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SAC A&P I > Final Exam Study Questions > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Membrane composed of phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins

A

Plasma Membrane

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2
Q

The cellular material surrounding the nucleus and enclosed by the plasma membrane

A

Cytoplasm

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3
Q

Viscous, semitransparent fluid substance of cytoplasm in which other elements are suspended

A

Cytosol

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4
Q

A region near the nucleus that contains paired organelles called centrioles

A

Centrosome

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5
Q

Tiny, hairlike projections of a cell; propels substances across the exposed surface

A

Cilia

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6
Q

Cytoplasmic organelles at which proteins are synthesized

A

Ribosome

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7
Q

Membranous network of tubular or sac-like channels in the cytoplasm of a cell

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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8
Q

Membranous system close to the cell nucleus that packages protein secretions for export

A

Gogi apparatus

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9
Q

Organelles that originate from the Golgi apparatus and contain strong digestive enzymes

A

Lysosome

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10
Q

This lipid is an important port of cell membranes and also serves as the precursor of Vitamin D and the sex steroids.

A

Cholesterol

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11
Q

The monomers of proteins are ?

A) Fatty acids
B) Amino acids
C) Glucose
D) Nucleotides

A

Amino acids

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12
Q

This lipid makes up the cell membrane:

A

Phospholipid

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13
Q

What are the hydrophobic parts of phospholipids?

A

Fatty acid tails

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14
Q

Which type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bi-layer of the plasma membrane, touching both intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid?

A) Transmembrane protein
B) Complement protein
C) Glycoprotein
D) Peripheral protein

A

Transmembrane protein

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15
Q

In this type of process, a solute binds to a carrier protein on one side of the membrane. This binding changes the shape of the carrier protein that results in the solute moving DOWN it’s concentration gradient.

A

Facilitated diffusion

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16
Q

Which of the following refers to the ability of a solution to change the volume of a cell by changing the cell’s water content?

A

Tonicity

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17
Q

In this transport process, the energy from ATP is DIRECTLY used to drive substances across the membrane against their concentration gradients.

A) Secondary active transport
B) Active diffusion
C) Primary active transport
D) Facilitated diffusion

A

Primary active transport

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18
Q

A cell placed in isotonic solution will ?

A) Shrink
B) Stay the same
C) Swell or burst

A

Stay the same

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19
Q

A cell placed in hypotonic solution will?

A) Shrink
B) Stay the same
C) Swell or burst

A

Swell or burst

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20
Q

What transport process uses energy STORED in the Na++ concentration gradient to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradient? (Na++ is going down it’s gradient and another molecule is “piggy-backing” going against it’s gradient?)

A

Secondary active transport

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21
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding DNA?

A) It’s sugar is deoxyribose
B) It contains the nitrogenous base Thymine
C) It leaves the nucleus to direct protein synthesis on the ribosome

A

DNA does NOT leave the nucleus

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22
Q

Which of the following is not true about RNA?

A) It contains the nitrogenous base Uracil
B) It is double stranded
C) It is single stranded
D) It’s sugar is ribose

A

RNA is NOT double stranded

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23
Q

Which epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and oil glands?

A) Simple squamous
B) Stratified cuboidal
C) Transitional
D) Stratified squamous

A

Stratified cuboidal

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24
Q

The ____ component of connective tissue is found between cells and fibers and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue.

A) Basement membrane
B) Matrix
C) Formed elements
D) Ground substance

A

Ground substance

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25
Q

The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of ?

A) Enzymes and organelles
B) Protein fibers and ground substance
C) Cell walls
D) Plasma membranes and transport proteins

A

Ground substance and protein fibers

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26
Q

Which epithelial tissue lines most bronchioles and fallopian tubes, moving mucus and oocytes?

A) Stratified columnar
B) Ciliated simple columnar
C) Ciliated cuboidal
D) Nonciliated simple cuboidal

A

Ciliated simple columnar

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27
Q

____ muscle pumps blood through the body and ____ is located in the wall of blood vessels.

A) Skeletal muscle, smooth muscle
B) Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle
C) Cardiac muscle, Skeletal muscle
D) Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle

A

Cardiac and smooth

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28
Q

Most abundant cells of the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes

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29
Q

Epithelial cells that synthesize melanin

A

Melanocytes

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30
Q

Cells with a disc-like sensory nerve that functions as a sensory receptor

A

Merkel cells

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31
Q

Skin cells that activate the immune system

A

Dendridic cells

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32
Q

Fibrous protein that helps give epidermis it’s protective properties

A

Keratin

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33
Q

Epidermal layer where cells are considered protective, but non-living

A

Stratum corneum

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34
Q

Epidermal layer that is several layers thick and contains pre-keratin

A

Stratum spinosum

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35
Q

Epidermal layer that contains mitotic cells

A

Stratum basale

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36
Q

Epidermal layer that contains deteriorating organelles

A

Stratum granulosum

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37
Q

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers in what order?

A

Corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

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38
Q

Which glands secrete sebum (an oily substance)?

A) Sebaceous glands
B) Apocrine glands
C) Eccrine glands

A

Sebaceous

39
Q

The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is:

A

The major part of it’s make up is adipose

40
Q

The dermis has two major layers. Which constitutes 80% of the dermis?

A) Reticular layer
B) Capillary layer
C) Subcutaneous layer

A

Reticular layer

41
Q

The composition of the secretions of eccrine glands is ?

A) 99% water, sodium chloride, wastes, Vit C
B) Uric acid
C) Fatty substances, proteins, minerals, vitamins
D) Metabolic waste

A

99% water, sodium chloride, wastes, & Vit C

42
Q

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would you find these glands?

A) Axillary and anogenital areas
B) All regions, buried deep in the dermis
C) Palms of hands and feet

A

Axillary and anogenital areas

43
Q

Which of the following illustrates homeostasis maintained by negative feedback?

A) Release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat
B) Increase in sebum production in response to androgens
C) Excretion of salt within sweat
D) Lack of pain in third degree burns due to nerve damage

A

Release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat

44
Q

Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from blood?

A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum corneum
C) Stratum spinosum
D) Stratum granulosum

A

Stratum basale

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of skin?

A) Gives body it’s overall shape
B) Delivers environmental information
C) Initiates Vit D synthesis
D) Holds 8-10% of blood volume

A

The skin does NOT give the body it’s shape

46
Q

Which of the following bone tissue is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion?

A) Compact bone
B) Spongy bone
C) Trabecular bone

A

Compact bone

47
Q

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ?

A) Fat
B) Blood forming cells
C) Elastic tissue
D) Perforating fibers

A

Fat

48
Q

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ?

A) Osteoblast
B) Osteocyte
C) Osterclast
D) Chondrocyte

A

Osteblast

49
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would break in the ?

A) Diaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Metaphysis
D) Articular cartilage

A

Diaphysis

50
Q

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

A) Growth hormone
B) PTH
C) Calcium
D) Thyroid hormone

A

Growth hormone

51
Q

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ?

A) Blood vessels and nerve fibers
B) Cartilage and interstitial lamellae
C) Adipose and nerve tissue
D) Yellow marrow and spicules

A

Blood vessels and nerve fibers

52
Q

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

A) Osteclasts
B) Osterocytes
C) Osteoblasts

A

Osteoclasts

53
Q

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Calcitonin
C) Thyroxine
D) Estrogen

A

Parathyroid hormone

54
Q

Wolff’s law is concerned with ?

A) The thickness of bone dependent on stress placed upon it
B) Vertical growth of bones dependent on age
C) The function of bone dependent upon shape

A

Thickness of bone dependent on stress

55
Q

The effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ?

A) Decrease blood calcium
B) Increase blood calcium
C) Decrease mitosis of chondrocytes
D) Close the epiphyseal plate

A

Decrease blood calcium

56
Q

Spongy bone contains ?

A) Trabeculae
B) Lamellar bone
C) Osteons

A

Trabeculae

57
Q

Choose the structure that most directly provides nutrients and removes waste from osteocytes in compact bone.

A) Canaliculi
B) Central canals
C) Nutrient foramens
D) Perforating canals

A

Canaliculi

58
Q

When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by it’s own matrix, it is referred to as an ?

A) Osteocyte
B) Osteroclast
C) Osteogenic cell
D) Chondrocyte

A

Osteocyte

59
Q

The orange pigment in skin is ?

A

Carotene

60
Q

When an athlete performs a pull up, the process of lowering the body down is ?

A) Eccentric contraction
B) Isometric contraction
C) Concentric contraction

A

Eccentric

61
Q

Contraction of myofibrils within a muscle fiber begins when ?

A) Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated channels
B) Sodium enters the muscle fiber
C) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) An action potential travels to the T-tubule

A

Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

62
Q

Which ATP production mechanism would be sufficient to run in place for 1 minute?

A) Creatine phosphate
B) Glycolysis
C) Aerobic cellular respiration

A

Glycolysis

63
Q

What is true about smooth muscle?

A) It is striated
B) The actin filaments are attached to dense bodies
C) It does not have myosin-actin overlap
D) It is voluntary

A

The actin filaments are attached to dense bodies

64
Q

What energizes the myosin head?

A) ADP synthesis
B) Calcium
C) Acetylcholine
D) ATP hydrolysis reaction

A

ATP hydrolysis reaction

65
Q

Which characteristics describe both skeletal and cardiac muscle?

A) Involuntary
B) Striations
C) Voluntary

A

Striations

66
Q

What is the result of acetylcholine attaching to the ligand gates of the motor end plate?

A) Calcium ions will be actively transported into the SR
B) Calcium voltage gates on neurolemma are inactive
C) The sarcolemma increases permeability to sodium
D) The positive charge of the sarcolemma decreases

A

The sarcolemma increases permeability to sodium

67
Q

Why would cardiac muscles have longer refractory periods than skeletal muscles?

A) The muscle types contain different contractile proteins
B) Skeletal muscles have prolonged calcium influx
C) To preserve normal rhythm of the heart and prevent tetanus

A

To preserve normal rhythm of the heart and prevent tetanus

68
Q

Where does Ca++ bind in order to initiate the sliding filament mechanism of contraction?

A) Tropomyosin
B) Myosin
C) Troponin
D) Actin

A

Troponin

69
Q

What directly prevents myosin heads from binding to actin?

A

Tropomyosin

70
Q

A brief contraction of alll muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential is known as a ?

A) Wave summation
B) Unfused tetanus
C) Fused tetanus
D) Twitch

A

Twitch

71
Q

After prolonged strenuous exercise has stopped, heavy breathing will often continue for several minutes in order to provide oxygen needed to ?

A) Convert lactic acid back into glycogen
B) Re-synthesize creatine phosphate
C) Both

A

Both converting lactic acid and re-synthesizing creatine phosphate

72
Q

When an athlete is preparing to perform a pull up, they hang from the bar. They are performing what type of contraction?

A) Concentric
B) Eccentric
C) Isometric

A

Isometric

73
Q

What is the correct sequence of structures that action potentials must move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction?

A

T tubules, sarcolemma, & myofilament

74
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from ?

A) Myofibrils
B) T tubules
C) Mitochondria
D) Terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Terminal cisterns

75
Q

Opening of ligand gates on the sarcolemma is directly caused by ?

A) Acetylcholine attachment
B) Calcium influx into the motor neuron
C) Sodium influx into the muscle fiber

A

Acetylcholine attachment

76
Q

Which is a true statement?

A) Sarcomere length does not affect the force of a muscle contraction
B) Sarcomere length in skeletal muscle at rest is not optimal
C) The force of contraction depends on the length of sarcomeres prior to contraction

A

The force of contraction depends on the length of sarcomeres prior to contraction

77
Q

Which structure contains motor proteins that convert the energy in ATP into mechanical movements?

A) Tropomyosin
B) Troponin
C) Actin
D) Myosin heads

A

Myosin heads

78
Q

Which is a contributing factor in rigor mortis?

A) Decreased ability of the Ca++ pump to move Ca++ into sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) Breakdown of myofilaments
C) Increased activity of acetylcholinesterase
D) Increased activity of the Na+/K+ pump

A

Decreased ability of the Ca++ pump to move Ca++ back into SR

79
Q

What factor would most likely contribute to the muscles cramping in your hand?

A) A deficit of ATP keeping myosin heads from detaching
B) Calcium being pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) ACh being degraded by AChE

A

A deficit of ATP keeping myosin heads from detaching

80
Q

Which microscopic structure is found only in cardiac muscle?

A) Myosin
B) Intercalated discs
C) Tropomyosin
D) Sarcomeres

A

Intercalated discs

81
Q

Which electrical signal can allow for rapid long-distance communication within the nervous sytem?

A) Graded potential
B) Hyperpolarizing potential
C) Action potential
D) Resting potential

A

Action potential

82
Q

The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the sodium channels. All of the following are consequences except one.

A) This limits the frequency of action potentials down the axon
B) This allows for the efflux of potassium ions, resulting in the re-polarization of the cell
C) This stops the depolarization of the axon membrane

A

This allows for the efflux of potassium ions, resulting in the re-polarization of the cell

83
Q

What is true about action potentials?

A) Increasing stimulus strength increases magnitude
B) They can be summed
C) They decay
D) They are all or nothing

A

They are all or nothing

84
Q

An inhibitory post-synaptic potential ____ the post-synaptic membrane.

A) Does not affect
B) Hyperpolarizes
C) Repolarizes
D) Depolarizes

A

Hyperpolarizes

85
Q

Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to ?

A) Inhibit pre-synaptic potential
B) Excite pre-synaptic potential
C) Continue a temporal summation
D) Remove a neurotransmitter

A

Remove a neurotransmitter

86
Q

Saltatory conduction is described by which statements?

  1. Current passes through the entire unmyelinated axon membrane
  2. Current passes through a myelinated axon only at the nodes of Ranvier
  3. Current occurs at faster rates
  4. Voltage-gated channels are concentrated in unmyelinated regions
  5. More energy is used to increase speed of conduction
A

2, 3, & 4

87
Q

____ open and close in reponse to physical deformation of receptors.

A) Mechanically-gated channels
B) Ligand-gated channels
C) Leak channels
D) Voltage-gated channels

A

Mechanically-gated channels

88
Q

Electrical excitability is seen in which cell?

A) Ependymal cell
B) Satellite cell
C) Neurons
D) Microglia

A

Neurons

89
Q

The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

90
Q

If a post-synaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation, this implies that ?

A) The post-synaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold
B) The post-synaptic cell has many synapses with many pre-synaptic neurons
C) The post-synaptic cell has many voltage-gated ion channels

A

The post-synaptic cell has many synapses with many pre-synaptic neurons

91
Q

Which of the following best illustrates the positive feedback potential?

A) Potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions
B) Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization
C) The sodium-potassium pump moves ions as long as ATP is available
D) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus which will open still more voltage-gated sodium channels

A

A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus which will open still more voltage-gated sodium channels

92
Q

If a post-synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation, this implies that ____.

A) The pre-synaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP’s
B) The post-synaptic cell is sending frequent action potentials
C) It is less likely that the post-synaptic cell will generate an action potential

A

The pre-synaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP’s

93
Q

A depolarizing graded potential ____.

A) Occurs in the axon
B) Makes the membrane more polarized
C) Makes the membrane less polarized
D) Occurs when acetylcholine enters the cytosol

A

Makes the membrane less polarized

SAC A&P I (13 decks)

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