vertebrae and serve as passageways for blood vessels and nerves

A

sacral foramina

237
Q

vertebral canal continues in sacrum as

A

sacral canal

238
Q

vertebral canal terminates near the coccyx in the

A

sacral hiatus

239
Q

is composed of the sternum ribs and thoracic vertebrae

A

bony thorax

240
Q

bony thorax is also referred to as

A

thoracic cage

241
Q

a typical flat bone is a result of the fusion of three bones

242
Q

three bones of sterunum tope to bottom

A

manubriem, body, xiphoid process

243
Q

looks like the knot of a tie

244
Q

sternum attaches to how many ribs

245
Q

forms most of hte sternum

246
Q

inferior end of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

247
Q

forms the walls of the thoracic cage

A

twelve pairs of ribs

248
Q

first 7 pairs of ribs are called

249
Q

true ribs are what

A

directly attach to the sternum by their own costal cartilages

250
Q

next 5 pairs are called

A

false ribs

251
Q

numbers 8-10 are what type of false rib

A

indirect cartilage attachments to the sternum

252
Q

11-12 are what type of false ribs

A

floating ribs and have no sternal attachment

253
Q

is composed of the 126 bones of the appendages and the pectoral and pelvic girdles which attach limbs to the axial skeleton

A

appendicular skeleton

254
Q

each consist of two bones- a clavical and a scapula

A

pectoral or shoulder girdles

255
Q

what do shoulder girdles anchor

A

upper limbs to the axial skeleon and provide attachment points for many trunk and neck muscles

256
Q

slender, doubly curved bone, convex forward medially and concave forward laterally

257
Q

medial end of clavicle attaches to what

A

sternal manubrium

258
Q

lateral end of clavicle attaches to what

A

flattened where is articulates with the scapula to form part of the shoulder joint

259
Q

generally triabgular, flattened body and two oportant processes

260
Q

two processes of scapula

A

acromion and coracoid process

261
Q

enlarged end of the spine of the scapula

262
Q

beaklike pointing over the tip of the shoulder joint

A

coracoid process

263
Q

three angles of the scapula

A

superior inferior and lateral

264
Q

three named borners

A

superior medial and lateral

265
Q

a shallow soket that receives the head of the arm bone, is located in the lateral angle

A

glenoid cavity

266
Q

single bone of the arm

267
Q

two prominances on the humerus that are separated by a groove and guides the tendon of the biceps muscle to its point of attachment

A

greater and lesser tubercles

268
Q

groove separating greater and lesser tubercles

A

intertubercular sulcas

269
Q

roughedned area midshaft of the humerus

A

deltoid tuberosity

270
Q

function for deltoid tuberosity

A

attachment site for deltoid

271
Q

articulates with the ulna, distal end of the humerus, looks like spool

272
Q

articulates with the radius of the forearm

273
Q

condyles are flanked medially and lateraly by

A

epicondyles

274
Q

above the trochlea is

A

coronoid fossa

275
Q

on the posterior surface of humerus on distal end is

A

olecranon fossa

276
Q

coronoid fossa and olecranon fossa ufunction

A

corresponding processes of the ulna to move freely when the elbow is flexed and extended

277
Q

two bones of forearm

A

ulna and radius

278
Q

which bone is in lateral position

279
Q

radius and ulna are joined along length by

A

interosseous membrane

280
Q

medially just below the head is an area where the tendon of the biceps muscle of the arm attaches

A

radial tuberosity

281
Q

medial bone of the forearm

282
Q

proximal end of ulna bears the anterior

A

coronoid process

283
Q

the proximal end of ulna bears the posterior

A

olecranon process

284
Q

coronoid and olecranon process are separated by

A

trochlear notch

285
Q

the slimmer distal end bears a small medial notch which anchors some ligaments of the wrist

A

syloid process

286
Q

seleton of the hand includes what three groups of bones

A

carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

287
Q

proximal portion of the hand

288
Q

the 8 bones of the carpus

289
Q

bones that radiate out from the wrist like spokes to form the palm of the hand

A

metacarpals

290
Q

14 bones of the fingers are called

291
Q

pelvic girdle is formed by two what

A

coxal hip bones

292
Q

two coxal bones, sacrum, and coccyx form

A

bony pelvis

293
Q

coxal bone is fusion of what three bones

A

ilium, ichium, pubis

294
Q

large flaring bone that forms most of coxal bone

295
Q

ilium connects posterioly with sacrum at

A

sacroiliac joint

296
Q

superior margin of the iliac bone

A

iliac crest

297
Q

iliac crest terminates anterioly in the

A

anterior superior iliac spine

298
Q

iliac crest terminates posteriorly in the

A

posterior superior iliac spine

299
Q

forms the inferior portion of the coxal bone

300
Q

receives the weight of the body when we sit

A

ischial tuberosity

301
Q

superior to the ischial tuberosity is this important anatomincal landmark

A

ischial spine

302
Q

allows the hugh sciatic nerve to pass to and from the thigh

A

greater sciatic notch

303
Q

is the most anterior part of the coxal bone

304
Q

fusion of the rami of the pubic bone anteriorly and the ischium posterioly forms a bar of bone enclosing the

A

obturator foramen

305
Q

what runs through the obturator foramen

A

small blood vessels and nerves

306
Q

two pubic bones meet to form

A

pubic symphysis

307
Q

deep hemispherical socket call where femur joins

A

acetabulum

308
Q

superior portion bounded by the ilia laterally and the sacrum and lumbar vertebrae posterioly

A

false pelvis

309
Q

inferior region that is almost entirely surround by bone, its posterior boundary is the sacrum

A

true pelvis

310
Q

superior most margin of the true pelvis

A

pelvic inlet or pelvic brim

311
Q

is the iferior margin of the true pelvis

A

pelvic outlet

312
Q

thigh bone

313
Q

junction of the shaft and neck

A

greater and lesser trochanters

314
Q

greater and lesser trochanters separated by groove

A

intertrochanteric crest

315
Q

area located on the shaft for muscle attachment

A

gluteal tuberosity

316
Q

distally the femur terminates in the

A

lateral and medial condyles

317
Q

two bones form the leg

A

tibia and fibula

318
Q

tibia and fibula are joined together by

A

interosseous membrane

319
Q

shinbone

320
Q

at the proximal end of tibia are

A

mdial and lateral condyles

321
Q

medial and lateral condyles separated by

A

intercondylar eminence

322
Q

roughed protrusion on the anterior tibial surface, attachment site for the patellar ligament

A

tibial tuberosity

323
Q

tibia articulates with the talus bone of the foot and a process called

A

medial malleolus

324
Q

sharpened crest of the tibia

A

anterior border

325
Q

head of fibula articulates with

A

lateral condyle of the tibia

326
Q

fibula terminates with

A

lateral malleolus

327
Q

bones of the foot 3 types

A

7 tarsal
5 metatarsal
14 phalanges

328
Q

what are two functions of joints or articulations

A

1) hold bones together

2) allow skeleton flexibility

329
Q

structural classifications (3)

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovil joints

330
Q

functional classifications 3

A

synarthroses
amphiarthroses
diarthroses

331
Q

synarthroses are what type

332
Q

amphiarthroses are what type

A

slightly movable

333
Q

diarthroses are what type

A

freely movable joints

334
Q

bones joined by fibrous tissue

A

fibrous joints

335
Q

type of movement of fibrous joints

A

virtually no movement

336
Q

two types of fibrous joints

A

sutures and syndesmoses

337
Q

sutures are what

A

irregular edges of the bones interlock and are united by short connective tissue fibers

338
Q

what is syndesmoses

A

articulating bones are connected by short ligaments of dense fibrous tissue, the bones do not interlock

339
Q

bones ends are connected by cartilage

A

cartilaginous joints

340
Q

type of cartilaginous joint movements

A

slightly movable

341
Q

important type of cartilaginous joint

342
Q

symphysis joint is what

A

connected by a broad flat disc of fibrocartilage

343
Q

bone ends separate dby a joint cavity contianing synovial fluid

A

synovia joints

344
Q

type of movement in synovial joints

A

freely movable

345
Q

structural characteristics of synovial joints 5

A

1)joint surfaces are enclosed by a two-layered articular capsule
2) outer part of capsule is dense CT while inside is lines with smooth CT which produces synovial fluid
3)articulating surfaces of the bones are covered with hyaline cartilage
articular capsule is reinforced with ligaments and may contain bursae

346
Q

three types of range of motion of synovial joints

A

uniaxial, biaxial, multiaxial

347
Q

articulating surfaces are flat of slightly curved in one or two planes

348
Q

rounded process of one bone fits into the concave surface of another to allow movement in one plane

349
Q

rounded or conical surface of one bone articulates with a shallow depression or forament in another bone

350
Q

oval vondyle of bone fits into an oval depression in another bone

351
Q

articulating surfaces are saddle shaped

352
Q

the ball shaped head of one bone fits into a cuplike depression of another

A

ball and socket

353
Q

KNOW TYPES OF MOVEMENT

A
flexion
extension
rotation
abduction
adduction
circumduction
dorsiflexion
plantar flexion
inversion
eversion
pronation
supination
354
Q

the bulk of the bodys muscle

A

skeletal muscle

355
Q

when nuclei are pushed to the side longitudinally

A

myofibrils

356
Q

smaller threadlike structures that make up myofibirls

A

myofilaments

357
Q

myofilaments are composed of two proteins

A

actin and myosin

358
Q

contractile unit of muscle

359
Q

each muscle is composed in a delicate connective tissue sheath called

A

endomysium

360
Q

several sheathed muscle fibers are wrapped by a collagenic membrane called

A

perimysium

361
Q

perimysium wrapped fiber bundles are called

362
Q

large number of fascicles are bound by what

363
Q

epimysia belind into strong cordlike tendons called

A

aponeuroses

364
Q

muscle more movable attachment is called

365
Q

muscle fixed point

366
Q

junvtion between a nerve fiber and a muscle cells is

A

neuromuscular or myonerural juncion

367
Q

motor axon breaks into many branches called

A

axon terminals

368
Q

a neruron and all the muscle cells it stimulate make up the functional structure called

A

motor unit

369
Q

neuron and muscle fibers are separated by a small fluid filled gap called

A

synaptic celft

370
Q

three directional names of muscles

A

rectus, transvers, oblique

371
Q

relative size of the muscle names

A

maximus, mminimus, longus, brevis

372
Q

location of the muscle

A

named for bone it overlies

373
Q

number of origins

A

biceps, triceps, quadriceps

374
Q

location of muscles origin and insertion

A

ex ) sternoclastinoid

375
Q

shape of the muscle

A

deltoid= triangular

trapezius=trapezoid

376
Q

action of the muscle

A

prime movers or agonists, or antagonists, synergists, fixators

377
Q

muscles primarily responsible for producing a particular movement

A

prime movers

378
Q

muscles that oppose or reverse a movement

A

antagonists

379
Q

aid the action of prime moveres by reducing undesirable or unnecessary movement

A

synergists

380
Q

specialized synergists that immovilize the origin of a prime mover so that all the tension is exerted at the insertion

381
Q

KNOW ALL THE MUSCLES

A

BECAUSE ITS IMPORTANT

382
Q

two major cell of nervous tissue

A

neurons and supporting cells

383
Q

another name for supporting cells

A

microglia ofr glial cells

384
Q

specialized to transmit messages from one part of the body to another

385
Q

structure parts of a neuron

A

cell body, fibers, nuclei

386
Q

clusters of neuron cell bodies outside the CNS

387
Q

neuron processes orunning through the CNS form what

A

tracts of white matter

388
Q

neurone processes running through the PNS form what

A

peripheral nerves

389
Q

neuron processes that conduct electrical currents toward the cell body

390
Q

neuron procces that carry eectrical impuslses away from the cell body

391
Q

area of neuron where neurotransmitters are stored

A

axon terminals

392
Q

each axon terminal is separated from the cell body of the next neuron by a tiny gap called

A

synaptic cleft

393
Q

most long nerve fibers are covered with a fatty material called

394
Q

myelin covered fibers are called

A

myelinated fibers

395
Q

axons in the peripheral nervous system are myelinated by special supporting cells called

A

schwann cells

396
Q

schwann cells wrap around fiber to form

A

myelin sheath

397
Q

part of the schwann cell external to the myelin sheath is referred to as

A

neurorilemma

398
Q

gaps between teh schwann cells are

A

nodes of ranvier

399
Q

neuron with one verys short process which divides into distal and proximal

A

uniplar neurons

400
Q

neuron has two processes one axon and one dendrite attached to cell body

A

bipolar neuron

401
Q

neuron where many processes issue from cell bondy and one is single axon

A

multipolar neurons

402
Q

neurons carrying impulses from the sensory receptors are called

A

sensory or afferent neurons

403
Q

neurons carrying activating impuses from CNS are called

A

motor neurons or efferent

404
Q

third functional category of neurons is

A

interneurons or association neurons

405
Q

within a nerve each fiber is surrounded by a delicate connective tissue sheath called

A

endoneurium

406
Q

groups of fibers are bound by what to form bundles

A

perineurium

407
Q

what are the bundles called

408
Q

what are all fascicles bound by

A

epineurium

409
Q

nerves carrying both sensory and motor fibers are

A

mixed nerves

410
Q

two divisions of the nervous system

A

central nervous system

peripheral nervus system

411
Q

central nervous system composed of

A

brain and spinal cord

412
Q

peripheral nercous system

A

cranial and spinal nerves, ganglia, sensory receptors

413
Q

most superior part of the brain

A

cerebral hemisphers

414
Q

elevated ridges of the brain

415
Q

depressed areas of the brain

A

fissues or sulci

416
Q

cerebral hemisphers divided in half by

A

longitudinal fissure

417
Q

line dividing frontal lobe from parietal lobe

A

central sulvus

418
Q

separates temporal lobe from the paretal lobe

A

lateral sulcus

419
Q

divides the occipital lobe from the parietal love

A

parietoocipital sulcus

420
Q

anterior to the primary motor area

A

premotor area

421
Q

region that stores the instructions for seqences of mtor activity

A

premotor area

422
Q

motor speech area found at the base of the primary motor area

A

brocas area

423
Q

outermost gray matter of the cerebrum

A

cerebral cortex

424
Q

most of the balance of cerebral tissue consists of fibers tracts carrying impulses to or from the cortex

A

cerebral white matter

425
Q

most superior portion of the brain stem

A

diencephalon

426
Q

consists primarily of motor and sensory fiber tracts connecting the brain with lwer CNS centers

427
Q

lowest brain stem region

A

medulla oblongata

428
Q

large cauliflowerlike projection dorsally from under the occipital lobe of the cerbrum

A

cerebellum

429
Q

two superior prominence are visual reflex centers while the two inferior are audiotry reflex centers

A

corpora quadrigemina

430
Q

major fiber tract connnecting the cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

431
Q

buried deep within the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres are several islands of gray matter called

432
Q

helps regulate voluntary motor activities, important nuclei

A

basal nuclei

433
Q

consists of two large lobes of gray matter that laterally enclose the shallow third ventricle of the brain

434
Q

a stalk of thalamic tissue that connects the two lobes and spans the ventricle

A

intermediate mass

435
Q

makes up the floor of the third ventricle

A

hypothalamus

436
Q

hangs from the floor of the hypothalamus by a slender stalk

A

pituitary gland

437
Q

bylges exteriorly from the floor of the hypothalamus ust posterior to the pituitary gland

A

mammillary bodies

438
Q

form the rood of the third ventricle

A

epithalamus

439
Q

capillary knots within each ventricle form cerbrospinal fluid

A

choioid plexus

440
Q

slender canal traveling through the mdibrain

A

cerebral aqueduct

441
Q

treelike branching of the cerebellar white matter is called

A

arbor viae

442
Q

brain is covered and protected by three connective tissue membranes called

443
Q

outermost membrane is leathry double layered

A

dura mater

444
Q

one or the layers of the dura mater attached to the inner surface of the skull

A

periosteal layer

445
Q

one layer of the dura mater covering outermost brain

A

meningeal layer

446
Q

dips into the longitudinal fissure toa ttach to the crista gallie

A

falx cerebri

447
Q

cavity createrd at the falx cerebri is the

A

superior sagittal sius

448
Q

what is middle meninge

A

arachnoid mater

449
Q

arachnoid mater underlies the dura mater is is partially separated by what

A

subdural space

450
Q

innermost meninge membrane

451
Q

specialized projections of the arachnoid tissue protrude through tehdura mater to allow cerbrosppinal fluid to dran back into the venous blood

A

arachnoid villi

452
Q

cerebrospinal fluid is flormed by

A

choroid plexuses

453
Q

collection of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the vertebral canal is called

A

cauda equina

454
Q

cross sectiion of the spinal cord that looks like a butterfly

A

gray matter

455
Q

two posterior projectios of the butterfly

A

dorsal horns

456
Q

two broader anterior projections

A

ventral horns

457
Q

in thoracic an dlumbar regions there is later gray matter referred to as

A

lateral horn

458
Q

central area of gray matter

A

central canal

459
Q

dorsal orns contain association neurons and sensory fibers that enter the cord via the

A

dorsa root

460
Q

cell bodies of these sensory neurons are found in enlarged area of the dorsal root called

A

dorsal root ganglion

461
Q

ventral horns contian cell bodies of morot neurons of the somatic nerous system which send their axons out via the

A

ventral root

462
Q

the dorsal and ventral roots fuse to form

A

the spinal nerves

463
Q

part of spinal cord composed of myelinated fibers most running to or from higher centers

A

white matter

464
Q

three regions of the white matter

A

posterior, lateral, anterior columns

465
Q

white column contains a number of fiber ________ composed of axons with the same origin, destination, and function

466
Q

almost timmediately after emergioing each nerve divides into

A

dorsa and ventral rami

467
Q

the ventral rami of spinal nerves T2-T12 pass anteriorly as

A

intercostal nerves

468
Q

the ventral rami of all other spinal nerves form complex nerve networks called

469
Q

arises from the ventral rami of C1 through C5 and supplies muscles of the shoulder and neck

A

cervical plexus

470
Q

major motor brand of cervical plexus is

A

phrenic nerve

471
Q

arising from the ventral rami of C5 through C8 and T1 is

A

brachial plexus

472
Q

brachial plexus divided into 5 major peripheral nerves

A

radial, median, axillary, musculocutaneous, ulnar

473
Q

arises from ventral rami of L1 through L4

A

lumbar plexus

474
Q

largest nerve of lumbar plexus

A

femoral nerve

475
Q

arises from L4 through S4

A

sacral plexus

476
Q

major peripheral nerve of the sacral plexus

A

sciatic nerve

477
Q

the sciatic nerve divides into two nerves in the popliteal region

A

common fibular nerve and tibial nerve

478
Q

reflexes are rapid, predictable, involuntary motor responses to stimuli and occur over neural pathways called

A

reflex arcs

479
Q

reflexes not subject to conscious control

A

autonomic reflexes

480
Q

reflexes that stimulate skeletal muscles

A

somatic reflexes

481
Q

5 steps of reflex arc

A

receptor reacts to stimulus
sensory neuron conducts afferent impuls to CNS
integration center consists of one or more synapse
motor neuron conducts efferent impuls to effector
effector muscle or gland responds

482
Q

two neuron reflex arc

A

monosynaptic

483
Q

one or more neurons in the rele arc

A

polysynaptic

484
Q

used to describe the point of close contact between the neurons or a neuron and an effector cell

485
Q

important postural reflexes that act to maintain posture, balance, and locomotion

A

stretch reflexes

486
Q

intiated by stimulation of receptors in the ski and mucosae

A

superficial cord reflexes

487
Q

consensual reflex

A

sensed on one side and not the other

488
Q

other side has been stimulated

A

contralateral response

489
Q

occuring on the same side stimulated and not the other

A

ipsilateral response