Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FNP 1 > FINAL- Review > Flashcards

FINAL- Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

policies, vaccines, seat belts, lifestyle changes, prophylaxis, fluoride

A

primary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Screening → identify and treat diseases early

A

secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

prevent disease progression

A

tertiary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who really has the disease (t= positive)

Ability of the test to identify correctly those who HAVE the disease

A

Sensi(+)ivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

who really does NOT have the disease (F=false)

Ability of test to identify correctly those who DON’T have disease

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tells us the probability that a positive test result is correct.
Portion of people with + results, who truly HAVE disease

A

PPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tells us the test is negative of someone who does not have the disease
Portion of people with (-) result that truly DON’T have disease

A

NPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(Overall) often used for chronic conditions (how many people have the disease RIGHT NOW)

A

prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(NEW) often used for acute conditions that do not have long duration (e.g. flu)- how many new cases in a given period of time

A

incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

illness

A

morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

death

A

mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the triple aim?

quadruple aim?

A

improve health outcomes
reduce per capita costs
improve quality of care

+ improving the clinician’s or care teams experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

medical word recognition: testing for health literacy

Easy and fast to administer

A

REALM-SF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what test?
What is my main problem?
What do I need to do?
Why is it important for me to do this?

A

Ask me 3 test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ice cream label test

Look at a nutrition label of ice cream and are asked 6 Q’s(calculation, general knowledge)

A

newest vital sign test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

have patients bring their medications/review with provider for teach back

A

brown bag med review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

must provide language services to all patients at no cost to them to improve access to care. No families translating for patients.

A

CLAS standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

kleinman 8 questions to utilize

A
  1. what do you call the problem
  2. what do you think caused the problem?
  3. why do you think it started when it did?
  4. what do you think the sickness does? will it have a long or short course
  5. how severe is the sickness? will it have a long or short course
  6. what kind of treatment do you think pt shoudl receive?
  7. what are the chief problems the sickness caused
  8. what do you fear most about the sickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

adult learning theory

A

problem oriented, internally motivated, self-directed. Have experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

used to elicit behavior change in adults: increase the motivation for change then commit- patient driven not physician driven
Use open-ended questions
Listen with empathy
Avoid advice without permission

A

motivational interviewing technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prochaska’s Stages of Change

A 
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance 
Relapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

erikson stage infant to -18 months

A

trust v mistrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

erikson stage toddler

A

autonomy v shame and doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

erikson stage preschool

A

initiative v guilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

erikson stage school age

A

industry v inferiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

erikson stage teenager

A

identity v confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

erikson stage young adult

A

intimacy v isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

erikson stage middle age

A

generativity v stagnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

erikson stage elderly

A

integrity v dispair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

who should get flu vaccine?
when?
Trivalent?

A

All adults
starting in the fall
trivalent flu if over 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

who should get Pneumococcal polysaccharide

Pneumovax 23 (PPSV23)

A

65 or older

If never received OR
Received 1 or 2 doses before age 65, and it has been 5 yrs since last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

who should get Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines

Prevnar 13→ (PCV13)

A 
19-64  
if they... 
Smoke
Chronic disease of heart, lung, or liver
Diabetes
Alcoholism
Cochlear implant or leaking spinal fluid (PCV13)
Spleen removed
Sickle cell
Weakened immune system
Received organ or bone transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when do kids get Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines

Prevnar 13→ (PCV13)

A

All children younger than 2 receive 4 doses (2,4,6, & 12-15 mos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

who should get TDaP, Td

A

19 or older
Must complete 3 shot series
Booster every 10 years (& if dirty wound)
Administer during each pregnancy (27-36wks preferred)
TDaP if older and have grandbabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

who should get MMR ? when ?

A

Started at age 11-12; booster at age 16
(2 doses - 28 days apart)
Considered immune if:
Born 1957 or later (consider testing for immunity if born before)
High risk groups (healthcare workers, college students, international travelers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

who should get varicella vax

what is important to know?

A

All adults without evidence of immunity
2 doses. Attenuated virus
Avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

who should get Hep A Vax

A

People who travel or work outside US
Chronic liver disease, HIV, drug use, homeless
Within 2 weeks post-exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

who should get Hep B vax

A 
Household and sexual contacts positive for HBsAG, IV drug users
High risk sexual behaviors
Hemodialysis patients
Chronic liver disease
Healthcare personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when do kids get Hep B vax?

A

3 doses (0,1,6 mos)

If series not completed do not restart, just give until 3 doses received

4 weeks b/t doses 1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

who should get Hib vax?

A

Not routinely recommended for all adults

Anatomic or functional asplenia
Elective splenectomy
Recipients of hematopoietic stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

who should get Zoster (Shingles)

A

50 years and older

Shingrix preferred (2 doses 2-6 mos apart)

If previously received Zostavax (51% effective)- give Shingrix (90% effective)

RSV, shingrix, ZVL, Zostavax (Live Virus Vaccine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CI for Shingles vax?

A

CI: pregnancy/breastfeeding; receipt of acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir 24 hours before vaccination

CI: Current shingles infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what to do if a person is vaccinated with pneumococcal vaccine before age 65

A

give booster dose of Pneumovax (PPSV23) 5 years after initial dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blood Pressure
Screening recommendations ?
Age? considerations?

A

A
age 18
Take BP at home before treating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

cervical cancer letter rating

ages 21- 65?

A

A for 21- 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Colorectal letter rating ages
50-75
45-49

A 
50-75 = A 
45-49 = B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Time range? 
HSgFOBT or FIT\_\_\_\_ 
Stool DNA-FIT: \_\_\_ years
CT Colonography :q\_\_ years
Flexible Sigmoidoscopy: q \_\_\_ yrs
Flexible sigmoidoscopy: q \_\_\_ yrs + \_\_\_\_ FIT
Colonoscopy: q \_\_\_ yrs Gold standard
A 
HSgFOBT or FIT yearly
Stool DNA-FIT: 1-3 years
CT Colonography :q5 years
Flexible Sigmoidoscopy: q 5yrs
Flexible sigmoidoscopy: q 10yrs + yearly FIT
Colonoscopy: q 10 yrs Gold standard
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

HIV screening letter? ages?

A

A
15-65 (once)
more if high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

abdominal aortic aneurysm letter screening? ages?

A

B

65-75 for men who have EVER smoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ASA letter rating for ages 50-59

A

B

>10% 10 yr CVD risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ASA letter rating for ages 60-69

A

C

>10% 10 yr CVD risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ASA letter rating for ages <50

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

mammogram letter rating for women 50- 74

how often?

A

B
First degree relative with BRCA 1 or 2 mutation
Radiation to chest b/t 10-30yo
Li-Fraumeni, Cowden, Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba

Biennial (every other year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

mammogram letter rating for women 40-49

A

C

If woman chooses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

mammogram letter rating for women +75

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Depression letter rating for wat ages?

A

B

12+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IPV, Elder abuse letter rating

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

lung cancer letter rating
for ages 50-80
who?

A

B
20 pack year smoking hx & currently smoke
OR Have quit within past 15 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what should someone get if they have 20 pack year smoking hx & currently smoke
OR Have quit within past 15 yrs

A

Annual screening w/ low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)

STOP if not smoked for 15 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

alcohol screening letter? ages? best screening tool?

A 
B 
18+ 
CAGE 
 - Cut down 
- annoyed
-guilty 
- eye opener
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PSA letter rating for men 55-69

A

C

Weight benefits and harms w/ pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

PSA letter rating for men +70

A

Recommended against, typically not tx at this age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

blood sugar rating level for ages 40-70
Risk factors
considerations?

A

B
Overweight or obese
Fam. hx DM, PCOS, gestational diabetes

American Indians Alaskan Natives
Asian Americans
Hispanics
Pacific Islanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

cholesterol testing letter recommendation?

A

No current recommendation for screening. Calculate 10yr risk of CVD. No optimal screening interval established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CVD risk 10% →

A

B recommendation for statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CVD risk 7.5%

A

C recommendation for statin

67
Q

what does healthy people 2020 say about cholesterol screening for men and women

A

Men age 35
Women age 45
Unless increased risk then start screening at age 20

68
Q

EKG letter rating for low-risk pts? intermediate or high risk?

A

D for low risk pts

I for intermediate/ high

69
Q

drug screen letter rating. ages?

A

I for 18+

70
Q

hearing letter rating for ages > 50

A

I

Do screening test if any symptoms or if cognitive/ affective symptoms associated with hearing loss

71
Q

vision letter rating

A

I

Perform Screening test if pt has symptoms of glaucoma

72
Q

carotid artery stenosis letter rating

A

D

Recommends against screening in general population

73
Q

Gonorrhea/chlamydia
(screen Without symptoms)
letter rating for Women: <24 or increased risk

A

B

74
Q

Gonorrhea/chlamydia
(screen Without symptoms)
letter rating for men

A

I

75
Q

HSV letter rating

A

D

76
Q

Hep B letter rating

A

B - only high risk pop

77
Q

Hep C letter rating

ages? considerations?

A

B
1 time screening adults born b/t 1945-1965
High risk pop
No vaccine available

78
Q

what should you screen for 1 time in adults born b/t 1945-1965

A

Hep C

79
Q

HIV letter rating

ages? consderations?

A

A
15-65
yearly or sexual contact

80
Q

syphilis letter rating

A

A

if at increased risk

81
Q

Prostate produces fluid for semen. If enlarged constricts urethra.
Clinical Manifestations:
Urinary frequency, urgency, difficulty
Nocturia
Difficulty starting urination
Dribbling AND straining with incomplete bladder emptying

A

BPH

Can ask patient to keep urinary diary or do International Prostate Symptom Score

Goal is to alleviate symptoms and slow progression. If no improvement refer to urologist (maybe TURP)
Does NOT correlate with prostate cancer

82
Q

OTC medications for BPH that can cause urinary sx

A

Anticholinergics (benadryl) → impair bladder contractility
Sympathomimetics (pseudoephed) → increase urinary outflow resistance
Diuretics

83
Q

what to know about PE for BPH?

Labs?

A

Digital rectal exam (prostatitis or nodules?) → prostate is symmetric, rubbery, and enlarged

UA, creatinine, PSA (infection or neoplasm?)

84
Q

Behavior modifications for BPH

A

decreasing fluids before bed, avoid above OTC meds

85
Q

Rx for BPH

A

alpha-adrenergic antagonists (alpha-blocker)–> relax bladder neck muscles and muscle fibers in prostate to allow for easier urine flow
Flomax
Rapiflo

86
Q

what is First indicator of CV disease**

A

ED

87
Q

what are organic, drug-induced and psychogenic causes of ED?

A

Organic: aging, diabetic neuropathy, multiple sclerosis, hypogonadism
Drug induced: SSRIs (Paxil), antipsychotics, recreational drugs, alcohol, beta-blockers, thiazide diuretics, smoking.
Psychogenic: anxiety, depression, relationship issues, stress

88
Q

Drugs to tx ED

A

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (viagra, cialis, levitra)

89
Q

hard, fixed nodule. Often in teenage or young men with ℅ heaviness and tenderness in testicle. Usually painless

A

Testicular CA

90
Q

Abrupt onset, extremely painful scrotum often with n/v. Affected testicle is higher. Absent cremasteric reflex. Younger men (10-20yo). Emergency!

A

testicular torsion

91
Q

cessation of menses for 12 consecutive months

A

menopause

Hormone therapy approved for moderate to severe sx of menopause (hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal atrophy, prevention of osteoporosis)

92
Q

If a pt with known menopause is bleeding it is _______ until proven otherwise.

A

cancer

93
Q
  • women with uterus must add _______ to any estrogen taken
A

progesterone

94
Q

when to start screening for osteoporosis?

high risk pts?

A

age 65

long term steroid use, anorexia or bulimia, long term use PPIs (omeprazole), gastric bypass, celiac.

95
Q

what causes osteoporosis

A

estrogen deficiency. Common in white and Asian women, thin, family hx.

96
Q

When to treat osteoporosis

A

T-score -2.5 or less, or hx of hip or vertebral fracture

97
Q

what is Female Athlete Triad: for osteoporosis

A

low weight, hx of amenorrhea, LBD

98
Q

Osteoporosis Lifestyle risk factors

A 
low Ca intake, vit D deficiency, inadequate physical activity
Alcohol consumption (3+drinks/day)
High caffeine intake
Smoking (active or passive)
99
Q

DEXA measures BMD of hip and spine
Osteoporosis=
Osteopenia=

A 
Osteoporosis= T-score -2.5 or lower SD
Osteopenia= T-score -1.5 and -2.4 SD
100
Q

what does FRAX tell us

A

10 year probability of fracture

101
Q

what is 2x more common in elderly?

A

adverse drug rxn

Reduce polypharmacy (more than 5 drugs)
Beta blockers SE=depression 
Use BEERS CRITERIA when prescribing/deprescribing meds for older adults
102
Q

For elderly when is baseline vision screening recommended?

A

Age 40

103
Q

JNC 8 BP recommendations for > 60 yrs

A

< 150/ 90

104
Q

screening tests to be done on elderly

A

AUDIT. CARET (more detailed than cage)

depression

105
Q

TUG

A

Timed get up and go

106
Q

FRAT

A

falls risk assessment tool

107
Q

GDS

A

geriatric depression scale

108
Q

MMSE

A

mini-mental status exam

109
Q

IADL

A

instrument activities of daily living

110
Q

alleviation of symptoms and suffering for people with serious illness to improve QOL (Not only for ppl with imminent death)

A

palliative care

111
Q

care for someone with 6 mos or less to live. Provided when a person is no longer trying to cure illness.

A

hospice

112
Q

specific wishes regarding a person’s care in the case they cannot make decisions for themselves

A

advanced directives

113
Q

what age to start pap smear? interval?

A

21 ( 3 year intervals if normal)

114
Q

is HPV needed for ages 21-29 routinely?

A

no, but order “reflexive HPV” so if PAP shows abnormality it can be done

115
Q

when to start HPV co-testing with PAP? interval?

A

Start HPV co-testing at 30 (at 5-year intervals if normal)

116
Q

when to stop PAP/ HPV testing?

A

Stop screening @ 65 if no CA hx and/or if total hysterectomy

117
Q

what to do in a woman who has HPV, LSIL

A

colposcopy is preferred

118
Q

when to give Gardasil?
what strains does it work on?
dosing schedule?

A

11-26 y.o - against 16/18

3 dose: 1 shot, 2 months, then 6 months

119
Q

how often to screen for HPV/ PAP once a woman is 30?

A

Q5 years PAP and HPV together when last pap was negative and HPV was negative
… can do PAP Q3 but Q5 you should get HPV test

120
Q

why is HPV not routinely recommended under 30?

A

common infection usually clears on its own

121
Q

who should receive annual cervical cancer screening?

A

received DES in utero, hx Cancer, CIN 2

122
Q

what kind of prevention is preconception care

A

primary care

123
Q

How much folic acid for preconception?

A

400 mcg daily

124
Q

total # pregnancies (including current)

A

Gravidity

125
Q

total pregnancies beyond 20 weeks (the time pregnant, not number of fetuses; ie twins, triplets…) does not include current if not born yet

A

Parity

126
Q

what is considered term pregnancy ?

A

37 weeks and beyond

127
Q

what is considered preterm pregnancy?

A

20-36.5 weeks

128
Q

male exposure to ZIKA

A

wait 3 months from initial symptoms or diagnosis

if no symptoms wait 3 months anyway
use condoms with sex

129
Q

female exposure to zika

A

wait 2 months after initial symptoms or diagnosis (symptoms or not)
use condoms

130
Q

what to do if male and female exposed to ZIKA

A

wait 3 months before pregnant

131
Q

contraindicated vaccines during pregnancy

A 
MMR (Rubella)
Varicella
Herpes Zoster
Live, attenuated flu → live inactivated flu safe
HPV
132
Q

What vaccines should mom get right after delivery if not immune?

A

Rubella and Varicella

133
Q

who should get Hep B vax?

A

high risk (STI, risky sexual behaviors)

134
Q

Nagele’s Rule

A

LNMP - 3 mon + 7 days + 1 year

135
Q 
Prenatal visit schedule for low risk/healthy
First visit \_\_\_\_\_ weeks
Before 28 weeks:\_\_\_\_\_\_
Weeks 28-36: every \_\_\_ weeks
Week 36- birth: \_\_\_\_\_
A 
First visit 8-10 weeks
Before 28 weeks: monthly
Weeks 28-36: every 2 weeks
Week 36- birth: weekly
Total visits: 13
136
Q

initial pregnancy labs to check

A 
Beta Hcg
Blood type, Rh
Urinalysis c/s
     Tx all UTIs 
     Check urine protein (pre-e)
CBC
         Hgb/Hct
Titers
        Rubella
         Varicella
STI
       HBsAg, HIV, gonorrhea, 
        chlamydia, syphilis, 
         herpesvirus 1/2
137
Q

when to give Tdap during pregnancy

A

between 27 - 36 weeks or after

138
Q

when to screen for GD during pregnancy

results?

A

standard at 24-28 weeks, 1 hr get 50 gm if + of 130, do 3 hr100 gm.

If 2/4 blood tests are abnormal then they have GD. BS 140 or over- GD

139
Q

what kind of BC while breastfeeding?

A

no estrogen!

140
Q

NOT required prior to initiation of BC

A

PE, GYN exam, STI testing, lab testing (exception is IUD or fitting pt for diaphragm, need pelvic exam..)

141
Q

stops ovulation (inhibits LH surge) and thickens cervical mucus

A

Combined Hormonal Contraception (estrogen and progesterone

142
Q

same dose of hormones everyday

A

Monophasic

143
Q

two different progesterone doses

A

Biphasic

144
Q

dose varies weekly with a 7 day placebo for withdrawal bleed. Indicated for acne

A

Triphasic

145
Q

84 days of hormone/7 days placebo pills

A

Extended cycle

146
Q

Do not use if cigarette smoker over age 35!

A

NuvaRing

147
Q

higher risk of VTE, releases higher levels of estrogen than oral pills

A

Transdermal patch

148
Q

Absolute CI to Hormonal Contraceptives:

A

Hx DVT, factor V Leiden, major sx with prolonged immobilization
Smoker older than 35
Migraine with aura (increase risk of stroke) or migraine w/o aura at 35 years or older
Hx CVA
HTN
Liver disease/infection/inflammation
Cardiovascular disease (known or suspected)
Cancer

149
Q

BC pt education

A

Use back up method for 7 days. Taking the pill on first day of menstrual cycle provides best protection
F/u visit 2-3 months after starting hormonal BC to check BP (estrogen can raise BP) or SEs

May have increased spotting, should decrease after 3 months. Nausea and breast tenderness are common and should resolve after first month
If breastfeeding: progesterone only contraception…no estrogen!

150
Q

Drug Interactions with oral contraceptives:

A

Anticonvulsants: phenobarbital, phenytoin
Antifungals: (strong CYP3A4 inhibitors)
HIV/hep C protease inhibitors
Some antibiotics (ampicillin, tetracyclines, rifampin, clarithromycin
St. John’s wort: breakthrough bleeding

151
Q

Indications of thromboembolic event:: ACHES

A

A- abdominal pain (clot in mesenteric artery- ischemic pain)
C- chest pain (MI?)
H- headaches (stroke/tia?)
E- eye problems/vision change (clot in retinal artery)
S- severe leg pain (DVT?)

152
Q

causes cervical mucus to thicken, preventing sperm entry

A

Progesterone-Only Contraception

153
Q

injection every 3 months
Not recommended for women who want to become pregnant in 12 months (takes up to 1 year to start ovulating after stopping)
Black Box Warning! Do not use more than 2 years d/t increased risk of osteopenia or
osteoporosis that may not be fully reversible. Avoid use in pts w/ hx of anorexia for this Reason. Recommend Vit D and weight bearing exercise while taking
Weight gain possible SE

A

Depo-Provera

154
Q

thin plastic rod implanted in upper arm

Anti-seizure meds may lower effectiveness!

A

Implanon/Nexplanon

155
Q

Safe for breastfeeding women!
Must be taken at same time EVERY day (3hr window)
Less effective than combined oral contraceptives, but safe option during breastfeeding, older
smokers, and diabetics w/ microvascular disease.
No grapefruit juice or use with hepatitis

A

Progestin-Only Pills (POP)

156
Q

Works best when taken within 72 hours of intercourse, up to 5 days after intercourse. Available without prescription

A

Emergency Contraception (“Morning After Pill”)

157
Q

progesterone
Paragard = Copper, effective up to 10 years
Mirena, Skyla, Liletta, Kyleena… different levels of progesteron. Effective 3-7 years
CI if PID, uterine or cervical abnormality, hx ectopic pregnancy
Pelvic exam indicated to check for string

A

Levonorgestrel

158
Q

Warning signs in patients with IUD: PAINS

A

P- period late (Copper IUD), abnormal spotting, or bleeding beyond expected
A- Abdominal pain, pain with intercourse
I- infection exposure (STI), abnormal vaginal discharge
N- Not feeling well, fever, chills
S- String missing or shorter

159
Q

what do Breastfed infants need starting at 4 months?

A

vit D, Iron

160
Q

when does colon cancer screening start?

A

Screening begins at age 45→ update!
10 years prior (screening) to the age of family member being diagnosed
Or 45 years old for baseline screening for high risk individuals

161
Q

what is never considered normal in women?

A

Incontinence

162
Q

leading cause of death ages 20-34?

35-44?

A 
20-34
Accidents
Intentional harm (suicide)
Assault (homicide)
Traffic

35-44
Accidents
Malignant neoplasms
Heart disease

163
Q

what is goal of cervical testing?

A

detect high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) → potential to develop into invasive squamous cell carcinoma of cervix

164
Q

Signs of pregnancy

A

Positive:

  1. Palpation of fetus by clinician
  2. fetal visualization
  3. FHT

Breast changes, N/V, urinary frequency, fatigue, increase nasal, hegar’s sign- 6-8 weeks: softening of neck of uterus , Goodell’s sign- 4 weeks softening of cervix, Chadwicks’ sign

FNP 1 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions