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Pathophysiologyyy > FINAL - Mod 13: Immunity, Mod 15: Msk > Flashcards

FINAL - Mod 13: Immunity, Mod 15: Msk Flashcards

1
Q

what is specific defense of the immune system

A

responds to particular substances, cells, toxins, or proteins, which are perceived as foreign to the body and therefore unwanted or potentially dangerous.
The immune cells, or lymphocytes, and macrophages provide the specific mechanism for the identification and removal of foreign material.

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2
Q

what is nonspecific defense of the immune system

A

Inflammation.
Non-specific immune cells function in the first line of defense against infection or injury. Doesn’t differentiate between 1 pathogen and another

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3
Q

what are the components of the immune system?

A

lymphoid structures, immune cells, tissues, chemical mediators

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4
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic tissue and organs of the immune system? What does it contain?

A

contain many lymphocytes. Filter body fluids, remove foreign matter, immune response.
(responsible for immune cell production and development)

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5
Q

What is the function of the thymus in the immune system?

A

maturation of T lymphocytes

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6
Q

What is the function of Bone marrow in the immune system?

A

Produce all immune cells.

Source of stem cells, leukocytes, and maturation of B cells

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7
Q

What are Antigens (immunogens) ? they can activate the immune system to produce..?

A

Antigens are substances with unique protein markers on the outside that the immune systems recognizes and attaches to.

– are either foreign substances or human cell surface antigens that are unique in each individual (except identical twins).
– can activate the immune system to produce specific antibodies

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8
Q

Human MHC, also known as human leukocyte antigen (HLA) are self antigens. They are used to

A

detect changes in cell membranes; used to provide the close match for a transplant. individual labelling with HLA (except identical twins)

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9
Q

The immune system generally tolerates self-antigens on its cells, thus no immune response is initiated against the own cells. When the immune system no longer recognizes self-antigen, what happens and results?

A

Begins to attack its own cells/structures or organs, resulting in Autoimmune disease.

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10
Q

what initiates the immune response? Where does it develop from?

A

Macrophages.

Develops from monocytes; part of the mononuclear phagocytic system

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11
Q

Large phagocytic cells - intercept and engulf foreign material, then they do what which triggers what?

A

display the antigens on the cell membranes

- trigger lymphocytes (thus initiating immune response)

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12
Q

Macrophages also secrete what chemicals that play a role in the activation of additional lymphocytes and in the inflammatory response?

A

monokines, interleukins

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13
Q

What are B-cells? Where do they start out? Mature where? function?

A

= Produces antibodies with the assistance of T lymphocytes (plasma cells) or B memory cells – quickly produces antibodies during the subsequent invasion of the same antigen

  • produced from the bone marrow stem cells; matured in the bone marrow.
  • Act primarily against bacteria and viruses that are outside body cells.
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14
Q

What are T-cells? Where do they start out? Mature where? function? subtypes?

A

T lymphocytes = white blood cells.
produced from the bone marrow stem cells; matured in the thymus.
- Involved in cell-mediated immunity
- They attack the invader directly
Subtypes: cytotoxic T killer cell, helper T cells, memory T cells

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15
Q

What immunity are T-cells responsible for?

A

Involved in cell-mediated immunity

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16
Q

What immunity are B-cells responsible for?

A

humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity

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17
Q

What is the primary cell of the immune system called?

A

Lymphocytes

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18
Q

What are antibodies?

A

Antibodies are made by immune system to counter-act antigens.

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19
Q

How do T-cells work (attack the invader) in the immune system?

A

They attack the invader directly

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20
Q

How do B-cells work (attack the invader) in the immune system?

A

They create antibodies. The antibodies attack the invaders.

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21
Q

What are the 2 steps in acquiring immunity? Describe each

A

1) Primary Response — occurs after the first exposure to an antigen. The immune system recognizes the antigen as foreign and starts to create antibodies. These antibodies take 1-2 weeks to form
2) Secondary Response — occurs on subsequent to the antigen. The body recognizes the antigen and sends out antibodies right away to fight it. This response is intense and sudden. This response results in higher levels of antibodies than the primary response

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22
Q

What is the antigen-antibody relationship?

A

o Antibodies bind with the specific matching antigen, destroying it. This specificity of antigen for antibody, similar to a key opening a lock, is a significant factor in the development of immunity to various diseases

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23
Q

which immunoglobulin is the most abundant type of antibody and is found in body fluids? Protects against?

A

IgG - protects againsts bacterial and viral infections

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24
Q

which immunoglobulin antibody is found in secretions (tears, saliva, mucous membranes, colostrum)?

A

IgA

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25
Q

which immunoglobulin antibody is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid and is the FIRST antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection (first to increase immune response)?

A

IgM

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26
Q

which immunoglobulin antibody is associated mainly with the allergic response (causes release of histamine and other chemicals); results in inflammation

A

IgE

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27
Q

which immunoglobulin antibody is attached to B cells and activates B cells?

A

IgD

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28
Q

Immune system: What is the complement system? Frequently activated during? with? results?

A

a group of inactive proteins circulating in the blood; activated during an immune reactions (with IgG/M)
Results in cell damage and further inflammation

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29
Q

Chemical mediators are involved in

A

inflammation and immune reactions, dependent on the particular circumstances

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30
Q

Difference between active and passive immunity

A
  • Active immunity: Develops when the person’s own body develops antibodies or T cells in response to a specific antigen; process takes a few weeks, but results lasts for years
  • Passive immunity: Occurs when antibodies are transferred from one person to another; effective immediately, but only temporary (no memory)
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31
Q

What are 4 ways of acquiring immunity? Describe each

A
  1. Active natural immunity – direct exposure to an antigen
  2. Active artificial immunity - a specific antigen purposefully introduced into the body and stimulates the production of antibodies (i.e. immunization)
  3. Passive natural immunity – IgG transferred form mom to fetus across the placenta and breastmilk
  4. Passive artificial immunity – injection of antibodies from a person or animal into a second person
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32
Q

Describe the steps involved in a Type I hypersensitivity

reaction - First Exposure

A

1) The first exposure to the allergen
2) The immune system recognizes the allergen as harmful and creates antibodies (lgE) to that allergen.
3) These antibodies attach themselves to mast cells; the mast cells are now sensitized

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33
Q

Describe the steps involved in a Type I hypersensitivity reaction - Second Exposure

A

4) The body recognizes the allergen and the sensitized mast cells release histamine
5) Histamine triggers the inflammatory response in nearby blood vessels and tissues — symptoms manifest (edema, redness, puritis, drainage)

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34
Q

What are mast cells and what do they do?

A

Located in tissues, release chemicals such as histamine, heparin, and bradykinin in response to injury or foreign material.

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35
Q

What are the 4 hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type I: Allergic reaction
Type II: Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Type III: Immune complex hypersensitivity
Type IV: Cell-mediated or delayed hypersensitivity

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36
Q

Describe Type II: Cytotoxic hypersensitivity and give example

A

◦ Antigen present on the cell membrane (self or non-self)
◦ IgG react with this antigen, causes destruction of the cell
◦ Example: blood incompatibility (ABO type, Rh factor)

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37
Q

Describe Type III: Immune complex hypersensitivity and give example

A

◦ Antigen-antibody complex deposits in tissue (often blood vessel walls); activates complement => inflammation and tissue destruction
◦ Example: rheumatoid arthritis

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38
Q

Describe Type IV: Cell-mediated or delayed hypersensitivity and give example

A

◦ Delayed response by sensitized T cells to antigens, resulting in release of chemical mediators that cause inflammatory response and antigen destruction
◦ Example: TB test (Mantoux skin test), contact dermatitis

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39
Q

What happens with the release of histamine?

A

Causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability or edema, contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle, and pruritus

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40
Q

How do autoimmune diseases occur? what do they effect? What do autoantibodies refer to?
Examples?

A

◦ Occur when the immune system cannot distinguish between self and nonself antigens – develop antibodies to own cells/cellular material
◦ Can affect single organs/tissues or can be generalized
◦ Autoantibodies: antibodies formed against self-antigens
- Ex. Hashimotos thyroiditis (effects single organs); Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (Chronic inflammatory disease – affects a number of systems)

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41
Q

Causes of immunodeficiency: Primary vs Secondary immunodeficiency

A

o Primary immunodeficiency: basic developmental failure somewhere in the system
– Due to genetic or congenital abnormalities
o Secondary immunodeficiency: loss of immune response due to specific causes
– Infection, splenectomy, liver disease, malnutrition, immunosuppressants, radiation, chemotherapy

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42
Q

• When a lymphocyte further specializes, what does it become

A

cells that have the special function of recognizing and reacting with antigens in the body. The two groups of lymphocytes, B Lymphocytes and T lymphocytes, determine which type of immunity will be initiated

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43
Q

What is essential to be done before undertaking an invasive procedure that carries an increased risk of organisms entering the body to anyone in an immunodeficient state?

A

that prophylactic antimicrobial drubs (preventive antibiotics) be administered to anyone in an immunodeficient state

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44
Q

What is a broken bone? Medical term for broken bone?

A

o Medical term = Fracture. Break in the rigid structure and continuity of a bone

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45
Q

What is a soft tissue injury to the tendon called?

A

Strain

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46
Q

What is tendon connective tissue for?

A

connects muscle to bone and is capable of withstanding tension

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47
Q

What is a soft tissue injury to the ligament called?

A

Sprain

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48
Q

What is a ligament connective tissue for?

A
  • Direct attachment between two bones. Serves to support the internal organs and hold bones together in proper articulation at the joints.
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49
Q

What is a joint separation? Medical term for joint separation?

A

o Dislocation - The separation of two bones at a joint with loss of contact between the articulating surfaces
o causes soft tissue damage (ligaments, nerves, blood vessels) as the bone is pulled away from the joint

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50
Q

What are the 5 stages of bone healing?

A
  • Hematoma
  • Granulation tissue
  • Procallus (fibrocartilage)
  • Bony callus
  • remodeling
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51
Q

Stage 1 of bone healing: Hematoma - describe

A

blood clot forms at the fracture site

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52
Q

Stage 2 of bone healing: Granulation tissue - describe

A

using hematoma as the base, granulation tissue (new vascular tissue) grows – phagocytic cells migrate to here to remove debris and fibroblasts migrate to here to lay down new collagen fibers

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53
Q

Stage 3 of bone healing: Procallus - describe

A

Procallus – fibrocartilage “collar”forms at the site – this is not strong enough to bear weight but is the preliminary repairing in the bone.
o Osteoblasts begin to generate new bone to fill in the gap

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54
Q

Stage 4 of bone healing: Bony callus - describe

A

Procallus is replaced by bony callus ** bone repair via new bone formation, not by scar tissue

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55
Q

Stage 5 of bone healing: Remodeling - describe

A

Repaired bone remodeled – excessive bone in the callus is removed and more compact bone is laid down and eventually the bone assumes a normal appearance

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56
Q

What are the 4 main complications of bone healing?

A

Muscle spasms
Ischemia
Compartment syndrome
Fat emboli

57
Q

How do muscle spasms cause complications of bone healing?

A 
local pain and irritation cause strong muscle contractions at the site; pulls the bone fragments further out of position.
causing angulation (deformity), rotation of a bone, or overriding of the bone pieces. Causes more soft tissue damage, bleeding, and inflammation
58
Q

How does ischemia cause complications of bone healing?

A

usually follows cast treatment; edema worsens during the first 48hrs and the limb could be compressed by the cast; if it’s too tight, toes/fingers could get pale, cold, or numb.

59
Q

How does Compartment syndrome cause complications of bone healing?

A

shortly after when there’s more extensive inflammation; a large amount of swelling in the muscle compartment; increased fluid within the fascia (nonelastic covering of the muscle) compresses the nerves and blood vessels =>severe pain, ischemia, or necrosis of the muscle

60
Q

How does Fat emboli cause complications of bone healing?

A

fatty marrow escapes from the bone marrow into a vein; can travel to the lungs and cause obstruction, inflammation, and respiratory distress and could disseminate into the systemic circulation

61
Q

Frequently the first signs of a fat embolus are?

A

behavioral changes, confusion, disorientation (cerebral emboli) in combination with respiratory distress and hypoxia

62
Q

What is osteoporosis? What are the two forms?

A

o Decrease in bone mass and density
o Two forms: (1) primary – postmenopausal (decreased sex hormones), age 50+ years, idiopathic;
(2) secondary – as a complication of another disorder

63
Q

What is the pathophysiology of osteoporosis and how is it diagnosed?

A
  • Pathophysiology: bone resorption exceed bone formation => thin, fragile bones
  • Diagnosed: using bone density scans and x-rays
64
Q

S&S of osteoporosis?

A

o Back pain
o Kyphosis and scoliosis with accompanying loss of height
o Spontaneous fractures

65
Q

Treatment for osteoporosis focuses on? what are some treatment methods?

A

Tx: Dietary (calcium, vitamin D, protein) and fluoride supplements (Fluoride promotes bone deposition)

  • Bisphosphonates (ex. Fosamax) – short term option to inhibit osteoclast activity and bone resorption
  • Hormone therapy - inject human parathyroid hormone (PTH) to decrease bone resorption
  • Regular weight-bearing exercise
  • Surgery to reduce kyphosis
66
Q

What is Osteoarthritis (OA)? Pathophysiology? primary and secondary form associated with?

A
  • Degenerative, ”wear and tear” joint disease.
    Pathophysiology: cartilage becomes rough and worn, tissue damage cause release of enzymes that accelerates cartilage disintegration => subchondral bone exposed and damaged, cysts and osteophytes develop => narrower joint space; cartilage and osteophyte fragments cause further irritation.
    • Primary form associated with obesity and aging; secondary form follows injury or abuse
67
Q

S&S of Osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  • Aching pain with weight-bearing and movement

* Limited joint movement => predisposition to falls, difficulty with mastication, speaking, yawning

68
Q

Tx of Osteoarthritis

A
  • Minimized stress on the joint, rest, support to facilitate movement (canes, walkers)
  • PT, OT, massage therapy, orthotic inserts
  • Glucosamine-chondroitin supplements
  • Injection of synthetic synovial fluid
  • Analgesics, NSAIDs
  • Joint replacement
69
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? Pathophysiology? What are other changes that frequently occur around the joint?

A

• Autoimmune disorder causing chronic systemic inflammatory disease
• Abnormal immune response => inflammation of the synovial joint (synovitis) => pannus formation (granulation tissue spreads) => cartilage erosion, fibrosis => ankylosis (joint fixation and deformity develop)
- other changes: muscle atrophy, bone alignment shifts, muscle spasm, contractures and deformity

70
Q

Etiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Exact cause unknown – genetic factor is present, with familial predisposition; linked to several viral infections
• Virus directly invades a joint and leads to an infection of the synovium

71
Q

S&S of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • Inflammation first in the fingers/wrists (bilateral)
  • Joints red, swollen, and sensitive to touch
  • Joint stiffness following rest; subsides with mild activity
  • Impaired joint movement
  • Malocclusion of the teeth with TMJ involvement
  • Marked systemic effects during exacerbation (fatigue, anorexia, mild fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, generalized aching)
72
Q

Tx of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • Balance between rest and moderate activity
  • PT, OT
  • NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, DMARDs
  • DMARD – disease modifying antirheumatic drugs – blocks inflammation; each works differently (some restrict immune system broadly, some block pathways, some block cytokines)
  • Heat and cold
73
Q

clear, straw-colored, mild odor urine means?

A

Normal

74
Q

cloudy urine means?

A

presence of protein, blood cells, or bacteria and pus

75
Q

dark urine means?

A

hematuria, excessive bilirubin, or highly concentrated

76
Q

unpleasant/unsual smell of urine means?

A

infection or result from dietary components or medications

77
Q

Blood found in urine is called what and means?

A

hematuria – small amounts of blood associated with infection, inflammation, or tumors in the urinary tract; large numbers of RBCs indicate increased glomerular permeability or hemorrhage

78
Q

Protein found in urine is called what and means?

A

proteinuria, albuminuria – leakage of albumin or mixed plasma proteins due to inflammation and increased glomerular permeability

79
Q

bacteria and pus found in urine is called what and indicates?

A

bacteriuria – and pus – pyuria – indicates UTI

80
Q

Urinary casts is indicative of

A

inflammation of the kidney tubules

81
Q

Very low specific gravity (dilute urine) indicates

A

renal failure

82
Q

Glucose and ketones in the blood indicates

A

uncontrolled diabetes

83
Q

What is hemodialysis vs. peritoneal dialysis?

A

Hemodialysis: uses a man-made membrane (dialyzer) to filter wastes and remove extra fluid from the blood.
Peritoneal dialysis: uses the lining of the abdominal cavity (peritoneal membrane) and a solution (dialysate) to remove wastes and extra fluid from the body.

84
Q

What urethritis vs. cystitis vs. pyelonephritis?

A

cystitis - Inflammation to bladder wall
urethritis - Inflammation of urethra
pyelonephritis - Upper tract infection, one or both kidneys involved

85
Q

S&S of Cystitis and Urethritis

A

o Pain to lower abdomen is common
o Dysuria (painful urination), urgency, frequency, and nocturia – urine irritates the inflamed bladder wall
o Systemic signs of infections (fever, malaise, nausea, leukocytosis)
o Cloudy urine with unusual odor
o Bacteriuria, pyuria (pus in urine), and microscopic hematuria [urinalysis]

86
Q

S&S of Pyelonephritis

A

o Signs of cystitis, flank pain (dull aching pain in the lower back)
o Systemic signs more marked
o Urinalysis results similar to cystitis + urinary casts present

87
Q

what casues Hydronephrosis, a urinary tract obstruction? can lead to?

A
  • Swelling of kidney(s) due to a buildup of urine. It happens when urine cannot drain out from the kidney to the bladder from a blockage or obstruction
  • chronic renal failure if the cause is not removed
88
Q

What is Urolithiasis, a urinary tract obstruction?

A

kidney stone or calculi

  • Calcium stones – high calcium due to hypercalcemia, parathyroid tumor, metabolic disorders; form readily in alkaline and concentrated urine
  • Uric acid stones – hyperuricemia due to gout, high-purine diets, cancer chemo; acidic urine
89
Q

what is the primary tumor from the lining of tubules?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

urinary tract obstruction

90
Q

difference between acute renal failure vs. chronic renal failure?

A

-Acute: Reversible if the primary problem is treated successfully – dialysis may be used during this period
Both kidneys fail to function – greatly reduced GFR, oliguria, and anuria due to obstruction and back pressure (directly reduced blood flow into the kidney, inflammation and necrosis of the tubules)
- Chronic: Gradual irreversible destruction of the kidneys over a long period
May be due to chronic kidney disease, systemic disorders, or a long-term exposure to nephrotoxins

91
Q

What is the relationship between serum creatinine levels and renal function

A

Increase in serum = decrease in renal function

92
Q

High serum levels of ________________ can indicate renal failure as the kidneys are unable to filter waste products:

A

Creatinine

93
Q

What is an infection that results from non sterile insertion of a Foley catheter?

A

Iatrogenic

94
Q

Which type of immunity is developed when the person’s own body develops antibodies or T cells in response to a specific antigen introduced into the body?

A

Active

95
Q

Which type of immunity has memory?

A

ACtive

96
Q

In which type of hypersensitivity does it usually take more than 24 hours for the reaction to appear?

A

IV

97
Q

Which of the following is a possible consequence of an cerebrovascular accident in the left hemisphere?

- Left sided weakness
- Right sided weakness	
- Multiple Sclerosis
- Concussion
A

Right sided weakness

98
Q

Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. Hypercalemia is high levels of calcium in the blood. Which of the following is an effect of hyperparathyroidism?

- Weakened bones
- Slowed metabolism
- Muscle spasms and twitching
- Exophthalmos
A

Weakened bones

99
Q

Cardiac enzyme tests and ECG are used in diagnosis of which of the following?

- Esophageal varices
- Pneumonia
- Leukemia
- Myocardial infarction
- Lymphomas
A

Myocardial infarction

100
Q

Would we use antibiotics for viral infections?

A

NO
- For most viral infections, treatments can only help with symptoms while you wait for your immune system to fight off the virus.

101
Q

What would we make sure to include in patient teachings for taking antibiotics?

A
  • Do not take on an empty stomach
  • Finish the bottle even if you start to feel better
  • Do not drink alcohol
  • If you have a reaction call your Doctor immediately
102
Q

What are bacteria? Viruses? Fungi?

A
  • Bacteria are unicellular (single cell) organisms that don’t need living tissue to survive.
  • Virus is very small obligate intracellular parasite that requires a living host cell for replication.
  • Fungi are found everywhere, on animals, plants, humans and foods. Often found on dead organic material such as plants.
103
Q

how do bacteria, Viruses, Fungi, replicate?

A

Bacteria - duplicates by binary fission, a division of the cell that produces two daughter cells identical to the parent bacterium
Virus - A virus attaches to a host cell and penetrates. Uncoating - Viral DNA or RNA enters host cell or nucleus and takes control of host cell DNA. Host cell synthesizes viral components and assemble new viruses.
Fungi - reproduce by budding, extension of the hyphae, or producing various types of spores.
• Spores can spread easily through the air and are resistant to temperature change and chemicals. Inhaled spores can stimulate an allergic reaction in humans

104
Q

What is the primary factor in determining the risk of active infection following exposure

A

Host resistance

105
Q

What are endotoxins? Effect on body

A
  • present in the cell wall of Gram-negative organisms
  • released after the bacterium dies.
  • may cause fever and general weakness, or may have serious effects on the circulatory system causes increased capillary permeability, loss of vascular fluid and endotoxic shock
106
Q

what are exotoxins? effect on body?

A

usually produced by gram-positive bacteria and diffuse through body fluids.
- stimulate antibody or antitoxin -> reduces the toxic effect

  • variety of effects often interfering with nerve conduction and others may stimulate the vomiting center and cause gastrointestinal distress
107
Q

What are enzymes? they may assist bacteria in invading…?

A

Enzymes are produced by some bacteria and can be a source of damage to the host tissue or cells.
- invading tissue by breaking down tissue components.

108
Q

lungs, brain, blood, bladder, and kidneys, uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries. Are sterile or non-sterile?

A

Sterile

109
Q

What is endemic vs. epidemic vs. pandemic?

A
  • Endemic refers to certain infections constantly occurring to that population
  • Epidemics refers to infections occurring outside their normal geographic range or in higher than expected numbers
  • Pandemics refer to infections spreading wordwide
110
Q

direct vs indirect transmission. PPE considerations?

A

Direct contact: occurs when there is physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person. Ex. touching an infectious lesion or sexual intercourse

Indirect contact: occurs when there is no direct human-to-human contact. Ex. contaminated hand or food, an inanimate object such as bed linen or an instrument that carries organisms

PPE for both: Gloves/protection

111
Q

droplet transmission occurs when? PPE ?

A
  • respiratory or salivary secretions containing pathogens such as TB bacteria are expelled from the body. This may be inhaled by another individual or may fall on nearby objects .
    PPE mask, gloves, gown.
112
Q

What is aerosol transmission? PPE?

A

involving small particles from the respiratory tract that remain suspended in the air and travel on air currents infection any new host who inhales the particles. PPE, gown, gloves, mask.

113
Q

What is vector-borne transmission

A

when an insect or animal serves as an intermediary host in a disease such as malaria.

114
Q

What is septicemia? (sepsis)

A

Septicemia is a serious bloodstream infection. It’s also known as blood poisoning. Septicemia occurs when a bacterial infection elsewhere in the body, such as the lungs or skin, enters the bloodstream

115
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Septic shock is a potentially fatal medical condition that occurs when sepsis leads to dangerously low blood pressure and abnormalities in cellular metabolism.

116
Q

What are the S&S of septic shock?

A
  • Cool, pale arms and legs
  • high or very low temperature, chills,
  • little or no urine
  • low BP especially when standing, palpitations
  • rapid heart rate.
117
Q

What are “super bugs”?

A

• a strain of bacteria that has become resistant to antibiotic drugs.

118
Q

What is MRSA?

A

bacterium that is resistant to many antibiotics. Infections that are increasingly seen as a source of nosocomial infection.

119
Q

What is Clostridium Difficile (C-Diff)

A

bacteria that live in the intestines of 1-3% of people. most frequent cause of infectious diarrhea in hospitals and health care facilities.

120
Q

What is Vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

A

type of bacteria called enterococci that have developed resistance to many antibiotics, especially vancomycin. … But if they become resistant to antibiotics, they can cause serious infections, especially in people who are ill or weak

121
Q

A bacterial infection can result in Leuko… ? WBC increases or decreases

A

Leukocytosis. WBC increase

122
Q

A Viral infection can result in Leuko… ? WBC increases or decreases?

A

Leukopnia - WBC Decreases

123
Q

There are 2 stages to this infection: primary infection and secondary infection (reinfection).

A

TB

124
Q

In chronic bronchitis, chronic irritation and inflammation leads to this.

A

Fibrosis

125
Q

Because of the obstructive nature of the disease, patients with emphysema often retain

A

CO2

126
Q

Damage to the heart muscle can cause ineffective pumping, leading to this condition.

A

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

127
Q

Damage to the left ventricle leads to fluid back up in this area.

A

Lungs

128
Q

Shortness of breath, orthopnea, crackles on auscultation and low oxygen saturation are signs and symptoms of this.

A

Left sided heart failure

129
Q

3 signs and symptoms of right sided heart failure.

A

peripheral edema, ascites, jugular venous distention (JVD)

130
Q

If a patient is in cardiac arrest, what rhythm is not “shockable”? What rhythm is “schockable”

A 
Not = Asystole
Is = ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia
131
Q

This coronary artery disease is distinguished by the presence of atheromas.

A

atherosclerosis

132
Q

The majority of myocardial infarctions involve this area of the heart.

A

Left ventricle

133
Q

Myocardial infarction occurs as a result of

A

complete occlusion of a coronary artery

134
Q

What are 2 types of contact dermatitis?

A
  • Allergic contact dermatitis: type IV hypersensitivity reaction
  • Chemical contact dermatitis: direct irritation from some sort of chemical
135
Q

necrotizing fasciitis is known as

A

“flesh eating disease”

136
Q

Glaucoma results from

A

increased intraocular pressure

137
Q

What are cataracts

A

Cataracts are a progressive opacity (clouding) of the lens

- Can be caused by metabolic abnormalities such as diabetes

138
Q

What are the two basic types of hearing loss?

A

Conduction: Outer to middle ear problems
Sensorineural: is damage to organ of corti (in the cochlea), auditory nerves, or temporal lobe

Pathophysiologyyy (18 decks)

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