Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

A & P II > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which photoreceptors are responsible for color vision?

A

cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Put this in the correct sequence of events occurring in the rhodopsin cycle of the eye.

  1. Retinal within rhodopsin changes shape
  2. Retinal detaches from opsin
  3. Light activates rhodopsin
  4. Activated rhodopsin results in vision
A

3,1,4,2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The intrinsic muscle of the ciliary body help to?

A

regulate the shape of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which structure focuses light onto the fovea centralis?

A

lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The transparent part of the fibrous tunis is the?

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal glands?

A

to secrete tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which inner ear structure detects rotational movement of the head?

A

semicircular canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Myopia is also known as?

A

nearsightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of an infection are?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which ion is found in the center of the heme molecule of hemoglobin?

A

Fe2+ (iron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the stem cell producing all formed elements?

A

hemocytoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the hemolytic disease of the newborn, the problem usually arises when the mother is _______ and the fetus is _______.

A

Rh factor negative, Rh factor positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A drifting blood clot is called a/an?

A

embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A persons blood type is determined by the?

A

presence or absence of surface antigens on the cell membrane of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are plasma proteins EXCEPT?

a. fibrinogen
b. collagen
c. albumin
d. globulin

A

b. collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A hemoglobin is composed of?

A

four protein chains and four heme groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False:

Plasma comprises 45% of whole blood.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False:

A platelet plug is formed during the coagulation phase of hemostasis.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False:

Erythrocytes can transport CO2.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False:

The universal donor for a blood transfusion is type AB blood.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The pacemaker of the heart is?

A

sinoatrial node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Frank-Starling’s Law/Principle of cardiac function refers to?

A
  1. increased stretch of the ventricles produces a greater force of contraction
  2. more blood in generates more blood out
  3. perload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called?

A

systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential result from?

A

opening of Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The goal of the cardiovascular system is?

A

to maintain adequate blood flow to all tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

End-systolic volume is?

A

amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

All of the following describe cardiac muscle EXCEPT:

  1. uninucleate
  2. branch-shaped
  3. intercalated disk
  4. involuntary control
  5. nonstriated
A
  1. nonstriated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

On the EKG, the QRS complex represents?

A

ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which sequence represents an action potential moving through the intrinsic conduction system?

A

sinoatrial node > atrioventricular node > bundle of his > bundle branches > purkinje fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When the heart rate is greater than 100 bpm, this is known as

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which structure supply blood to the heart?

A

coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which specific valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

A

bicuspid valve or mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Arteriosclerosis is an age-related change resulting from?

A

loss of elasticity in the arterial wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Because blood pressure is greater, ______ will occur at the arterial side of the capillaries?

A

filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

BP=100/80

MAP=

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of angiotensin II to increase the blood pressure?

  1. stimulating vasoconstriction
  2. stimulating release of aldosterone
  3. stimulating release of antidiuretic hormone
  4. stimulating thirst
  5. stimulating release of atrial natriuretic peptide
A
  1. stimulating release of atrial natriuretic peptide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Angiotensinogen __________> angiotensin I

A

renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Angiotensin I ____________> Angiotensin II

A

ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which factor will cause an increase in blood pressure?

  1. an increase in blood viscosity
  2. an increase in peripheral resistance
  3. an increase in blood volume
  4. all of the above
  5. a and c only
A
  1. all of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is released from the _______ in response to a decrease in blood pressure.

A

posterior pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Changes in blood pressure are monitored by?

A

baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___________ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.

A

Pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which layer of a blood vessel wall contains smooth muscle to regulate the diameter of the lumen?

A

tunica media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Muscular arteries, which are medium sized arteries that regulate blood flow to the organs are also called?

A

distributing arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or False:

Blood flows from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False:

Arterioles are the actual sites of exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and tissues/

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False:

Because the left ventricle is larger, it ejects more blood during each heart beat.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False:

The intrinsic conduction system of the heart is composed of specialized nervous tissue.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or False:

Resistance is the measure of the force that the blood exerts against the wall of a blood vessel.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False:

The malleus is the auditory ossicle that is attached to the tympanic membrane.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True or False:

The organ of Corti is the receptor site in the inner ear for linear acceleration.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Names the colors photoreceptors can be.

A

Green cone, red cone, blue cone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which structure equalizes pressure in the middle ear cavity to the external air pressure?

A

Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
defense
blood reservoir 
site of t cell maturation
destruction of abnormal red blood cells
A

site of t cell maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is lymph?

A

fluid collected from tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
swelling
redness
numbness
heat
pain
A

numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Plasma cells secrete?

A

antibodies & immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from?

A

right upper limb
right thorax
right head
right neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
absorbs fats from the small intestine
maintains pH balance
defends against pathogens and foreign substance
maintains fluid balance in tissues
all of the above are functions of the lymphatic system.

A

maintains pH balance

60
Q

The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the?

61
Q

True or False:

A clone is a group of identical lymphocytes that form due to repeated division and respond to a specific antigen.

62
Q

True or False:
Leukocytes are attracted to specific chemical stimuli that guide them to the site of invading pathogens and damaged tissue. This characteristic is called chemotaxis.

63
Q

Name this immunity: Antibodies from the mother are transferred to her child across the placenta or in breast milk.

A

Natural acquired passive immunity

64
Q

Name this immunity: Antigens are introduced through natural exposer.

A

Natural acquired active immunity

65
Q

Name this immunity: The body is deliberately exposed to an antigen in a vaccine.

A

Artificial acquired active immunity

66
Q

Cytotoxic T cells destroy abnormal or infected cells by?

  • secreting poisonous lymphotoxin killing target cells
  • releasing perforins to rupture the target cells membrane
  • activating genes in target cells nucleus for cell death (apotheosis)
  • none of the above
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

67
Q

Which immunoglobulins bind mast cells and basophils triggering the release of histamine?

68
Q

Which immunoglobulins cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus?

69
Q

Which immunoglobulins are found in glandular secretions?

70
Q

Which immunoglobulins are the most abundant?

71
Q

The secondary response is faster against a pathogen because?

A

higher antibody production

differentiation of memory cells

72
Q

_________ describes how hemoglobin molecules release more O2 at a lower pH.

A

Bohr effect

73
Q

Internal respiration is?

A

gas exchange between the interstitial fluid and the cells

74
Q

Residual volume is?

A

last remaining air keeping the lungs partially inflated

75
Q

Air moves into the lungs because?

A

gas pressure in the lungs is less than the outside pressure.

76
Q

The anatomical dead space includes?

A

structures of the conducting zones, where no gas exchange occurs.

77
Q

Which specific structure supplies air to the lobes of the lungs?

A

secondary bronchi

78
Q

The “C” shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because?

A

large volumes of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing

79
Q

The trachea is ______ to the esophagus.

80
Q

Which tissue lines the alveoli?

A

simple squamous epithelium

81
Q

Which tissue lines the trachea?

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue

82
Q

True or False:

Air is normally found between the visceral and parietal pleura.

83
Q

Peristalsis is?

A

the muscular contractions pushing food forward along the entire digestive tract

84
Q

Water absorption is the primary function of the?

A

Large intestine

85
Q

Which organ produces bile?

86
Q

Parietal cells secrete what?

A

hydrochloric acid

87
Q

Chief cells secrete what?

A

pepsinogen

88
Q

Decreased digestive activity will occur with the activation of the?

A

sympathetic nervous system

89
Q

Name all the fat soluble vitamins.

90
Q

Which lipoprotein transports excess cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the live for elimination from the body?

91
Q

Foodstuff mixed with saliva forms?

92
Q

Which accessory digestive organ produces protein-digesting enzymes in the form of proenzymes?

93
Q

Carbohydrates are initially digested in the oral cavity by?

A

salivary amylase

94
Q

In the liver branches of the hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct form the?

A

Hepatic portal triad

95
Q

What converts pepsinogen to pepsin?

A

hydrochloric acid

96
Q

The enzyme pepsin digests?

97
Q

The function of bile is?

A

to emulsify lipids

98
Q

True or False:

One of the functions of (CCK) is relaxation of the external anal sphincter.

99
Q

True or False:

During the cephalic phase of gastric digestion, stretch receptors detect distention of the stomach.

100
Q

Name the phases of swallowing.

A

Pharyngeal phase
voluntary phase
esophageal phase

101
Q

Differentiated B cells are called?

A

plasma cells

102
Q

Distention of the stomach and duodenum is the stimulus for powerful muscular contractions, which move material from the transverse colon through the remaining large intestine and occurs 3 or 4 times a day. This is known as?

A

mass movement

103
Q

Metabolism refers to?

A

all chemical reactions occurring in an organism.

104
Q

Which specific pathway generates CO2?

A

Kerbs cycle

105
Q

How many ATP molecules will NADH produce in the electron transport system?

106
Q

Which molecule enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl CoA to enter the TCA cycle?

A

pyruvic acid

107
Q

B oxidation is the catabolism of?

A

fatty acids

108
Q

Formation of glucose from the noncarbohydrate sources (such as amino acids and glycerol) is called?

A

gluconeogenesis

109
Q

Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb water?

110
Q

Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb Ca2?

A

parathyroid hormone

111
Q

Which hormone acts at the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb Na+?

A

aldosterone

112
Q

The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is the?

A

glomerular filtration rate

113
Q

The process of filtration occurs at?

A

glomerulus
bowmans capsule
renal corpuscle

114
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is an endocrine structure that secretes?

A

erythropoietin and renin

115
Q

Which structure secretes ADH?

A

posterior pituitary gland

116
Q

True or False:

No ATP is generated during glycolysis.

117
Q

True or False:

The kerbs cycle occurs in the cytoplasm.

118
Q

If the extracellular fluid is hypertonic with respect to the intercellular fluid water will move from where to where?

A

cells into the ECF

119
Q

_____ are substances that release H+ into solutions.

120
Q

Which ion is most abundant in the extracellular fluid?

121
Q

A buffer?

A

prevents marked changed in the pH of a solution

122
Q

What is the effect on the respiratory rate if the blood pH increases?

A

decreased respiratory rate

123
Q

The male gonad is the?

124
Q

The female gonad is the?

125
Q

Which part of the sperm cell contains hyaluronidase for egg penetration?

126
Q

Which hormone is produced by the interstitial cells in the testis?

A

testosterone

127
Q

Which processes occurs during meiosis I?

A

crossing over

128
Q

The specific site for spermatocyte formation is?

A

seminiferous tubules

129
Q

What secretes 30% seminal fluid, which activates sperm?

A

prostate gland

130
Q

What secretes 60% seminal fluid, which contains fructose to nourish sperm.

A

seminal vesicles

131
Q

Which erectile tissue forms the glans penis and surrounds the penile urethra?

A

corpus spongiosum

132
Q

How many chromosomes do gametes have?

133
Q

Which hormone stimulates ovulation?

134
Q

Name the primary germ layers

A

endoderm
ectoderm
mesoderm

135
Q

The conceptus is called a fetus during which period?

A

ninth week till birth.

136
Q

What is the primary function of the placenta?

A

site of exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and baby.

137
Q

Fertilization normally occurs in the?

A

fallopian tubes

138
Q

The fusion or union of a spermatozoon and an oocyte produces a?

139
Q

The solid ball of cells forming between the 16 to 32 cells stage fertilization is called?

140
Q

Which process will produce 4 gametes?

A

spermatogenesis

141
Q

The secondary oocyte is ovulated in?

A

metaphase of meiosis II

142
Q

Which structure ovulates the secondary oocyte?

A

Graafian follicle

143
Q

What stimulates milk let down, and uterine contractions?

144
Q

Which structure secretes progesterone to maintain the endometrial lining of the uterus?

A

corpus luteum

145
Q

Menstruation begins because of a decrease in _________ ;eve;s from the previous cycle.

A

progesterone

A & P II (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions