Final Exam Review Flashcards
1
Q
Which photoreceptors are responsible for color vision?
A
cones
2
Q
Put this in the correct sequence of events occurring in the rhodopsin cycle of the eye.
- Retinal within rhodopsin changes shape
- Retinal detaches from opsin
- Light activates rhodopsin
- Activated rhodopsin results in vision
A
3,1,4,2
3
Q
The intrinsic muscle of the ciliary body help to?
A
regulate the shape of the lens
4
Q
Which structure focuses light onto the fovea centralis?
A
lens
5
Q
The transparent part of the fibrous tunis is the?
A
cornea
6
Q
What is the function of the lacrimal glands?
A
to secrete tears
7
Q
Which inner ear structure detects rotational movement of the head?
A
semicircular canals
8
Q
Myopia is also known as?
A
nearsightedness
9
Q
The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of an infection are?
A
neutrophils
10
Q
Which ion is found in the center of the heme molecule of hemoglobin?
A
Fe2+ (iron)
11
Q
What is the stem cell producing all formed elements?
A
hemocytoblast
12
Q
In the hemolytic disease of the newborn, the problem usually arises when the mother is _______ and the fetus is _______.
A
Rh factor negative, Rh factor positive
13
Q
A drifting blood clot is called a/an?
A
embolus
14
Q
A persons blood type is determined by the?
A
presence or absence of surface antigens on the cell membrane of RBCs
15
Q
All of the following are plasma proteins EXCEPT?
a. fibrinogen
b. collagen
c. albumin
d. globulin
A
b. collagen
16
Q
A hemoglobin is composed of?
A
four protein chains and four heme groups
17
Q
True or False:
Plasma comprises 45% of whole blood.
A
false
18
Q
True or False:
A platelet plug is formed during the coagulation phase of hemostasis.
A
false
19
Q
True or False:
Erythrocytes can transport CO2.
A
True
20
Q
True or False:
The universal donor for a blood transfusion is type AB blood.
A
False
21
Q
The pacemaker of the heart is?
A
sinoatrial node
22
Q
Frank-Starling’s Law/Principle of cardiac function refers to?
A
- increased stretch of the ventricles produces a greater force of contraction
- more blood in generates more blood out
- perload
23
Q
The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called?
A
systole
24
Q
The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential result from?
A
opening of Ca2+ channels
25
The goal of the cardiovascular system is?
to maintain adequate blood flow to all tissues
26
End-systolic volume is?
amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes
27
All of the following describe cardiac muscle EXCEPT:
1. uninucleate
2. branch-shaped
3. intercalated disk
4. involuntary control
5. nonstriated
5. nonstriated
28
On the EKG, the QRS complex represents?
ventricular depolarization
29
Which sequence represents an action potential moving through the intrinsic conduction system?
sinoatrial node > atrioventricular node > bundle of his > bundle branches > purkinje fiber
30
When the heart rate is greater than 100 bpm, this is known as
tachycardia
31
Which structure supply blood to the heart?
coronary arteries
32
Which specific valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
bicuspid valve or mitral valve
33
Arteriosclerosis is an age-related change resulting from?
loss of elasticity in the arterial wall
34
Because blood pressure is greater, ______ will occur at the arterial side of the capillaries?
filtration
35
BP=100/80
| MAP=
90
36
Which of the following is NOT an action of angiotensin II to increase the blood pressure?
1. stimulating vasoconstriction
2. stimulating release of aldosterone
3. stimulating release of antidiuretic hormone
4. stimulating thirst
5. stimulating release of atrial natriuretic peptide
5. stimulating release of atrial natriuretic peptide
37
Angiotensinogen __________> angiotensin I
renin
38
Angiotensin I ____________> Angiotensin II
ACE
39
Which factor will cause an increase in blood pressure?
1. an increase in blood viscosity
2. an increase in peripheral resistance
3. an increase in blood volume
4. all of the above
5. a and c only
4. all of the above
40
Antidiuretic hormone is released from the _______ in response to a decrease in blood pressure.
posterior pituitary gland
41
Changes in blood pressure are monitored by?
baroreceptors
42
___________ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
Pulse pressure
43
Which layer of a blood vessel wall contains smooth muscle to regulate the diameter of the lumen?
tunica media
44
Muscular arteries, which are medium sized arteries that regulate blood flow to the organs are also called?
distributing arteries
45
True or False:
| Blood flows from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.
True
46
True or False:
| Arterioles are the actual sites of exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and tissues/
False
47
True or False:
| Because the left ventricle is larger, it ejects more blood during each heart beat.
False
48
True or False:
| The intrinsic conduction system of the heart is composed of specialized nervous tissue.
False
49
True or False:
| Resistance is the measure of the force that the blood exerts against the wall of a blood vessel.
False
50
True or False:
| The malleus is the auditory ossicle that is attached to the tympanic membrane.
True
51
True or False:
| The organ of Corti is the receptor site in the inner ear for linear acceleration.
False
52
Names the colors photoreceptors can be.
Green cone, red cone, blue cone
53
Which structure equalizes pressure in the middle ear cavity to the external air pressure?
Eustachian tube
54
```
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
defense
blood reservoir
site of t cell maturation
destruction of abnormal red blood cells
```
site of t cell maturation
55
What is lymph?
fluid collected from tissues
56
```
Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
swelling
redness
numbness
heat
pain
```
numbness
57
Plasma cells secrete?
antibodies & immunoglobulins
58
The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from?
right upper limb
right thorax
right head
right neck
59
Which is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
absorbs fats from the small intestine
maintains pH balance
defends against pathogens and foreign substance
maintains fluid balance in tissues
all of the above are functions of the lymphatic system.
maintains pH balance
60
The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the?
B cells
61
True or False:
| A clone is a group of identical lymphocytes that form due to repeated division and respond to a specific antigen.
True
62
True or False:
Leukocytes are attracted to specific chemical stimuli that guide them to the site of invading pathogens and damaged tissue. This characteristic is called chemotaxis.
True
63
Name this immunity: Antibodies from the mother are transferred to her child across the placenta or in breast milk.
Natural acquired passive immunity
64
Name this immunity: Antigens are introduced through natural exposer.
Natural acquired active immunity
65
Name this immunity: The body is deliberately exposed to an antigen in a vaccine.
Artificial acquired active immunity
66
Cytotoxic T cells destroy abnormal or infected cells by?
- secreting poisonous lymphotoxin killing target cells
- releasing perforins to rupture the target cells membrane
- activating genes in target cells nucleus for cell death (apotheosis)
- none of the above
- all of the above
all of the above
67
Which immunoglobulins bind mast cells and basophils triggering the release of histamine?
IgE
68
Which immunoglobulins cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus?
IgG
69
Which immunoglobulins are found in glandular secretions?
IgA
70
Which immunoglobulins are the most abundant?
IgG
71
The secondary response is faster against a pathogen because?
higher antibody production
| differentiation of memory cells
72
_________ describes how hemoglobin molecules release more O2 at a lower pH.
Bohr effect
73
Internal respiration is?
gas exchange between the interstitial fluid and the cells
74
Residual volume is?
last remaining air keeping the lungs partially inflated
75
Air moves into the lungs because?
gas pressure in the lungs is less than the outside pressure.
76
The anatomical dead space includes?
structures of the conducting zones, where no gas exchange occurs.
77
Which specific structure supplies air to the lobes of the lungs?
secondary bronchi
78
The "C" shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because?
large volumes of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing
79
The trachea is ______ to the esophagus.
anterior
80
Which tissue lines the alveoli?
simple squamous epithelium
81
Which tissue lines the trachea?
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue
82
True or False:
| Air is normally found between the visceral and parietal pleura.
False
83
Peristalsis is?
the muscular contractions pushing food forward along the entire digestive tract
84
Water absorption is the primary function of the?
Large intestine
85
Which organ produces bile?
liver
86
Parietal cells secrete what?
hydrochloric acid
87
Chief cells secrete what?
pepsinogen
88
Decreased digestive activity will occur with the activation of the?
sympathetic nervous system
89
Name all the fat soluble vitamins.
KADE
90
Which lipoprotein transports excess cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the live for elimination from the body?
HDL
91
Foodstuff mixed with saliva forms?
bolus
92
Which accessory digestive organ produces protein-digesting enzymes in the form of proenzymes?
pancreas
93
Carbohydrates are initially digested in the oral cavity by?
salivary amylase
94
In the liver branches of the hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct form the?
Hepatic portal triad
95
What converts pepsinogen to pepsin?
hydrochloric acid
96
The enzyme pepsin digests?
proteins
97
The function of bile is?
to emulsify lipids
98
True or False:
| One of the functions of (CCK) is relaxation of the external anal sphincter.
False
99
True or False:
| During the cephalic phase of gastric digestion, stretch receptors detect distention of the stomach.
False
100
Name the phases of swallowing.
Pharyngeal phase
voluntary phase
esophageal phase
101
Differentiated B cells are called?
plasma cells
102
Distention of the stomach and duodenum is the stimulus for powerful muscular contractions, which move material from the transverse colon through the remaining large intestine and occurs 3 or 4 times a day. This is known as?
mass movement
103
Metabolism refers to?
all chemical reactions occurring in an organism.
104
Which specific pathway generates CO2?
Kerbs cycle
105
How many ATP molecules will NADH produce in the electron transport system?
3
106
Which molecule enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl CoA to enter the TCA cycle?
pyruvic acid
107
B oxidation is the catabolism of?
fatty acids
108
Formation of glucose from the noncarbohydrate sources (such as amino acids and glycerol) is called?
gluconeogenesis
109
Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb water?
ADH
110
Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb Ca2?
parathyroid hormone
111
Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb Na+?
aldosterone
112
The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is the?
glomerular filtration rate
113
The process of filtration occurs at?
glomerulus
bowmans capsule
renal corpuscle
114
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is an endocrine structure that secretes?
erythropoietin and renin
115
Which structure secretes ADH?
posterior pituitary gland
116
True or False:
| No ATP is generated during glycolysis.
False
117
True or False:
| The kerbs cycle occurs in the cytoplasm.
False
118
If the extracellular fluid is hypertonic with respect to the intercellular fluid water will move from where to where?
cells into the ECF
119
_____ are substances that release H+ into solutions.
Acids
120
Which ion is most abundant in the extracellular fluid?
sodium
121
A buffer?
prevents marked changed in the pH of a solution
122
What is the effect on the respiratory rate if the blood pH increases?
decreased respiratory rate
123
The male gonad is the?
testis
124
The female gonad is the?
ovary
125
Which part of the sperm cell contains hyaluronidase for egg penetration?
acrosome
126
Which hormone is produced by the interstitial cells in the testis?
testosterone
127
Which processes occurs during meiosis I?
crossing over
128
The specific site for spermatocyte formation is?
seminiferous tubules
129
What secretes 30% seminal fluid, which activates sperm?
prostate gland
130
What secretes 60% seminal fluid, which contains fructose to nourish sperm.
seminal vesicles
131
Which erectile tissue forms the glans penis and surrounds the penile urethra?
corpus spongiosum
132
How many chromosomes do gametes have?
23
133
Which hormone stimulates ovulation?
LH surge
134
Name the primary germ layers
endoderm
ectoderm
mesoderm
135
The conceptus is called a fetus during which period?
ninth week till birth.
136
What is the primary function of the placenta?
site of exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and baby.
137
Fertilization normally occurs in the?
fallopian tubes
138
The fusion or union of a spermatozoon and an oocyte produces a?
zygote
139
The solid ball of cells forming between the 16 to 32 cells stage fertilization is called?
morula
140
Which process will produce 4 gametes?
spermatogenesis
141
The secondary oocyte is ovulated in?
metaphase of meiosis II
142
Which structure ovulates the secondary oocyte?
Graafian follicle
143
What stimulates milk let down, and uterine contractions?
oxytocin
144
Which structure secretes progesterone to maintain the endometrial lining of the uterus?
corpus luteum
145
Menstruation begins because of a decrease in _________ ;eve;s from the previous cycle.
progesterone
