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Bio202 > FINAL REVIEW > Flashcards

FINAL REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between the Nervous System and Endocrine System?

A

Endocrine system has widespread, general effect on many organs
Nervous system has targeted and specific effects on 1 organ or tissue

Endocrine system’s effects are slow and long-lasting
Nervous system’s effects are rapid and stop quickly

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2
Q

What are the similarities between the Nervous System and Endocrine System?

A

Some chemicals can be hormones AND neurotransmitters

Some hormones are secreted by “neuroendocrine “ cells (bit of both)

The 2 systems can have overlapping results on the same organs

The 2 system can regulate each other

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3
Q

How do the Nervous and Endocrine systems regulate eachother?

A

Neurons can trigger hormone secretion
Hormones can inhibit or stimulate neurons

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4
Q

Give an example of overlapping effects of the Nervous and Endocrine system

A

In “fight or flight,” endocrine and nervous system can release the same chemicals in response to a stimuli, like glycogen to up the glucose level in the blood to prepare for energy exertion

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5
Q

What hormones are secreted by neuroendocrine cells

A

Oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone

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6
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone do?

A

Tells body to decrease urine production

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7
Q

What are the 3 types of hormone release?

A

Neurally
Humorally
Hormonally

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8
Q

What does Neurally mean in relation to hormone release?

A

The secretion or inhibition of hormones is influenced by emotion or stress

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9
Q

What does Humorally mean in relation to hormone release?

A

The secretion or inhibition of hormones is dependent on the concentration of other NON-hormonal substances in the blood

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10
Q

What does Hormonally mean in relation to hormone release?

A

Hormones are regulated by other hormones

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11
Q

The __________ carries out function for the Hypothalamus

A

Pituitary Gland

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12
Q

Which hormones does the posterior Pituitary Gland store and release?

A

Oxytocin
Antidiuretic hormone

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13
Q

What does Oxytocin do?

A

Hormone responsible for deep emotional bonding, labor contractions, and lactation

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14
Q

Name 6 anterior Pituitary Gland hormones

A

FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
LH (luteinizing hormone)
TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone)
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
GH (growth hormone)
PRL (prolactin)

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15
Q

What are the 2 gonadotropins?

A

LH and FSH

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16
Q

What does FSH do in females and males?

A

Female - stimulates development of eggs and follicles in the ovaries
Male - stimulates production of sperm in testes

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17
Q

What does LH do in female and males?

A

Female - stimulates ovulation and secretion of estrogen and progesterone
Male - stimulates interstitial cells in testes to secrete testosterone

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18
Q

What does TSH do?

A

Stimulates growth of the thyroid gland
Stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone (T3 and T4)

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19
Q

What does ACTH do?

A

Regulates response to stress by stimulating Adrenal Gland cortex with corticosteroids that regulate glucose, fat, and protein metabolism

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20
Q

What does GH do?

A

Promotes tissue growth

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21
Q

What does PRL do?

A

Milk production in females
Increased sensitivity to LH in males causing testosterone to increase

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22
Q

Define hydrophobic hormones and describe how they work? Travel?

A

Hormones derived from cholesterol which are lipid soluble (water INsoluble)

Move directly through phospholipid bi-layer and act via INTRAcellular receptors (usually acting on gene transcription within the cell)

Must bind to a blood plasma transport protein to be transported across body (bound) OR can travel very short distance unbound

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23
Q

Define hydrophilic hormones and describe how they work? Travel?

A

Hormones derived from polypeptides and proteins which are water soluble (lipid INsoluble)

Cannot move directly through phospholipid bi-layer, so attaches to membrane-bound receptors and modifies existing metabolic protein to trigger events inside the cell to occur

Since it is water soluble, these hormones dissolve easily with blood plasma for transport

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24
Q

What does the Adrenal Cortex produce?

A

STEROIDS
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone)
Tiny bit of sex hormones (androgen + estrogen)

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25
Q

What does the Renin-Angiotensin System control?

A

Regulates blood pressure

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26
Q

What is aldosterone’s role in the Renin-Angiotensin System?

A

Released by the Adrenal Cortex to promote water reabsorption by INCREASING Na+ absorption and SECRETING K+ to help with blood volume

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27
Q

How does the Pancreas function as an exocrine gland?

A

Produces digestive enzymes

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28
Q

How does the Pancreas function as an endocrine gland?

A

Beta cells produce insulin
Alpha cells produce glucagon

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29
Q

What is insulin? How does it work?

A

A HYPOglycemic hormone (LOWERS blood glucose levels)
Increase glucose reuptake in cells and storage of fats, aminos, and glucose

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30
Q

When do insulin levels increase?

A

After eating

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31
Q

What is glucagon? How does it work?

A

A HYPERglycemic hormone (INCREASES blood glucose levels)
Causes liver to break down glycogen (stored glucose) and promotes the breakdown of fat and protein

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32
Q

When do glucagon levels increase?

A

During fasting

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33
Q

What are the 2 cardiovascular circuits?

A

Pulmonary Circuit
Systemic Circuit

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34
Q

What side is the pulmonary circuit on, and what is its purpose?

A

Right side of the heart
Bring blood to the lungs for gas exchange

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35
Q

What side is the systemic circuit on, and what is its purpose?

A

Left side of heart
Bring oxygenated blood to all areas of the body
DYNAMIC bloodflow

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36
Q

Define dynamic bloodflow and give an example

A

Flow caters to the body’s current needs
During exercise, increased flow to lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscle; decreased flow to intestines and kidneys

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37
Q

What are the layers of the heart wall?

A

Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium

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38
Q

Describe the myocardium and its functions

A

Thick, muscular layer with a fibrous skeleton of collagen and elastin fibers

Support, cardiac muscle attachment sites, and electrical insulation

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39
Q

Describe the endocardium

A

Smooth inner layer

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40
Q

What are the 4 heart chambers?

A

Left and right atria
Left and right ventricles

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41
Q

What are the 4 heart valves?

A

2 atrioventricular valves (AV)
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid/Mitral valve

2 semilunar valves
Aortic semilunar valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve

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42
Q

Where does blood pass to through the pulmonary semilunar valve?

A

Pulmonary trunk

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43
Q

Where does blood pass to through the aortic semilunar valve?

A

Aorta

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44
Q

What regulates the pace of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node / Pacemaker

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45
Q

Define AV node

A

Atrioventricular node is the electrical gateway to the ventricles

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46
Q

Define AV bundle and its branches

A

Pathway for electrical signals from AV node thru interventricular septum down to the apex

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47
Q

Define Purkinje fibers

A

Fibers upward from the apex to spread electrical signals thru ventricular myocardium

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48
Q

The AV node ______ electrical spread. Why?

A

Slows
To give time for atria to contract before ventricle

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49
Q

1 depolarization of the SA node =

A

1 heartbeat

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50
Q

An electrocardiogram measures …

A

The combined electrical activity of the nodal and non-nodal cells

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51
Q

What occurs during the P wave ?

A

SA node fires, atrial depolarization and atrial systole

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52
Q

What occurs during the QRS wave?

A

AV node fires, ventricular depolarization and ventricular systole, atrial depolarization and atrial diastole

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53
Q

What occurs during the T wave?

A

Ventricular repolarization, ventricular diastole

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54
Q

The cardiac cycle is

A

1 complete contraction and relaxation

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55
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output

A

SV x HR
(Stroke volume x heart rate)

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56
Q

What are the 2 types of circulatory routes in the vascular system?

A

Common
Portal System

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57
Q

Describe a common circulatory route

A

Heart
Artery
Arteriole
Capillary bed
Venule
Vein

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58
Q

Describe a portal system route

A

Heart
Artery
Arteriole
2 CAPILLARY BEDS
Venule
Vein

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59
Q

Define blood pressure

A

The force blood exerts against vessel walls

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60
Q

Systolic refers to …
Diastolic refers to …

A

Ventricle contracted
Ventricle relaxed

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61
Q

Define colloid osmotic pressure (COP)

A

Pressure from build up of colloids (like albumin) in plasma, causing liquid to be drawn back into the capillary

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62
Q

Where are chemoreceptors

A

Aortic and carotid bodies

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63
Q

What is the purpose of chemoreceptors

A

Autonomic response to change in blood chemistry
1. adjust respiration
2. vasomotion
Work to stimulate vasoconstriction and increase BP and perfusion

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64
Q

Describe the angiotensin system

A

Angiotensinogen constantly released by liver
Kidney releases Renin when BP is low which converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I
Lungs release ACE which converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
Angiotensin II triggers vessels to vasoconstrict and adrenal gland to release Aldosterone
Aldosterone increases reabsorption of NaCl and H2O in kidneys
BP raised!

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65
Q

Define angiotensinogen

A

A pre-hormone constantly released by the liver

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66
Q

Define renin

A

A kidney enzyme which is released in response to low BP which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

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67
Q

Define ACE

A

angiotensin converting enzyme
Released by lungs to concert angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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68
Q

Define angiotensin II

A

Powerful vasoconstrictor which stimulates the production of aldosterone

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69
Q

Define aldosterone

A

Hormone which causes kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water, therefore decreasing urine output and increasing the amount of liquid in the blood and in effect, raising BP

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70
Q

Name 5 hormones which control BP and blood flow

A

Aldosterone
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANP)
Antidiuretic hormone
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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71
Q

Define atrial natriuretic factor (ANP)

A

Hormone which promotes sodium and water excretion, increasing urine output and stimulating vasodilation, resulting in lowered BP

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72
Q

Define antidiuretic hormone

A

Hormone which promotes water retention and in high concentration, promotes vasoconstriction to increase BP (during times of fasting, sleeping)

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73
Q

Define epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Hormones which bind to skeletal and cardiac vessels and promote vasodilation, especially in response to “fight or flight” situations

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74
Q

Functions of blood

A

transportation
(respiration, nutrition, waste elimination, thermoregulation, immune defense, water balance, an pH balance)

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75
Q

What are the components of blood

A

Formed elements (RBC, WBC, and platelets)
Plasma

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76
Q

Define osmolarity and what is it regulated by

A

Total molarity of dissolved solutes in blood

High osmolarity = concentrated solutes = increased fluid reabsorption = dilute blood

Low osmolarity = diluted = tissues retain fluid = edema

Regulated by albumin

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77
Q

Define albumin

A

most common protein in plasma, controls the viscosity and osmolality of blood

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78
Q

What are fibrinogens for

A

clotting

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79
Q

Albumins and fibrinogens are produced in the

A

liver

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80
Q

Define erythocyte

A

red blood cell full of hemoglobin which carries mostly O2 and some CO2

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81
Q

Define leukocyte

A

white blood cell for immunity, allergy response, antibody production, and inflammation

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82
Q

Define thrombocyte

A

platelets for hemostasis (clotting)

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83
Q

Define hemostasis

A

clotting

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84
Q

Hemopoiesis is stimulated by (chemicals)

A

erythropoietin
thrombopoietin
colony stimulating factors

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85
Q

Describe the appearance of erythrocytes

A

Disc-shaped with a bi-concave shape for extra surface area
No organelles inside

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86
Q

What triggers erythrocyte homeostasis

A

Low levels of O2 (hypoxemia)
detected by kidneys to release EPO

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87
Q

Hemoglobin holds _____ O2

A

4

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88
Q

A heme group binds ____ to _____

A

O2 to Fe

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89
Q

RBCs die and are broken down in the

A

spleen by macrophages

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90
Q

Heme is converted to ____ to ______ to ______

A

biliverdin
bilirubin
urobilinogen

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91
Q

Transfusing the wrong blood type causes

A

Agglutination

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92
Q

B-Cells and T-Cells are

A

lymphocytes

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93
Q

Describe a vascular spasm

A

Quick constriction of blood vessel to give time to other mechanisms to work
Stimulated by pain receptors to release serotonin and endothelin

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94
Q

Describe platelet plugs

A

Broken, rough vessel disturbs prostacyclins and triggers platelet plug formation
Platelets degranulate and release serotonin, adenosine diphosphate, and thromboxane A2

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95
Q

Describe coagulation

A

Quick and accurate “fish net” formed from conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin threads
Process boosted by procoagulants released by liver

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96
Q

What dissolves clots

A

Fibrinolysis

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97
Q

What are the 3 functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Lipid absorption
Fluid recovery
Immunity

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98
Q

Describe lipid absorption by the lymphatic system

A

Lacteals in the small intestine absorb dietary lipids

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99
Q

Describe immunity by the lymphatic system

A

Immune cells in the lymph organs can respond to foreign cells/chemicals while the fluid is being filtered

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100
Q

Describe lymph

A

Colorless, clear fluid that is similar to plasma but with less proteins

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101
Q

Define non-specific defense

A

Broadly effective defenses which require no prior exposure to pathogens
Include external barriers
INNATE immunity (phagocytes, antimicrobial proteins, fever, etc.)

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102
Q

What are 4 external barriers for non-specific defense?

A

Skin
Mucous membranes
Digestive system
Genitourinary system

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103
Q

How is the skin an external barrier?

A

Tough keratin
Dry, nutrient poor environment
Defensin proteins which attack microbes (from neutrophils)
Lactic acid mantle

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104
Q

How are mucous membranes an external barrier?

A

Sticky mucus
Lysozymes in tears and saliva which kill pathogens

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105
Q

How is the digestive system an external barrier?

A

Stomach acidity and lysozymes in saliva

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106
Q

How is the genitourinary system an external barrier?

A

Vaginal acidity
Flushing with urine

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107
Q

Acquired immunity is _____ and has a _____

A

specific with a memory

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108
Q

Describe cellular immunity

A

Cell mediated by T Cells

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109
Q

Describe humoral immunity

A

Antibody mediated by B Cells

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110
Q

What are the 4 types of acquired immunity?

A

Natural active
Artificial active

Natural passive
Artificial passive

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111
Q

How do you get natural active immunity?

A

Natural exposure to an antigen causes you to produce your own antibodies or T Cells (which have memory)

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112
Q

How do you get artificial active immunity?

A

Vaccination which causes you to produce your own antibodies or T Cells (which have memory)

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113
Q

How do you get natural passive immunity?

A

Gain non-self antibodies thru natural methods (thru placenta and breast milk)
Don’t produce memory cells so immunity is temporary

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114
Q

How do you get artificial passive immunity?

A

Gain non-self antibodies thru artificial methods like treatments for snakebite, rabies, tetanus, etc.
Don’t produce memory cells so immunity is temporary

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115
Q

Describe clonal selection

A

Only the T or B lymphocytes that are activated by the antigen exposure will proliferate, which THEN differentiate and specialize against antigen

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116
Q

Describe how antibodies initiate destruction of an antigen

A

Antibody binds to antigen, disables it (“net”), and tags it for destruction by a phagocyte

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117
Q

What are the 5 functions of the digestive system?

A

Ingestion
Digestion
Propulsion
Absorption
Defecation

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118
Q

What are the 2 types of digestion?

A

Mechanical and chemical

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119
Q

Describe mechanical digestion and the methods

A

Physical breakdown of food into smaller particles
Chewing
Stomach churning
Bile action
Segmentation and peristalsis

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120
Q

Describe chemical digestion and 4 macromolecules it breaks down

A

Breaking chemical bonds in food to convert macromolecules to monomers

Polysaccharides (carbs) break down to monosaccharides (sugars)

Protein breaks down into amino acids

Fat/Lipids break down into monoglycerides and fatty acids

Nucleic acid breaks down into nucleotides

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121
Q

What are the 6 accessory organs to the GI tract

A

Teeth
Tongue
Salivary glands
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

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122
Q

What are the 4 layers of the GI tract walls (inner to outer)

A

Mucosa
Submucosa (with blood vessels and lymph vessels)
Muscularis
Serosa

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123
Q

What do the cheeks and lips do for the GI tract?

A

Keeps food in between the teeth for mastication

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124
Q

What does the tongue do for the GI tract?

A

Has sensory papillae and moves the bolus back toward oropharynx

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125
Q

What do the hard and soft palate do for the GI tract?

A

Soft palate - separates oral cavity from nasopharynx
Hard palate - separates oral cavity from larynx

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126
Q

What do teeth do for the GI tract?

A

Mastication and increasing surface area of food particles for enzyme penetration

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127
Q

What are the 4 components of saliva

A

Water
Amylase
Mucus
Lysozyme

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128
Q

Amylase is primarily for

A

starch digestion

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129
Q

What neutralizes the pH of saliva?

A

Bicarbonate

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130
Q

What do intrinsic salivary glands do?

A

Are inside mucosa of oral cavity
Constantly secrete saliva

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131
Q

What do extrinsic salivary glands do?

A

Connect to the oral cavity through ducts (parotid, submandibular, and sublingual)
Mainly to assist with digestion

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132
Q

What are the functions of the stomach?

A

Mechanical churning to break up/liquify chyme
Chemical digestion of proteins with pepsin
Absorbs water and some drugs, NOT nutrients

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133
Q

What does HCl do in stomach

A

Drops the stomach pH to 2-4 (acidic)
Activates pepsinogen to become pepsin
Breaks up tough cell walls and tissue
Converts iron to an absorbable form
Kills pathogens

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134
Q

What does intrinsic factor do

A

Secreted by parietal cells to help absorb B12 in the small intestine

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135
Q

What is the function of pepsin

A

Pepsinogen (from chief cells) are converted to pepsin by HCl, which activates more pepsin
Pepsin digests proteins into small polypeptide chains and amino acids

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136
Q

Describe cholecystokinin

A

Release in response to fat in the chyme entering duodenum
Causes gallbladder to contract, relaxes hepatopancreatic sphincter, and secretes pancreatic enzymes

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137
Q

Describe secretin

A

Released in response to acid in chyme entering duodenum
Increase bicarbonate secretion to neutralize the acids

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138
Q

Describe gastric inhibiting peptide

A

Released to decrease gastric motility and secretions

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139
Q

What does the liver do for digestion?

A

Produces bile which mechanically digests fat

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140
Q

What does the gallbladder do for digestion?

A

Stores and concentrates bile from the liver

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141
Q

What does the pancreas do for digestion?

A

Exocrine gland secretes digestive enzymes and pancreatic juice into duodenum

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142
Q

What are the 6 enzymes in pancreatic juice?

A

Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Lipase
Amylase
Nuclease
Peptidases

143
Q

How are carbohydrates digested?

A

Pancreatic lipase takes over for salivary amylase, finishes starch digestion
Brush border enzymes act on oligosaccharides and disaccharides
Those sugars are absorbed via active transport into cells and then use facilitated diffusion to move into the blood

144
Q

How are proteins digested?

A

Begins in stomach with pepsin, when reaches sm. intestine pepsin is deactivated by pancreatic juice
Trypsinogen converts to trypsin which digests proteins and activates peptidases and chymotrypsinogen to further break peptides into amino acids

145
Q

How are amino acids absorbed?

A

Active transport into cells and then into blood

146
Q

How are lipids digested?

A

Bile acids emulsify fat globules
Lipases further break down triglyceride to fatty acid and monoglyceride
Absorb into cell through simple diffusion (because its a lipid) and then into LACTEALS through exocytosis

147
Q

Nuclease hydrolyzes ______ into ______

A

DNA/RNA into nucleotides

148
Q

Define respiration

A

Gas exchange in the body

149
Q

Define external respiration

A

Exchange of gasses between air and the blood in lungs

150
Q

Define internal respiration

A

Exchange of gasses between blood and body tissues

151
Q

Define cellular respiration

A

Chemical reaction inside a cell’s mitochondria which converts food into ATP

152
Q

Define pulmonary ventilation

A

Inhaling and exhaling

153
Q

Where does external respiration take place?

A

Lungs

154
Q

Where does internal respiration take place?

A

Everywhere except the lungs

155
Q

Define pressure gradients in respiration

A

The difference between atmospheric and intrapulmonary pressures which is created by volume change of the chest (expand or contract to create/decrease space)
Air flows from high pressure to low

156
Q

Define intrapulmonary pressure

A

Pressure that is inversely proportionate to volume
(Boyle’s law)
Low volume (small space) = High pressure and vice versa

157
Q

During passive expiration, what occurs? Why?

A

Intrapulmonary volume decreases which increases pressure, forcing air out of the lungs
Thorax volume decreases as diaphragm and external intercostals relax and alveoli spring back to OG shape

158
Q

What factors affect gas exchange?

A

Henry’s Law
Concentration gradients of gases
Gas solubility
Membrane thickness
Membrane surface area
Ventilation-Perfusion coupling

159
Q

After hemoglobin binds with 1 O2, it has a _________ effect. Explain this

A

Positive feedback
Obtaining the 1 O2 makes the hemoglobin change shape so it obtains the next 3 O2 faster

160
Q

When tissue is active, what decreases? What does this cause Hb to do?

A

Decreased O2 so Hb releases more O2 (“Unloads”)

161
Q

What happens when temperature increases in tissue?

A

Hb releases more O2 (“unloads”)

162
Q

Describe the Bohr effect

A

Active tissue has more CO2, so it attracts more H+ which lowers the pH, causing Hb to release O2 (“unloads”)

163
Q

Describe the Haldane effect

A

If hemoglobins are not fully loaded, can carry CO2 but
deoxyhemoglobins (fully empty) binds to CO2 and H+ and creates bicarbonate (HCO3) to easily transport CO2 in body

164
Q

Muscles involved in normal inspiration

A

Diaphragm
Scalenes
External Intercostals

165
Q

Muscles involved in normal expiration

A

none, all just relax

166
Q

Name the 5 functions of the kidneys

A

Excretion
Filter blood plasma
Regulate blood volume, pressure, and osmolarity
Secrete hormones
Regulate acid/base balance of blood

167
Q

What wastes are filtered by the kidneys

A

Excess minerals
Nitrogenous wastes

168
Q

What are 3 nitrogenous wastes

A

Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine

169
Q

What is urea produced from

A

Protein metabolism

170
Q

What is uric acid produced from

A

Nucleic acid metabolism

171
Q

What is creatinine produced from

A

phosphagen energy system

172
Q

Describe the flow of blood INTO the kidneys

A
  1. renal artery
  2. segmental arteries
  3. interlobar arteries
  4. arcuate arteries
  5. cortical radiate arteries
  6. afferent arteriole
  7. Glomerulus
173
Q

Define Glomerulus

A

capillary network which is the filtration center of the nephron

174
Q

Describe the flow of blood OUT of the kidney

A
  1. Glomerulus
  2. efferent arteriole
  3. peritubular capillary
  4. cortical radiate veins
  5. arcuate veins
  6. interlobar veins
  7. renal vein
175
Q

What is the function of a nephron

A

Filter blood to produce urine

176
Q

What are the 2 types of nephrons

A

Cortical nephrons
Juxtamedullary nephrons

177
Q

Describe cortical nephrons

A

80% of nephrons
Short loop which produces most of the urine

178
Q

Describe juxtamedullary nephrons

A

20% of nephrons
Long loop which extends deep into the renal medulla
Maintains Na+ levels and water balance

179
Q

What are the 2 major parts of the nephron

A

renal corpuscle
renal tubule

180
Q

Describe a renal corpuscle and its function

A

Site of filtration where the glomular capsule surrounds the glomerulus

181
Q

What are the renal tubules

A

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
Nephron Loop
Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

end at the collecting duct

182
Q

Describe the form and function of proximal convoluted tubules (PCTs)

A

Longest tube (microvilli lined) with many coils (mitochondria lined)

Receives filtrate from the glomerulus
Performs majority of reabsorption of filtrate

183
Q

Describe the form and function of the nephron loop

A

U-shaped with a thin (descending) limb and thick (ascending) limb

Ascending limb does active transport of salts
Descending limb balances water
WATER CONSERVATION
REGULATE BLOOD pH

184
Q

What is the function of mitochondria in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

active transport of filtrates (glucose and amino acids)

185
Q

What is the function of microvilli in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

increased surface area for more reabsorption

186
Q

What are the 2 routes of reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Transcellular (across cell)
Paracellular (between cells)

187
Q

Renal tubules are surrounded by

A

peritubular capillaries

188
Q

Describe flow of urine out of kidney

A

glomerular capsule
proximal convoluted tubule
nephron loop
distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
papillary duct
minor calyx
major calyx
renal pelvis
ureter
urinary bladder
urethra

189
Q

What are the 4 parts of urine formation

A

Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion
Water conservation

190
Q

Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

A

Amount of filtrate formed per minute

191
Q

Net filtration pressure is determined by

A

glomerular capillary pressure (BP), colloid osmotic pressure (albumin), and pressure in glom. capsule

192
Q

Kf (filtration coefficient) is determined by

A

surface area and permeability of filtration membrane

193
Q

An increased GFR leads to

A

increase urine output
dehydration
decreased electrolytes

194
Q

A decreased GFR leads to

A

waste retention

195
Q

Describe how the sympathetic nervous system controls GFR

A

increased exercise or stress causes afferent arterioles to contract, which decreases GFR and urine output, while redirecting blood to heart, brain, and muscles

196
Q

Describe hormonal control of GFR

A

Angiotensin - Renin system

197
Q

Which hormones decrease urine output to increase water retention

A

Renin
Aldosterone
ADH
PTH

198
Q

What does aldosterone promote

A

Salt and water reabsorption
(decrease urine, increase BP)

199
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promote

A

Water reabsorption in collecting ducts in response to dehydration

200
Q

What does atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) promote

A

Water and salt excretion in response to high BP
(increase urine, decrease BP)

201
Q

What does parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote

A

Kidney reabsorption of calcium and osteoclast activity to increase blood calcium levels

202
Q

What is the purpose of the countercurrent mechanism in nephron

A

Retain water to avoid dehydration

203
Q

What does the descending limb of the countercurrent mechanism do

A

Reabsorb water from tubule
Concentrates tubular fluid

204
Q

What does the ascending limb of the countercurrent mechanism do

A

Reabsorb Na+, K+, Cl-
Maintain osmolarity of renal medulla
Dilute tubular fluid

205
Q

What do primary sex organs produce? Name both.

A

Produce gametes
Ovaries and Testes

206
Q

What are the purpose of secondary sex organs?

A

Essential for reproduction

207
Q

What are the male secondary sex organs? What are their altogether purpose?

A

Duct, glands, and penis
Deliver sperm cells

208
Q

What are the female secondary sex organs? What are their altogether purpose?

A

Uterine/fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina
Receive sperm and nourish a growing fetus

209
Q

What are the functions of the male reproductive system?

A

Produce sperm
Produce sex hormones
Deliver sperm

210
Q

Where is sperm produced in the testes?

A

Seminiferous tubules

211
Q

Seminiferous tubules drain into the tubular network called the ________

A

rete testis

212
Q

What are the 2 main cells in testes?

A

Sertoli (“nurse”) cells
Spermatogenic cells

213
Q

What is the role of Sertoli cells?

A

Nourish and protect spermatogenic cells

214
Q

What is the role of Spermatogenic cells?

A

Divide to create new sperm cells

215
Q

What is the purpose of the scrotum?

A

Thermoregulation

216
Q

Which 3 tissues in the scrotum control thermoregulation of the testes?

A

Cremaster muscle
Dartos muscle
Venous plexus

217
Q

Define scrotum

A

Pouch that holds testes

218
Q

Define spermatic cord. Where does run through?

A

Blood vessels, lymph vessels, and ductus deferens which run through the inguinal canal

219
Q

How does the cremaster muscle promote thermoregulation?

A

They are segments of the internal oblique muscle which can contract to pull the testes closer to the body when cold

220
Q

How does the dartos muscle promote thermoregulation?

A

Smooth muscles that can wrinkle the skin around the scrotum to decrease surface area to preserve heat

221
Q

How does the venous plexus promote thermoregulation?

A

The countercurrent heat exchange keeps the testes at a consistent temperature

222
Q

Describe how the countercurrent heat exchange works in the venous plexus

A

Arterial blood cools as it descends into testis and warms back up in vein when returning to body
Artery and vein run next to eachother so constantly exchange heat to regulate

223
Q

Name the 4 spermatic ducts

A

Efferent ductules
Epididymis
Ductus deferens
Ejaculatory duct

224
Q

The spermatic ducts are _________ sex organs

A

secondary

225
Q

Describe the efferent ductules in the testis

A

A passageway from the rete testis to the epididymis

226
Q

Describe the epididymis

A

Site of sperm maturation and storage

227
Q

Describe the ductus deferens

A

Passageway from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct

228
Q

Describe the ejaculatory duct

A

Leads to prostatic urethra

229
Q

Describe the pathway of sperm from beginning to ejaculation

A

Seminiferous tubules - rete testis - efferent ductules - epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct

230
Q

Name the 3 accessory glands which contribute to seminal fluid

A

Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral gland

231
Q

What are the 3 contributions to seminal fluid from the seminal vesicles? What is the purpose of each?

A

Fructose (ENERGY for sperm)

Fibrinogen (sticky semen)

Prostaglandins (stimulate female peristalsis)

232
Q

What are the 2 contributions to seminal fluid from the prostate gland? What is the purpose of each?

A

Fibrinolysin (liquefy sticky fibrinogen after 30 min so it can MOVE up canal)

Spermine (base which stabilizes seminal pH @ 7.2-7.6)

233
Q

What is the 1 contribution to seminal fluid from the bulbourethral gland? What is its purpose?

A

Alkaline pre-ejaculatory fluid (CLEANS out urethra and lubricates)

234
Q

The penis is a ________ sex organ

A

secondary

235
Q

What are 3 parts of the penis? What are the 3 tissues?

A

Internal root, visible shaft, and glans

1 corpus spongiosum
2 corpora cavernosa

236
Q

Describe the corpus spongiosum

A

Tissue on bottom side of the penis which extends to the glans and surrounds the urethra

237
Q

Describe the corpora cavernosa

A

2 bilaterial cylindrical tissues on top side of penis which have lacunae that fill with blood to erect the penis

238
Q

What stimulates the beginning of male puberty? What happens in male puberty?

A

Increase in pituitary gonadotropins LH and FSH

Sperm production and testosterone release

239
Q

What are the effects of increased testosterone levels in puberty?

A

Facial, pubic, and chest hair
Deep voice
Broader shoulders and muscle mass

240
Q

What does FSH promote in male puberty?

A

Sperm production

241
Q

What does LH promote in male puberty?

A

Testosterone production

242
Q

What are the 5 functions of the female reproductive system?

A

Produce and deliver ova
Produce sex hormones
Provide nourishment and room for fetus
Birth
Nourish infant

243
Q

What do the ovaries produce?

A

Eggs (ovum) and female hormones

244
Q

Where do the eggs develop?

A

Within a fluid-filled follicle in the ovary

245
Q

What are the 2 ligaments related to the ovaries?

A

Ovarian ligament (ovary-uterus)
Suspensory ligament (ovary-pelvic wall)

246
Q

What are the internal genitalia of females?

A

Duct system (uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina)

247
Q

What are the external genitalia of females?

A

Clitoris, labia minora, labia majora, and accessory glands (for lubrication)

248
Q

The fallopian/uterine tubes are a _______ sex organ

A

secondary

249
Q

Describe the fallopian/uterine tubes

A

Muscular tubes lined with ciliated cells
Fimbriae “catch” the released egg and move to tube

250
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus?

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium

251
Q

Describe the perimetrium

A

Outer serous layer of uterus

252
Q

Describe the myometrium

A

Middle smooth muscle layer of uterus

253
Q

Describe the endometrium

A

Inner tissue of uterus with 2 layers
Stratum functionalis = superficial layer
Stratum basalis = deep layer

254
Q

What does the stratum functionalis do?

A

Sheds with each period if not pregnant

If pregnant, nourishes fetus until placenta organ grows

255
Q

What does the stratum basalis do?

A

Regenerates new stratum functionalis each cycle

256
Q

Describe the vagina and its function

A

Distensible/Stretchy muscular tube

Discharges menstrual fluid, births baby, receives semen

257
Q

What are the 3 tissue layers of the vagina?

A

Outer serosa, middle muscularis, and inner mucosa

258
Q

What does bacteria do in the vagina? What is the effect on pH?

A

Ferments glycogen in epithelial cells which makes pH acidic

259
Q

Define transudation

A

The process by which erectile tissue around the vagina wall squeezes fluid out to lubricate when aroused

260
Q

What are the 4 parts of the vulva?

A

Mons pubis
Labia majora
Labia minora
Vestibule

261
Q

Define mons pubis

A

Mound of fat over the pubic symphysis

262
Q

Describe the labia majora and labia minora. What do they form?

A

Thicker folds of skin with pubic hair

Thinner, middle folds of skin without hair

Form vestibule containing the urethra and vaginal opening, as well as the prepuce over the clitoris

263
Q

Define vestibular bulbs

A

Erectile tissue around vagina which narrows vagina around the penis

264
Q

Define greater and lesser vestibular glands

A

Glands which open in vestibule to provide lubrication

265
Q

Breasts are secondary _______ __________

A

sex characteristics

266
Q

Describe breasts

A

Adipose tissue with areola surrounding nipple
Is a modified sweat gland with mostly ducts and fat unless pregnant (which increases glandular tissue)

267
Q

What triggers puberty in women?

A

Increase in GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) which triggers anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins FSH and LH

268
Q

Define menarche

A

First menstrual period

269
Q

Which hormone causes development of sex characteristics?

A

Estrogen

270
Q

Sexual reproduction involves ______ from both parents

A

genetic material

271
Q

Zygote is formed by

A

male and female gametes
(sperm + egg)

272
Q

Cells contain ______ pairs of chromosomes

A

23

273
Q

Male sex chromosome pair =

A

XY

274
Q

Female sex chromosome pair =

A

XX

275
Q

Define SRY gene

A

Sex-determining Region of Y gene

276
Q

What does the SRY gene do

A

In males, it codes for TDF (testis determining factor) protein which causes the development of testes in utero

277
Q

What happens if the TDF protein is present?

A

Increased sensitivity to testosterone
Leydig/interstitial cells secrete testosterone
Sertoli cells secrete MIF (mullerian-inhibiting factor)
Mesonephric ducts devolop and paramesonephric ducts degrade
= MALE!

278
Q

What is MIF?

A

Mullerian-inhibiting factor
Causes the paramesonephric ducts to degenerate so that female sex organs do not grow

279
Q

No Y chromosome means no ____ gene which means

A

No SRY gene = no male hormones = FEMALE!

280
Q

When do gonads develop in utero? How long are they identical? How are they identical?

A

6 weeks after fertilization = gonadal ridges
Identical from week 8-10
Have both mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts

281
Q

The presence of testosterone and MIF =

A

mesonephric ducts develop
paramesonephric ducts degenerate

282
Q

The absence of testosterone and MIF =

A

paramesonephric ducts develop
mesonephric ducts degenerate

283
Q

By the end of week 12, the 3 structures become distinctly M/F

A

Penis OR clitoris
Penile skin OR labia minora
Scrotal skin OR labia majora

284
Q

Why do testes descend from the pelvis

A

Because sperm need lower temperatures to develop and mature

285
Q

What connects the testis to the abdominopelvic floor?

A

Gubernaculum (cord)

286
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and meisosis?
Purpose?
Product?
Divisions?

A

Mitosis: growth, repair, replace old cells
1 cell division to produce 2 identical diploid cells (has 46 chromosomes each)

Meiosis: sexual reproduction
2 cell divisions to produce 4 haploid gametes (23 chromosomes, will join with other parent gamete)

287
Q

What mechanisms take place during meiosis to provide genetic diversity?

A

Crossing over, recombination, and random assortment

288
Q

Describe the first cell division in meiosis

A

Meiosis I
One homologous chromosome separates into 2 haploid cells

289
Q

Describe the second cell division in meiosis

A

Meiosis II
The 2 haploid cells duplicate sister chromatids and then separate into 4 haploid cells

290
Q

What are germ cells in germinal epithelium?

A

Stem cells that produce gametes

291
Q

How do Sertoli cells promote sperm cell development?

A

Blood-Testis barrier is formed between tight junctions between sertoli cells
This keeps immune cells in the blood stream from attacking new sperm cells

292
Q

Spermatagonia produces 2 types of daughter cells. Describe them

A

Type A
Cells outside blood-testis barrier which produce more cells until death

Type B
Cells which become spermatocytes that travel across blood-testis barrier to the lumen of seminiferous tubules

293
Q

Describe meoisis of sperm cells

A

Primary spermatocyte splits into 2 secondary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes duplicate chromatids and then split into 4 spermatids

294
Q

Spermiogenesis turns ____ into _____. How?

A

Spermatid to Spermatozoa
Discards extra cytoplasm and grows tail

295
Q

What are the parts of a spermatozoa

A

Head, midpiece, and tail

296
Q

What is in the head of a spermatozoa

A

Nucleus with the haploid chromosomes
Acrosome with enzymes that penetrate the egg

297
Q

What is in the midpiece of a spermatozoa

A

Mitochondria which produce ATP for the flagellar movement of the tail

298
Q

Oogenesis happens

A

once a month

299
Q

Spermatogenesis happens

A

Constantly

300
Q

The female germ cells in an embryo differentiate into

A

oogonia

301
Q

What occurs IN UTERO for the oogonia

A

Starts meiosis I to become primary oocyte

302
Q

What happens to the primary oocytes when puberty begins?

A

FSH stimulates a primary oocyte MONTHLY to finish Meiosis I, creating a secondary oocyte and the 1st polar body

303
Q

What is the difference between a secondary oocyte and polar body?

A

Secondary oocyte takes most of the cellular material from primary oocyte, leaves polar body with only DNA

304
Q

The secondary oocyte starts meiosis II and then

A

Ovulates

305
Q

The only way for the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II is ______. What is the product?

A

Fertilization
Zygote and 2nd polar body

306
Q

GnRH stimulates the release of what 4 hormones in men?

A

FSH
LH
Testosterone
Inhibin

307
Q

In men, FSH triggers

A

Sertoli cells release ABP (androgen binding protein) which stimulates sperm production

308
Q

In men, LH triggers

A

Interstitial cells produce testosterone

309
Q

In men, testosterone triggers

A

Increased sperm production

310
Q

If sperm count is too high, ________ inhibits _______

A

Inhibin inhibits FSH

311
Q

All 4 hormones triggered by GnRH are controlled by

A

Negative feedback

312
Q

GnRH stimulates the release of what 4 hormones in women?

A

FSH
LH
Estrogen
Progesterone

313
Q

In women, FSH triggers

A

Ovarian follicular cells to develop an ovum as well as produce estrogen

314
Q

In women, LH triggers

A

Ovulation (follicle bursts and becomes corpus luteum)
Corpus luteum produces progesterone

315
Q

What is the role of estrogen and progesterone in hormone regulation?

A

Regulates secretions from hypothalamus and pituitary gland, also preps uterus for implantation

316
Q

What are the phases of the Ovarian Cycle?

A

Follicular phase
Ovulation
Postovulatory phase

317
Q

What are the phases of the Follicular phase in the ovarian cycle?

A

Menstrual (discharge menstrual fluid)
Preovulatory (1 follicle matures and “balloons” towards ovary surface and releases estrogen)

318
Q

What triggers follicular development and maturation?

A

FSH

319
Q

Define zona pellucida

A

“Zone of cells” surrounding egg for support

320
Q

What fills the expanding mature follicle?

A

Estrogen rich fluid

321
Q

What causes ovulation?

A

LH spike due to increase in estrogen

322
Q

What weakens the ovary’s wall so that the egg can exit?

A

Collagenese

323
Q

What sweeps up the egg into the fallopian tubes

A

Fimbriae

324
Q

What 2 phases occur during the postovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

Luteal (Corpus luteum forms and produces progesterone)
Premenstrual (no fertilization = corpus luteum degrades = no progesterone = menstruation)

325
Q

What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?

A

Menstruation
Proliferative phase
Secretory phases

326
Q

Describe the menstruation phase of the uterine cycle

A

Drop in progesterone causes arterial constriction which kills endometrial cells
Blood, serous fluid, and endometrial tissue are discharged

327
Q

Describe the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle

A

Increase in estrogen from follicles causes increased mitosis in stratum basale of endometrium = thickened

328
Q

Describe the secretory phase of the uterine cycle

A

Progesterone stimulates secretory glands to fill endometrial tissue with fluid = thickened

329
Q

What causes an erection?

A

Parasympathetic system triggers nitric oxide and acetylcholine secretion which causes arteries to dilate and fill with blood

330
Q

What occurs during female sexual excitement

A

Inner vagina dilates
Labia minora is vasocongested
Vaginal transudate moistens vagina

331
Q

What occurs during female sexual plateau

A

Uterus is vertical
Cervix withdraws
Orgasmic platform (lower vagina) constricts penis
Clitoris engorges and withdrawn under prepuce

332
Q

What occurs during female orgasm

A

Orgasmic platform (lower vagina) contracts rhythmically
Peristaltic contractions in uterus

333
Q

What are the 2 penis arteries? What are their purposes?

A

Dorsal - regular blood supply

Deep - supplies lacunae of corpora cavernosa with blood to erect penis

334
Q

What types of nerves are in the penis

A

Tactile, pressure, and temperature

335
Q

What are the 2 phases of ejaculation?

A

Emission - sympathetic nervous system propels sperm through ducts w/ added secretions

Expulsion - semen in urethra activates muscular contractions to release sperm

336
Q

Describe the composition of semen:
60% ______
30% ______
10% ______
along with …

A

60% seminal vesicle fluid
30% prostatic fluid
10% sperm
AND
fructose, fibrinogen, prostaglandins, fibrinolysin, and spermine

337
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

anywhere from 10 minutes to hours after orgasm where another erection is impossible

338
Q

Describe fertilization

A

Acrosome of sperm digests zona pellucida of egg
Sperm proteins bind to egg receptors and eject nucleus
Egg completes meiosis II
Fertilization complete when chromosomes of both sex cells combine in nucleus of egg

339
Q

An implanted zygote in the uterus produces what hormone?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

340
Q

What does HCG do for pregnancy?

A

Increases progesterone to maintain endometrium and prevents menstruation

341
Q

Describe the hormone levels and sources in the 3 trimesters of pregnancy

A

1st trimester: corpus luteum releasing estrogen and progesterone while placenta develops

2nd trimester: placenta becomes main source of estrogen and progesterone as it grows and corpus luteum degrades

3rd trimester: All hormones come from placenta

342
Q

After birth, what 2 hormones are released in response to suckling?

A

Prolactin - milk production

Oxytocin - milk ejection and emotional bonding

343
Q

Describe prostate cancer:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?

A

Cancer in prostate

Problems with urination, such as dribbling and issues starting/stopping

men over 65, African American men, family history

344
Q

Describe Cervical cancer:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?

A

Cancer of cervix due to HPV

Pain during sex, pelvic pain, unusual bleeding and discharge

HPV infected women, multiple sex partners, smokers, long term use of oral contraceptives

345
Q

Describe Polycystic Ovary Syndrome:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?

A

Hypersecretion of male hormones causes fluid filled sacs to develop on ovaries

Facial hair growth, infertility, irregular periods, pelvic pain, thinning hair

1 in 10 women, obese, family history

346
Q

Describe Endometriosis:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?

A

Endometrium grows outside uterus and sheds with each cycle, causing build up in abdominopelvic cavity

Pelvic pain, heavy periods, infertility

Women who never give birth, pelvic infections, family history

347
Q

Describe Pelvic Inflammatory Disease:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Risk Group?

A

Infection in female reproductive tract which inflames the fallopian tubes (usually from chlamydia or gonorrhea)

Abdominal pain, fever, irregular discharge, infertility from scar tissue, increased risk of ectopic pregnancies

Under 25 with STD/STI, women with IUD, multiple sex partners

348
Q

Describe Erectile Dysfunction:
Risk Group?

A

Inconsisent or complete inability to maintain erection

Older men, obesity, smokers, diabetes, certain medications (such as antidepressants), and drug/alcohol abuse

349
Q

Describe Gonorrhea:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

Common bacterial infection

Women often asymptomatic, burning urination, increased vaginal discharge, anal itching, soreness and bleeding, increased risk of PID in women
(Same symptoms as Chlamydia)

Treat with antibiotics

350
Q

Describe Chlamydia:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

MOST COMMON bacterial infection

Frequently asymptomatic, burning urination, increased vaginal discharge, anal itching, soreness and bleeding, increased risk of PID in women
(Same symptoms as Gonorrhea)

Treat with antibiotics

351
Q

Describe Syphilis:
Cause?
Symptoms/Phases?
Treatment?

A

Bacterial infection which can be fatal if untreated

Primary stage: painless sores at infection site
Secondary stage: rash, swollen lymph nodes, fever
Latent stage: no symptoms
Tertiary stage: systemic infections that affect other major organs, fatal

Treat with antibiotics (penicillin)

352
Q

Describe Human Papilloma Virus (HPV):
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

High risk strain of virus increases risk of cancer
Low risk strain of virus = gential warts

MOST COMMON VIRAL STI

Prevent with vaccines and yearly screenings

353
Q

Describe Genital Herpes:
Cause?
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

Viral STI

HSV I = cold sores
HSV II = genital herpes

Painful, itchy blisters, occur several times per year, sometimes asymptomatic but still highly infectious

Bio202 (9 decks)

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