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Microbiology > Final Exam Study Deck:) > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Deck:) Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of human pathogens are viruses and prions

A

15%

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2
Q

What percent of human pathogens are bacteria

A

40%

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3
Q

What percent of human pathogens are fungi

A

20%

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4
Q

What percent of human pathogens are Protozoa

A

5%

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5
Q

What percent of human pathogens are Helminths

A

20%

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6
Q

What are the important structural componets of fungi

A

Have cell walls made of chitin (no peptidoglycan or cellulose)
Have a cell membrane made of a phospholipid bilayer with sterols in them (ergosterol)

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7
Q

What are the 2 forms of fungi

A

Yeasts and molds
Yeasts are unicellular
Molds are multicellular

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8
Q

What are the formations that yeasts are found in

A

Pseudohyphae (short chains)

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9
Q

How to yeasts reproduce

A

by budding

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10
Q

What are molds made of

A

Hyphae- long Strings of cells
Septate hyphae have walls between cells
Aseptate hyphae have no walls between cells

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11
Q

What types of infections (generally) do molds cause in humans

A

Fungal infections

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12
Q

Which organism was the original source of penicillin

A

Mold

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13
Q

Dimorphic fungi change between which two forms

A

Between mold and yeasts- They are molds when convenient (i.e. in soil) and change to yeast in lungs (i.e. to infect someone!)

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14
Q

What is the route of transmission for protozoal infections

A

Waterborne, foodborn, contact with farm animals, mice, birds and their feces, swimming or bathing in contaminated water

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15
Q

What are protozoa classified as (multi or unicellular, eukaryotes or prokaryotes?)

A

Unicellular eukaryotes

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16
Q

What stages of life cycle do protozoa usually have

A

Usually trophozoite and cyst forms
Trophozoite is active, feeding and reproducing. Cysts are tough dormant forms iwth a wall.

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17
Q

How are cysts from protozoa usually shed

A

In feces during a GI infection of the person

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18
Q

What are the common routes of transmission for Helminth infections

A

Transmitted through feces in soil, fecal- oral routes (ingest eggs in soil), Eat undercooked pork containing tapeworm or larvae in cysts, or by mosquitoes

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19
Q

What are the common characteristics of helminths

A

Multicellular eukaryotes with organs
Have 3 forms: Egg, Larvae, Adult worms

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20
Q

What is the life cycle of ascaris lumbricoides? Include transmission, eggs, larvae, and adult worm stages

A

-Transmission is fecal-oral through eggs in soil that are ingested by waterborne or foodborne routes.

-Eggs hatch into larvae in intestines

-Larvae penetrate host blood vessels and migrate to alveoli of lungs

-Larvae are coughed up and swallowed back into intestines where they grow into adult worms

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21
Q

What are the 6 steps required for a pathogen to infect its host

A

Exposure
Transmission/Entry
Adhesion
Invasion
Infection
Evasion of the Host immune System

“Every Tiny Ant is in Euphoria”
- I would like to be a tiny ant, they don’t study much, so they’re euphoric.

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22
Q

What is the difference between an active and passive carrier of a pathogen

A

Active carriers are infected with the disease and can transmit it to others
Passive carriers are NOT “infected” but are asymptomatic and can carry the pathogen on their skin or in their blood to transmit to others.

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23
Q

Active Carriers are always symptomatic- true or false?

A

False- They can be symptomatic or asymptomatic

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24
Q

Describe contact transmission

A

There is indirect, direct, droplet, and congenital contact transmission. The infected person or their fluids go directly to the susceptible person (or via a surface, etc)

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25
Q

What are the 4 subtypes of contact transmission

A

Direct- Infected person to susceptible person

Indirect: Infected person to object to susceptible person

Droplet: Infected person to a droplet touched by a susceptible person

Congenital: Mother to fetus

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26
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of vehicle transmission

A

Airborne, Waterborne, Foodborne

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27
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of vector transmission

A

Mechanical:
Body or feet of an arthropod or insect to susceptible person

Biological:
Bite, vomit, or defecation of arthropod to susceptible person

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28
Q

What are portals of entry

A

Ways that the pathogen can enter the host

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29
Q

Describe the portal of entry that pathogens in the air can use

A

They can enter our respiratory tract through ventilation

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30
Q

Describe the portal of entry that pathogens in our food and water can use

A

They can enter via our GI tract through our intake of food or water
Pathogens in water that we bathe in can enter our skin if it is broken

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31
Q

Describe the portals of entry that pathogens on our skin can use to enter our body

A

They can enter the urinary tract or reproductive tract

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32
Q

What are some common mechanisms of adhension that pathogens use

A

Fimbriae, pili, capsules, slime layers, biofilms, hooks, barbs, and spike proteins are adhesins

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33
Q

What is an adhesin?

A

A protein or glycoprotein on the surface of a pathogen that helps adhere to receptors on the host cell

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34
Q

Describe Invasion as a step of pathogen infection

A

Spread of the pathogen through tissues or the whole body
Pathogens might secrete exoenzymes or toxins to help them invade

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35
Q

Describe infection as a step of pathogen infection

A

Exotoxins are produced (proteins that are secreted by bacteria that cause damage to host cells)

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36
Q

Gram negative bacteria release LPS when they die, which stimulates an immune response. Which step in pathogen infection does this fall into?

A

It falls into infection- the pathogen secretes exotoxins that cause damage to the host cells.

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37
Q

What are some of the ways that organisms can evade the host immune system?

A

Some pathogens can survive phagocytosis and reproduce in host cells

Phagocytosis of a pathogen creates a phagolysosome

Some bacteria can prevent
fusion of phagosome and lysosome

DNAse breaks down NETs (Neutrophil extracellular traps)

Some pathogens can survive inside host cells to evade immune system

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38
Q

What is virulance

A

The ability of an organism to cause infection and damage to its host

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39
Q

What are virulence factors

A

Help the pathogen progress through any stage of infectious disease and determine the severity of the disease that the pathogen can cause

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40
Q

What is virulence an indication of

A

How dangerous the infection is, but not how well the pathogen will survive

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41
Q

Our bodies/Host bodies creates secretions in the respiratory tract and they have cillia that help to remove pathogens. What is a pathogen’s strategy to overcome this host defence?

A

Pathogens have adhesins and have firm attachments to epithelium

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42
Q

In host bodies, cilia beat rythymically to push microorganisms and parasites out of the trachea. What is a pathogen’s strategy to overcome this host defence?

A

Pathogens inhibit movement of cilia- i.e. cause paralysis of epithelial cells, which causes mucus to accumulate in lungs

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43
Q

Host cell membranes are a barrier to pathogens. What is a pathogen’s strategy to overcome this host defense? What are 2 pathogens that commonly do this?

A

Pathogens can traverse host cell membranes. They have a fusion protein in a viral envelope (HIV or Influenza)

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44
Q

Host immune systems have a complement activation system. What is a pathogen’s strategy to overcome this host defense?

A

Pathogen can interfere with complement components and produce an enzyme (elastase)

Pathogens can interfere with complement mediated phagocytosis, they can block complement access (Candida albicans)

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45
Q

Host cells have an immune system. What is a pathogen’s strategy to overcome this host defense? What are 2 pathogens that have this mecahnism?

A

Microbe can destroy antibody, bacteria can produce IgA protease (streptococci, neisseria meningitidis)

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46
Q

Which action leads to the greatest shedding of respiratory droplets

A

Sneezing

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47
Q

How many UTIs are there in the USA per year

A

12.5 million

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48
Q

How many UTIs are there worldwide every year

A

125 million

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49
Q

Which pathogen type is the most common cause of a UTI

A

Bacteria

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50
Q

What is the single most common cause of a UTI

A

E. Coli

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51
Q

Is E. Coli primary or opportunistic when infecting people to cause a UTI?

A

Can be either primary or opportunistic

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52
Q

Are women or men at greater risk of UTI, and why?

A

Women are much more at risk (14 times as much) because of their short (2.5 inch long) distance from urethra to anus compared with men (around 7.5 inches)

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53
Q

What are the 3 ways that pregnancy increases the risk of getting a UTI?

A
  1. Pregnancy increases the amount of glucose and protein in the urine and women are at a higher risk of a UTI since bacteria can grow in it.
  2. Progesterone is also higher in pregnancy, which decreases smooth muscle tone in ureters
    3.Uterus can block flow through urinary tract from ureters to urethra
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54
Q

Which 2 factors increase the risk of a UTI in men

A

Uncircumcision (idk if thats a word) and Catheters that are inserted
Also, people in nursing homes are at a higher risk

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55
Q

Which bacteria is a normal and important member of the female vaginal microbiome

A

Lactobacillus- They are in normal vaginal secretions

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56
Q

What does Lactobacillus do in the vagina? (What does it secrete? What does this do?)

A

Lactobacillus ferments glycogen in the vagina and produces an acidic lactic acid, which lowers the pH in the vagina so that other pathogens cannot infect it

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57
Q

What does the vagina have in its secretions normally that attracts Lactobacillus?

A

Glycogen– Lactobacillus uses this to ferment and create lactic acid, which in turn lowers the vagina’s pH

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58
Q

What is Bacterial Vaginosis

A

Infection of the Vagina

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59
Q

How is Bacterial Vaginosis transmitted

A

May be transmitted via sexual contact, but transmission is controversial

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60
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is associated with a decrease in which resident vaginal pathogen

A

Lactobacillus

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61
Q

Why does a decrease in lactobacillus in the vagina cause BV?

A

Less lactobacillus leads to an increased pH, so other pathogens can infect the vagina.

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62
Q

Which pathogens enter the vagina when lactobacillus concentration decreases?

A

Gardenella vaginalis (opportunistic pathogen) increases and causes a biofilm in the vaginal epithelial cells.

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63
Q

What are signs and symptoms of BV

A

Vaginal discharge, fishy odor, vulvar irritation, vulvar burning
Asymptomatic in 85% of women

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64
Q

What does BV increase the risk of

A

BV increases the risk of getting HIV, HSV, and Gonorrhea, Chlamydia

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65
Q

How do you diagnose BV?

A

Thin and homogenous vaginal discharge, Fishy odor, pH >4.5, Wet wipe shows clue cells (must have ¾ of these)

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66
Q

What is the treatment for BV?

A

Topical or oral metronidazole

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67
Q

What is the most common route of transmission for Bloodborne pathogens

A

Through arthropods like mosquitoes, lice, ticks, and fleas

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68
Q

What is usually an essential part of the life cycle for the pathogen?

A

A vector- the pathogen can then be infected into the host

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69
Q

Which parasite transmits malaria?

A

anopheles mosquito

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70
Q

Which pathogen spreads plague?

A

Rat fleas

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71
Q

Which pathogen spreads typhus?

A

Lice

72
Q

What pathogen causes bubonic plague

A

Yersinia pestis bacteria

73
Q

How is the bubonic plague transmitted

A

Through the bite and vomitting of the rat flea

74
Q

Aside from through an arthropod, what are 4 other ways that blood born pathogens can spread?

A
  1. From mom to fetus in infections like HIV, CMV, Hep B, syphillis
  2. IV drug use can spread HIV, Hep B, etc
  3. Shared syringes that hospitals do not steralize properly
  4. Transfusions of contaminated blood
75
Q

The virulance of a pathogen is directly correlated with its ability to be transmitted to other hosts. True or false

A

False!
The ability of a pathogen to be transmitted varies indipendently of the pathogen’s ability to do damage

76
Q

What is the most effective route of transmission worldwide of pathogens?

A

From person to person (can be respiratory, fecal-oral, or sexual)
Called Contact transmission

77
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine if the transmission of a pathogen is successful or not

A
  1. The number of pathogens shed
  2. The stability of the pathogen in the environment
  3. The number of pathogens needed to infect the new host
78
Q

Describe how the number of pathogens shed is tied into transmission from the pathogen to the host

A

The more bacteria or pathogens that are shed, the greater the chance of reaching a new host

Most shed organisms die

79
Q

Describe how the stability of the pathogen in the environment is tied into transmission from the pathogen to the host

A

The ability to withstand dehydration and extremes of temperature are the major factors predicting the success of pathogen transmission

Microorganisms that resist drying spread more rapidly than those sensitive to drying

80
Q

Describe how The number of pathogens needed to infect the new host is tied into transmission from the pathogen to the host

A

The number of pathogens needed to cause an infection is variable between pathogens (i.e. it only takes 10 shigella bacteria, but need 1x10^6 salmonella to cause food poisioning)
The tissue of the host that the pathogen is infecting matters (i.e. you only need 10 neisseria gonorrhoeae to cause a urethral infection, but thousands are needed to cause an infection in the rectum)

81
Q

How do the host activities change the efficiency of transmission for a pathogen?

A

Sneezing and coughing benefit the pathogen

82
Q

How do pathogens increase the activities of a host to benifit them in their transmission?

A

Sneezing and coughing benefit the pathogen
Pathogen strains that increase fluid secretions or irritate epithelium induce more coughing and sneezing, so are transmitted more effectively
GI pathogens that increase GI secretions or diarrhea spread more effectively

83
Q

What is the primary factor that kills pathogens after they are shed from their host

A

Dehydration

84
Q

Pathogens that are dehydrated are (MORE OR LESS) resistant to thermal inactivation?

A

More resistant- less water to freeze inside of them

85
Q

Are pathogens infectious for a longer or shorter time if they are resistant to thermal inactivation

A

They are infectious for a longer period of time if they are resistant to thermal inactivation

86
Q

How is sexual transmission of pathogens controlled

A

Difficult to control- education and access to protection

87
Q

How are respiratory transmission routes controlled

A

difficult to control- education and masks

88
Q

How is fecal-oral transmission controlled in pathogens?

A

Hand washing and public health measures

89
Q

How are Arthropod-borne infections and zoonoses controlled for transmission?

A

can be controlled by controlling vectors and animal infection

90
Q

What are the characteristics of Dermatophytes

A

MOLDS
Dermatophytes infect skin, nails, and hair.

Live in moist, dark areas

Diagnosed with PE, KOH or UV for fluorescence

91
Q

What are some of the diseases caused by Dermatophytes

A

Cutaneous fungal infections of the skin are usually called tinea or mycoses
Tinea cruris- Jock itch
Tinea pedis- Athlete’s foot
Tinea Unguium- Nails

92
Q

What is the transmission of Dermatophytes caused by

A

Contact with the pathogen

93
Q

How are Dermatophytes’ infections treated

A

With Azoles

94
Q

Characteristics of E. Coli

A

Gram - bacteria (cause LPS release if not careful when dying)

95
Q

What are the diseases caused by E. Coli infection

A

UTIs, Diarrhoeal diseases, neonatal meningitis, Sepsis

96
Q

Are E. Coli usually found in humans? If so, Where?

A

Yes- normal part of the gut of humans

97
Q

What are 2 of the pathogeneses associated with E. Coli

A

Endotoxins and adhesions that are associated with UTIs

98
Q

Enterobacteriacae Characteristics (And common types)

A

Most numerous facultative anaerobes in the human gut-

E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, Citrobacter, etc.

99
Q

Characteristics of Clostridium difficil

A

Forms Spores
Can be part of normal microbiome
Often arises from long term antibiotic use that lets C diff overgrow

100
Q

Diseases associated with C. Diff

A

Colitis
Colon infection (Fever, dehydration, watery diarrhea)
Treatment: Stop taking antibiotics, start vancomycin

101
Q

Transmission of C. Diff

A

Normally found in gut flora, flourishes under antibiotic use
Can be transmitted via fecal-oral route

102
Q

Pathogenesis of C. Diff

A

Produces Enterotoxin and cytotoxin

103
Q

What are common diseases caused by Genus Clostridium

A

C. Difficile
Botulinum
Teatnus
Gas Gangrene

104
Q

How do Botulinum toxin and Teatnus toxin infect the host

A

C. Botulinum makes Botulinum toxin and C. Tetani makes tetanus toxin- both are intracellular targeting toxins

105
Q

What is the most common cause of death due to an infection in the world

A

TB

106
Q

signs and symptoms of a Mycobacterium TB infection

A

Signs and symptoms are a bloody cough, weight loss, fever, ches pain.

107
Q

Common Transmission for TB

A

Transmission from fine respiratory droplets
Coughing, Sneezing, Airborne transmission

108
Q

Pathology of TB

A

In Alveoli, TB engulfed by Macrophages. TB prevent fusion of phagosome and lysosome
TB grows in the alveoli, escapes in the lungs and forms granulomas (ruptured alveoli)
Escapes the lungs and is spread

109
Q

Genus mycobacterium characteristics

A

Widespread in the environment and in animals.

Tuberculosis and Leprosy are present in humans

More dangerous for people who are immunocompromised

110
Q

What is the transmission of Plasmodium

A

Vector transmission with Anopheles mosquitoes

111
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis Characteristics and Fun facts

A

Causes Trichomoniasis STD
Flagellate living normally in urinary system of females and males
Trophozoite form only- NO cyst
Sexually Transmitted
Treated with Metronidazole (Toxic DNA metabolites)

112
Q

Plasmodium characteristics

A

Protozoa
Live in Liver and RBCs

113
Q

Diseases caused by Plasmodium

A

Malaria
Caused by P falciparum (most common and most dangerous)

114
Q

Pathogenesis of Plasmodium

A

Liver and blood stages: sporozoites enter the liver and develop into merozoites, which then infect red blood cells (RBCs), causing cyclic fevers.
- MALERIA

115
Q

Ascarias Lumbricoides pathogenesis

A

Larvae cause pneumonitis, adults can obstruct digestion and absorption of food, can migrate to pancreatic or bile ducts. See other specifics about coughing/Swallowing

116
Q

Ascarias lumbricoides characteristics

A

Large Roundworms (Helminth)
Most common in tropical countries

117
Q

Infection caused by ascarias lumbricoidses

A

Ascariasis

118
Q

Transmission of Ascarias lumbricoides

A

Swallowing infective eggs in contaminated soil, food, or water

119
Q

What types of a pathogen are genus pseudomonas pathogens

A

Opportunistic pathogens

120
Q

Genus vibrio Characteristics

A

V. Cholerae is most important
Highly motile, capable of anaerobic respiration
Can cause Cholera
No animal Reservoire
Has Mucinase, adhesions, enterotoxins

121
Q

Characteristics of V. Cholerae

A

Highly motile, capable of anaerobic respiration
Has mucinase, adhesions, enterotoxins

122
Q

Diseases caused by V. Cholerae

A

Cholerae
Cause extreme amounts of fluid loss, very dangerous

123
Q

How is V. Cholerae acquired

A

Acquired via contaiminated water or food

124
Q

What is the pathogenesis of V. Cholerae

A

Produces mucinase, adhesions, enterotoxin.
Binds to intestinal epithelial cells, causes fluid loss and diarrhea

125
Q

Pseudomonas aerginuosa characteristics

A

Part of normal gut flora, Opportuniistic in hospitalized patients
Aerobic and gram negative
Has endotoxins, capsule

126
Q

Diseases caused by Pseudomonas aerginuosa

A

Cystic fibrosis
UTI
Endocarditis, septicemia
osteomyelitis

127
Q

Transmission of Pseudomonas Aerguinosa

A

Contact: direct or indirect

128
Q

Pathogenesis of Pseudomonas Aerguinosa

A

Opportunistic. Common in moist environments,

129
Q

Is E. Coli Aerobic or anaerobic

A

Anaerobe

130
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis transmission

A

Sexually transmitted- Venereal

131
Q

What does tricohomonas vaginalis cause in females

A

vaginitis with discharge

132
Q

What are the 3 main resistance mecahnisms of bacteria

A

A change in the target of the antimicrobial
A decrease in the uptake of the antimicrobial
Development of enzymes that inactivate the antimicrobial

133
Q

What is antibiotic resistance spread by most commonly

A

Horizontal gene transfer from plasmid transfer between bacteria

134
Q

Where does Mycobacterium TB live in the body (SPECIFICALLY) when infecting hosts?

A

In a macrophage

135
Q

What type of pathogen is pneumocystic jirovecii?

A

Fungi

136
Q

How is entamoeba histolytica, the cause of amoebic dysentery, transmitted from one person to the next?

A

Fecal-oral contaminated food and water

137
Q

Plasmodium falciparum is the most common cause of malaria in tropical and subtropical regions. What human cells does plasmodium target?

A

Hepatocytes and RBC

138
Q

What aquatic organism is an essential intermediate in the life cycle of schistosoma blood flukes?

A

Snails

139
Q

Taeniasis is a disease caused by ingestion of taenia solium cysts in what type of food

A

Undercooked pork

140
Q

Identify one common disease caused by one of the dermatophytes, Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton

A

Tinea pedia, tinea corporis, tinea capitis

141
Q

Which population is most susceptible to aspergillosis?

A

People who are immunocompromized

142
Q

Fungal cell walls are made of ___, which is one of many factors that make them difficult to phagocytose

A

Chitin

143
Q

Human cell membranes rely on cholesterol for stability. Fungal membranes have a similar molecule called ___, which is the target of many of our anti-fungal drugs

A

Ergosterol

144
Q

Which anatomical location is not generally a common target of protozoa?

A

Lungs

145
Q

Identify one common route of transmission for protozoal infections

A

Fecal-oral

146
Q

Which of the following is NOT a likely route of transmission of a helmnith?

A

Inhalation of aerolosized droplets containing eggs or larvae

147
Q

Briefly describe one contributing factor to the tropical distribution of helminths

A

Tropical distribution depends on: wet/humid/moist environments and potential interim hosts (eg. snails), typically in poorer countries with less hygiene

148
Q

How large can the roundword Ascaris lumbricoides grow in the human intestinal tract?

A

30 Cm

149
Q

What human cell do mycobacterium tuberculosis, an intracelluar pathogen, infect and survive in?

A

Macrophages

150
Q

How is mycobacterium usually transmitted?

A

Airborne droplets

151
Q

What disease does C. Botulinum cause and how

A

Flaccid or limp paralysis

152
Q

What disease does C. Tetani cause

A

Teatnus- Spastic, rigid paralysis

153
Q

What disease does C. Perfringens cause

A

Gas Gangrene

154
Q

What disease does C. Difficile cause

A

Diarrhea, often associated with long term antibiotic use

155
Q

Which characteristics are common to all members of the genis clostridium?

A

Anaerobic, Gram positive, Spore-forming, Bacillus

156
Q

Which of the following steps is not required for a successful infection?
Cause host damage
Attachment
Multiplication
Evade host defenses
Exit

A

Cause Host Damage

157
Q

What are some ways that pathogens gain entry into hosts?

A

Through breaks in the skin, damaged mucosal membranes, insect/animal bites

158
Q

True or false: The greater the virulence of a pathogen, the more likely it is to be successful

A

False

159
Q

Identify the host defense that HIV and Influenza have a counter defense against

A

Host defense: Mechanical barrier (cell membrane)
Microbe adaptation: Fusion proteins in viral envelope allow it to traverse the membrane

160
Q

True or false: For a given pathogen, the disease is the same for all people

A

False- The disease is NOT the same for all people
some have stronger or weaker responses

161
Q

Approxamately how many species of pathogenic microbes are there?

A

1500

162
Q

Which member of the vaginal microbiome ferments glycogen, produces lactic acid, lowers the pH of the vagina and protects the vagina from many pathogens?

A

Lactobacillus

163
Q

Which activity leads to the greatest shedding of respiratory droplets

A

Sneezing

164
Q

Why are UTIs more common in women than in men?

A

Women have a shorter urethra; the female urethra is close to the anus than that of the male

165
Q

What is the most common route of transmission of bloodborne pathogens

A

Biting Arthropods

166
Q

Does the length of time a pathogen has been in the first host impact the success of pathogen transmission?

A

No- The number of microbes shed by the first host, the stability of the pathogen in the environment, and the number of pathogens needed to infect the host are what matter

167
Q

Most pathogens that are shed from a human host into the environment die. What is the primary factor that causes death?

A

Dehydration

168
Q

Which antibiotic inserts and disrupts the cell membrane?

A

Lipopeptides and polymyxins

169
Q

What types of organisms does TMP SMX treat

A

Bacteria, fungi, protozoa. Inhibits folic acid synthesis needed to make DNA. Inhibits metabolic pathways

170
Q

Which antibiotic prevents topoisomerases and gyrases from seperating replication strands in DNA synthesis

A

Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)

171
Q

Which antibiotic treats clostridium and Trichamonoas vaginalis?

A

Nitroimidazole- metronidazole (treats protozoa and bacteria)

172
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits RNA synthesis, binding to RNA polymerase? What infection does this target?

A

Rifamycins- rifampicin
- TB treatment

173
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit the 30s subunit for protein synthesis?

A

Tetracyclines, aminoglycosides

174
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits DD bridge linking?

A

Beta- lactams–> Penicillins (amoxycycline) and cephlasporin, which inhibit cell wall synthesis

175
Q

Which antibiotics bind to terminal D alanine at end of the bridge so that no new bridges can form?

A

Glycopeptides– Vancomycin (Cell wall synthesis inhibition)

176
Q

Which antibiotic kills bacteria by creating toxic metabolites which causes DNA to be fragmented?

A

Nitroimadazoles (metronidazole)
- Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis or Damages DNA (this one damages DNA)

Microbiology (12 decks)

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