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A & P II > Exam 3 Review > Flashcards

Exam 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Who is Alexander Fleming and what is his contribution to antibiotics

A

He discovered penicillin

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2
Q

What is the genus names of the bacteria that are the most common sources of antibiotics?

A

Streptomyces and Bacillus

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3
Q

What is the genus names of the fungi that are the most common sources of antibiotics?

A

Penicillium and Cephalosporium

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4
Q

Penicillin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- Resistant microbes produce beta lactase that break the central ring of the penicillin molecule.

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5
Q

Clavulanic Acid:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- Inhibits beta lactase enzymes

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6
Q

Cephalosporins:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A

-Targets the cell wall
-Can be affected by beta lactase producing microbes.
(good for people allergic to penicillin)

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7
Q

Carbepenems:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A

-Targets the cell wall.
-Resistant to beta lactamase enzymes.
(good for people allergic to penicillin)

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8
Q

Bacitracin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- used topically against staph and step.

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9
Q

Vancomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- used for multidrug resistant staph or strep infections.

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10
Q

Isoniazid:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid. used in combination therapy to treat tuberculosis and leprosy.

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11
Q

Ethambutol:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets the cell wall.

- prevents the incorporation of mycolic acid in the cell wall. used in combination with isoniazid.

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12
Q

Streptomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
  • first drug to treat gram-negative infection.
  • can cause nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity
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13
Q

Neomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
  • treats gram negative infection
  • is nephrotoxic so is usually used topically.
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14
Q

Tetracycline:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
  • can cause stains on teeth
  • causes super infections.
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15
Q

Erythromycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
  • used for respiratory, ear and skin infections.

(z pack, and good for people allergic to penicillin)

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16
Q

Clindamycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
  • good for anaerobic infections.
  • used to treat drug resistant staph and stomach and intestinal infections that do not respond to other medications.
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17
Q

Sulfonamides:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A

-Targets microbial metabolism
-Inhibits the synthesis of folic acid
(we don’t make our own folic acid, we get it from food)
(used to treat UTI’s)

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18
Q

Fluoroquinolones:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets DNA or RNA
  • Inhibits bacterial topoisomerase or helicases (inhibits DNA synthesis)

(used for:anthrax,kidney infections,pnemonia)

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19
Q

Rifamycin:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A
  • Targets DNA or RNA
  • Inhibits RNA synthesis

(used for: tuberculosis, meningitis)

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20
Q

Polymyxin B:
What is it’s mode of action?

How does it work?

A

-Targets the Plasma Membrane
-Interacts with phospholipids and distorts the plasma membrane, making it leaky.
(normally used topically, and can be used for pseudomonas)

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21
Q

Problem with treating fungal infections is that they are?

A

eukaryotic cells.

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22
Q
  • injectable drug

- used for fungal infections

A

Amphotericin B

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23
Q

Name the drug:

used for systemic fungal infection

A

Ketoconazole

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24
Q

Name the drug:

used for AIDS related mycoses (fungal)

A

Fluconazole

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25
Q

Name the drugs:

used to treat infections in the skin, mouth and vagina. (fungal)

A

Clotrimazole and miconazole

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26
Q

Name the drugs:
dissolves in the blood and CSF.

used to treat cutaneous mycoses (fungal)

usually combined with amphotericin B

A

Flucytosine

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27
Q

Agents to treat protozoal infections are?

A

Quinine

Matronidazole

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28
Q

Drug for:

original drug for treating malaria?

A

Quinine

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29
Q

What do these drugs replace: quinolones, chloroquine and primaquine

A

Quinine

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30
Q

What is widely used amoebicide and general purpose antiprotozoal

A

Metronidazole

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31
Q

Which drug:
-Treats intestinal infections and hepatic disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica

-Also treats Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

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32
Q

Mebendazole and albendazole kills?

A

round worms

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33
Q

Pyrantel _________ the muscles of intestinal __________.

A

paralyzes, roundworms

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34
Q

What is a veterinary drug that is used for river blindness and lymphatic filariasis in humans.

It is usually used to prevent heart worms in dogs.

A

Ivermectin

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35
Q

The best thing to use for viruses is?

A

vaccines

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36
Q

What blocks HIV binding?

A

Enfuvirtide

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37
Q

What drugs block the flu from binding?

A

Amantadine + zanamivir + oseltamivir

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38
Q

What drug makes herpes viruses repress?

A

Acyclovir

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39
Q

What drug helps RSV lassa fever

A

Ribavirin

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40
Q

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

A

AZT

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41
Q

protease inhibitor

A

saquinavir

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42
Q

What targets peptidoglycan

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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43
Q

What targets the prokaryotic ribosome

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis

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44
Q

What targets the plasma membrane

A

Interference with cell membrane structure and function

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45
Q

What targets a metabolic process in the microbe that is different?

A

Inhibition of a metabolic process

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46
Q

What is effective against more than one group of bacteria

  • Advantage is that you don’t have to know the cause of the infection first
  • Disadvantage is that you will kill normal flora and cause a superinfection
A

Broad-spectrum drugs

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47
Q

What targets a specific group?

  • Advantage is that you will not kill normal flora (at least not as much)
  • Disadvantage is that you must be reasonably sure of the cause of the infection
A

Narrow-Spectrum Drugs

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48
Q

Which are the microbes that were once small in number overgrow when normal resident biota are destroyed by broad-spectrum antimicrobials

A

Super Infection

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49
Q

absolutely toxic to the infectious agent and nontoxic to the host this is?

A

selectively toxic

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50
Q

What are semisynthetic antibiotics?

A

They are biochemically altered drugs in a lab to give it better qualities.

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51
Q

What are natural antibiotics?

A

They are unaltered molecules.

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52
Q

What test for drug susceptibility measures the zone of inhibition surrounding the discs is measured and compared with a standard for each drug?

A

Kirby-Bauer technique

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53
Q

What test for drug susceptibility is this?
-Antimicrobial is diluted
-Each tube is inoculated with a small uniform sample of pure culture
-Minimum inhibitory concentration
The test can be expanded to determine a MBC (Minimum bactericidal concentration

A

Tube dilution tests

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54
Q

What are the two tests that test drug susceptibility?

A
  • Kirby-Bauer technique

- Tube dilution tests

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55
Q

What is the ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans as compared to its minimum effective (therapeutic) dose

A

Therapeutic index

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56
Q

Which phase is done in healthy young people (usually males) to test for toxicity

A

Phase I Clinical trial of Human Clinical Trials

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57
Q

Which phase is done in persons with the infection or disorder to see if the drug is effective

A

Phase II clinical trials of Human Clinical Trials

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58
Q

Which phase continues after phase II but compares the drug to any current treatments on the market

A

Phase III clinical trials of Human Clinical Trials

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59
Q

Which phase occurs after market studies

A

Phase IV of Human Clinical Trials

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60
Q

An adaptive response in which microorganisms begin to tolerate an amount of drug that would normally be inhibitory is?

A

drug resistance

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61
Q

Drug resistance for antimicrobials is in the?

A

microbe not the host.

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62
Q

Microbes can become resistant to a drug after?

A
  • spontaneous mutation

- acquisition of entire new genes or sets of gene via horizontal transfer from another species.

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63
Q

What breaks the central ring of the penicillin molecule?

A

beta lactamase

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64
Q

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes are?

A

pre-biotics

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65
Q

Preparations of live microorganisms fed to animals and humans to improve intestinal biota are?

A

probiotics

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66
Q

What are the first line of barrier defenses?

A

any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry.

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67
Q

Barrier defenses:

skin

A

shedding and sweating

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68
Q

Barrier defenses:

mucous

A

coat impend entry and attachment

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69
Q

Barrier defenses:

lacrimal apparatus:

A

blinking, and tear production across the eye.

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70
Q

Barrier defenses:

constant flow of saliva cleanses….

A

the oral cavity and carries microbes to the stomach.

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71
Q

Barrier defenses:

Respiratory tract:

A
  • nasal hairs trap larger particles
  • copious flow of mucus and fluids provides flushing action
  • ciliated epithelium convey particles trapped in mucus toward the pharynx
  • sneeze relex expels a large amount of air at high velocity
  • foreign matter in the bronchi, trachea, and larynx triggers coughing to eject irritants
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72
Q

Barrier defenses:

Gastrointestinal tract:

A

-Stomach acids, and digestive enzymes in the stomach and small intestine kill most microbes.

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73
Q

Barrier defenses:

Genitourinary tract:

A
  • Protection through the continuous trickle of urine through ureters
  • Periodic bladder emptying flushes urethra.
  • Vaginal secretions provide cleansing of the lower reproductive tract in females.
74
Q

All these are?

  • Sebaceous secretions exert an antimicrobial effect.
  • Specialized glands of the eyelids lubricate the conjunctiva with an antimicrobial secretion.
  • Lysozyme
  • High lactic acid and electrolyte content of sweat create a salty and acidic environment
  • Acidic pH and fatty acid content of the skin
  • Hydrochloric acid in the stomach gives protection against microbes that are swallowed.
  • Digestive juices and bile in the intestine are destructive to microbes.
  • Semen contains an antimicrobial chemical.
  • Vagina has a protective acidic pH maintained by normal flora (Lactobacilli).
  • Transferrins in the blood bind iron and keep microbes from accessing it.
A

Barrier defenses:

chemical

75
Q

an enzyme found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in the cell wall of bacteria

A

lysozyme

76
Q

What is in the blood and binds iron and keeps microbes from accessing it.

A

Transferrins

77
Q

Recognize body cells

A

self antigen

78
Q

Differentiate them from any foreign material in the body

A

non self antigen

79
Q

What are markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common?

A

PAMPS

80
Q

What are signal molecules that are found on microbial surfaces recognized by phagocytes and other defensive cells?

A

PAMPS

81
Q

What am i?

  • General purpose phagocytes
  • Found in the blood an migrate out of the blood and into the tissues when stimulated
  • React early in the inflammatory response to bacteria and other foreign materials and to damaged tissue
  • High ________ count in the blood is a common sign of bacterial infection
  • Primary component of pus
A

Neutrophiles

82
Q

What are transformed into macrophages after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into the tissues?

A

Monocytes

83
Q

What are the cells in the skin?

A

Dendritic cells

84
Q

Lung cells?

A

Alveolar macrophages

85
Q

Cells in the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, kidney, bone, and brain are?

A

Macrophages

86
Q

microglial cells are

A

in the CNS

87
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A 
chemotaxis
attachment
ingestion
phagolysosome formation
digestion
excretion
88
Q

what is the chemical trail called that leads to the injury?

A

chemotaxis

89
Q

What is the process of inflammation?

A
  • initial injury
  • chain reaction take place
  • vasodilation
  • summoning beneficial cells and fluids to injured area
90
Q

What is a fever?

A

abnormally elevated body temperature

91
Q

What are substances that reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting?

A

pyrogens

92
Q

What are products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoans, fungi, endotoxin, blood, blood products, vaccines, or injectable solutions that cause fever?

A

Exogenous pyrogens

93
Q

What are liberated by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during phagocytosis such as interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor that cause fever?

A

Endogenous pyrogens

94
Q

What help mediate nonspecific immune reactions such as inflammation and phagocytosis?

A

Cytokines

95
Q

What activates immune reactions during inflammation such as vasoactive mediators?

A

cytokines

96
Q

What helps regulate the growth and activation of lymphocytes?

A

cytokines

97
Q

What helps with hematopoiesis factors for white blood cells

miscellaneous inflammatory mediators

A

cytokines

98
Q

A small protein produced naturally by certain white blood and tissue cells is a?

A

Interferon

99
Q

_________ molecules are rapidly secreted into the extracellular space, binding to other host cells.

A

Interferon

100
Q

Binding of ________ induces the production of proteins in the cell that inhibit viral multiplication.

A

Interferon

101
Q

Interferons can degrade and prevent what?

A

degrade viral RNA

translation of vital proteins.

102
Q

What do cytokines do?

A

communicate with each other.

103
Q

Body temperature is maintained by the?

A

hypothalamus

104
Q
  • Impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
  • Increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions
A

fever

105
Q

Complement 3 pathways:

Which pathway is initiated either by the foreign cell membrane of a parasite or a surface antibody?

A

Classical pathway

106
Q

Complement 3 pathways:

Which binds to pathogen membranes

A

alternative pathway

107
Q

Complement 3 pathways:

Which binds to mannose?

A

ectin pathway

108
Q

Common effects of all complement pathways:

Which one is caused by the membrane attack complex?
kills the cell

A

cytolysis.

109
Q

Common effects of all complement pathways:

Which one has certain complement proteins bind to microbes and enhance the ability of phagocytic cells to ingest them?

A

opsonization

110
Q

Common effects of all complement pathways:

Which one has certain complement proteins bind to mast cells and make them release histamine?

A

Inflammation

111
Q

What is the ability of the body to react with countless foreign substances?

A

immunocompetence

112
Q

mature in specialized bone marrow sites.

A

b-cells

113
Q

mature in the thymus.

A

t-cells

114
Q

What is MHC?

A

Major Histocompatibility compleX

115
Q

What codes for markers that appear on all nucleated cells, display unique characteristics of self?

A

MHC: Class I genes

116
Q

What markers found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells, and are involved in presentation of antigens to T cells?

A

MHC: Class II genes

117
Q

Foreign molecules that stimulate an immune response is?

A

Antigen

118
Q

the portion of an antigenic molecule to which a lymphocyte responds to is?

A

epitope

119
Q

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are?

A

Haptens

120
Q

Bacterial toxins that are potent stimuli for T cells are?

A

superantigens

121
Q

What creates a overwhelming release of cytokines and cell death?

A

superantigens

122
Q

What are antigens that evoke allergic reactions?

A

allergens

123
Q

After processing is complete, the antigen will be bound to the MHC receptor and moved to the surface of the APC so it will be readily accessible to T lymphocytes.

A

APC’s process

124
Q

The cells are?
Macrophages
B cells
Dendritic cells

A

APC’s

125
Q

All t-cells produce?

A

cytokines

126
Q

How many types of t-cells are there?

A

three

127
Q

All helper t cells bear the?

A

CD4

128
Q

The main function of helper t -cells is?

A

to active b cells, macrophages and neutrophils and to promote inflammation in anti parasitic and allergic reactions.

129
Q

cytotoxic t-cells are?

A

cells that kill other cells

130
Q

Which cell lacks specificity for antigens?

A

natural killer cells.

131
Q

What kind of cells do natural killer cells kill?

A

cancer cells and virus infected cells

132
Q

What cells can cytotoxic t-cells kill?

A
  • virally infected cells
  • cancer cells
  • cells from other animals and humans.
133
Q

levels of antibodies in the serum over time is?

A

titer

134
Q

Humoral immunity is produced by?

A

b cells

135
Q

Which response am i?

  • The first time the antigen is encountered
  • B and T cells begin clonal selection and expansion
  • B cells responding to the antigen alone produce primarily IgM.
  • patient usually gets sick
  • helper t cells are produced; they stimulate B cells to produce IgG
  • patient recovers
A

primary response

136
Q

Which response am i?

  • Occurs when the antigen is seen again
  • Memory B and T cells produce an immediate immune response with more IgG and some IgM
  • The patient does not get sick
A

secondary response

137
Q

any immunity that is acquired through the normal biological experiences of an individual

A

natural immunity

138
Q

protection from infection obtained through medical procedures such as vaccines and immune serum

A

artificial immunity

139
Q
  • an individual receives immune stimulus that activates B and T cells to produce immune substances such as antibodies
  • Creates memory
  • natural (having the infection) or artificial (vaccination)
A

active immunity

140
Q
  • individual receives antibodies from another human or animal
  • Recipient is protected for a short period of time
  • lack of memory
  • Lack of antibody production against the disease
  • Immediate onset of protection
  • Short-term effectiveness
  • natural (antibodies from mother to infant) or artificial (receiving immune products in a medical environment) in origin
A

passive immunity

141
Q

Who was the first person to create a vaccine to small pox?

A

edward jenner

142
Q

a certain percentage of the population is vaccinated, making it impossible for the microbe to circulate

A

herd immunity

143
Q

Which T cell job is to remember the antigen

A

memory T

144
Q

Which T cell controls the T-cell response

A

regulatory t cells

145
Q

Which T cells activate macrophages, assist B-cell processes, and help activate cytotoxic T cells

A

Helper T cells

146
Q

Which cells ingest the pathogen and process it to present it to T and B lymphocytes.

A

Dendritic

147
Q

Activated ________ divide to produce plasma cells

A

B cells

148
Q

Activated b-cell also produce _________ cells that are specific for the antigen and can be activated quickly if the antigen is seen again.

A

memory b

149
Q

The functions of antibodies are?

A
  • opsonization
  • neutralization
  • inflammation
  • agglutination
  • complement activation
150
Q

What enhances the ability of phagocytes to bind to the microbe?

A

opsonization

151
Q

What inhibits attachment of the microbe or toxin to the host cell?

A

neutralization

152
Q

What causes antibodies to bind to mast cells or basophils and cause them to release histamine and other mediators?

A

inflammation

153
Q

since antibodies have two binding sites they can bind cells together in clumps that the immune system can find and destroy what is this called?

A

agglutination

154
Q

What are two antibodies side by side on a microbe will activate complement?

A

complement activation

155
Q

What considers macroscopic and microscopic morphology, physiology, and biochemistry?

A

phenotypic

156
Q

What is serological analysis called?

A

immunologic

157
Q

What genetic techniques increasingly being used as a sole resource for identifying bacteria?

A

genotypic

158
Q

What aids in the observation of:
Cell shape, size, and arrangement
Gram stain reaction, acid-fast reaction
Endospores, granules, and capsules

A

Light microscopy

159
Q 
What can pinpoint additional structural features such as:
Cell wall
Flagella
Pili
Fimbriae
A

Electron microscopy

160
Q

What separates microbes into Gram positive and Gram negative groups

A

gram staining

161
Q

What is used to ID leprosy and Tuberculosis

A

Acid-fast stain

162
Q

What encourages the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of other microbes

A

Selective media

163
Q

What uses color changes or other visible differences to differentiate groups of bacteria

A

differential media

164
Q

What contains extra nutrients to promote the growth of fastidious organisms.(blood media?

A

Enriched media

165
Q

These are example of?

  • Carbohydrate fermentation: production of acid and/or gas
  • Hydrolysis of gelatin, starch, and other polymers
  • Enzyme actions: catalase, oxidase, and coagulase
  • Various byproducts of metabolism
  • Performed with rapid, miniaturized systems that can simultaneously determine up to 23 characteristics
A

Biochemical testing

166
Q

What type of typing is this?

  • Used when morphological and biochemical tests are insufficient
  • Bacteriophage infect bacteria in a species-specific and strain-specific way, which is useful in identifying some bacteria.
  • A lawn of bacterial cells is inoculated onto agar, mapped off into blocks, and phage are exposed to each block.
A

Phage typing

167
Q

What results in the production of numerous identical copies of DNA or RNA molecules within hours?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

168
Q

What identifies a microbe by analyzing segments of its genetic material

A

Hybridization

169
Q

What is similar to genetic fingerprinting:

Involves the separation of DNA fragments that are too large for conventional gel electrophoresis methods

A

pulsed- field gel electrophoresis

170
Q

What was established by the CDC to assist in the investigation of possible disease outbreaks caused by food-borne pathogens

A

PulseNet

171
Q

comparison of 16S rRNA sequences is?

A

ribotyping

172
Q

What involves in vitro testing of serum – fluid from blood that lacks clotting factors, cells and platelets

-antibodies have an extreme specificity for antigens

A

serology

173
Q

antigens are whole cells or organisms such as red blood cells, bacteria, or viruses

-forms visible clumps of cells

A

agglutination

174
Q

Antigen is a soluble molecule and antibody reactions makes the antigen precipitate from the solution is?

A

precipitation

175
Q

Ag-Ab technique for identifying, classifying, and sub-grouping certain bacteria into categories called?

A

serotyping

176
Q
  • Proteins within cell lysates are separated via electrical charge within a gel
  • Proteins in the gel are transferred to a special filter
  • Filter is incubated with antibody solutions labeled with radioactive, fluorescent, or luminescent molecules
  • Sites of specific Ag-Ab binding will appear as a pattern of bands that can be compared to known positive and negative controls.
A

Western Blot

177
Q

Fluorescent antibodies (FAbs):
-Monoclonal antibodies labeled by a fluorescent dye
Direct testing:
-Unknown test specimen or antigen is fixed to a slide and exposed to a FAb solution
If Ag-Ab complexes form, they will remain bound to the sample and will be visualized by fluorescence microscopy
-Indirect testing:
FAbs recognize the Fc region of antibodies in patient sera.

These tests are?

A

Immunofluorescence testing

178
Q

Antibodies or antigens labeled with a radioactive isotope used to pinpoint minute quantities of a corresponding antigen or antibody are?

A

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

179
Q
  • Uses an enzyme-linked indicator antibody to visualize Ag-Ab reactions
  • Relies on a solid support such as a microtiter plate that can adsorb the reactions
A

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

180
Q

Chips (absorbent plates):
Contain gene sequences from potentially thousands of different possible infectious agents

These are?

A

Microarrays

181
Q

What is used to determine the structure and composition of various chemical compounds and biological molecules.

A

Mass spectrometry

182
Q

What scans have been increasingly employed to find areas of localized infection in deep tissue.

A

MRI, CT, and PET

A & P II (10 decks)

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