Exam 3 Review Flashcards
Who is Alexander Fleming and what is his contribution to antibiotics
He discovered penicillin
What is the genus names of the bacteria that are the most common sources of antibiotics?
Streptomyces and Bacillus
What is the genus names of the fungi that are the most common sources of antibiotics?
Penicillium and Cephalosporium
Penicillin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- Resistant microbes produce beta lactase that break the central ring of the penicillin molecule.
Clavulanic Acid:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- Inhibits beta lactase enzymes
Cephalosporins:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
-Targets the cell wall
-Can be affected by beta lactase producing microbes.
(good for people allergic to penicillin)
Carbepenems:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
-Targets the cell wall.
-Resistant to beta lactamase enzymes.
(good for people allergic to penicillin)
Bacitracin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- used topically against staph and step.
Vancomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- used for multidrug resistant staph or strep infections.
Isoniazid:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid. used in combination therapy to treat tuberculosis and leprosy.
Ethambutol:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets the cell wall.
- prevents the incorporation of mycolic acid in the cell wall. used in combination with isoniazid.
Streptomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
- first drug to treat gram-negative infection.
- can cause nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity
Neomycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
- treats gram negative infection
- is nephrotoxic so is usually used topically.
Tetracycline:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
- can cause stains on teeth
- causes super infections.
Erythromycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
- used for respiratory, ear and skin infections.
(z pack, and good for people allergic to penicillin)
Clindamycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets 70S ribosomes (protein synthesis)
- good for anaerobic infections.
- used to treat drug resistant staph and stomach and intestinal infections that do not respond to other medications.
Sulfonamides:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
-Targets microbial metabolism
-Inhibits the synthesis of folic acid
(we don’t make our own folic acid, we get it from food)
(used to treat UTI’s)
Fluoroquinolones:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets DNA or RNA
- Inhibits bacterial topoisomerase or helicases (inhibits DNA synthesis)
(used for:anthrax,kidney infections,pnemonia)
Rifamycin:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
- Targets DNA or RNA
- Inhibits RNA synthesis
(used for: tuberculosis, meningitis)
Polymyxin B:
What is it’s mode of action?
How does it work?
-Targets the Plasma Membrane
-Interacts with phospholipids and distorts the plasma membrane, making it leaky.
(normally used topically, and can be used for pseudomonas)
Problem with treating fungal infections is that they are?
eukaryotic cells.
- injectable drug
- used for fungal infections
Amphotericin B
Name the drug:
used for systemic fungal infection
Ketoconazole
Name the drug:
used for AIDS related mycoses (fungal)
Fluconazole
Name the drugs:
used to treat infections in the skin, mouth and vagina. (fungal)
Clotrimazole and miconazole
Name the drugs:
dissolves in the blood and CSF.
used to treat cutaneous mycoses (fungal)
usually combined with amphotericin B
Flucytosine
Agents to treat protozoal infections are?
Quinine
Matronidazole
Drug for:
original drug for treating malaria?
Quinine
What do these drugs replace: quinolones, chloroquine and primaquine
Quinine
What is widely used amoebicide and general purpose antiprotozoal
Metronidazole
Which drug:
-Treats intestinal infections and hepatic disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica
-Also treats Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis
Metronidazole
Mebendazole and albendazole kills?
round worms
Pyrantel _________ the muscles of intestinal __________.
paralyzes, roundworms
What is a veterinary drug that is used for river blindness and lymphatic filariasis in humans.
It is usually used to prevent heart worms in dogs.
Ivermectin
The best thing to use for viruses is?
vaccines
What blocks HIV binding?
Enfuvirtide
What drugs block the flu from binding?
Amantadine + zanamivir + oseltamivir
What drug makes herpes viruses repress?
Acyclovir
What drug helps RSV lassa fever
Ribavirin
reverse transcriptase inhibitor
AZT
protease inhibitor
saquinavir
What targets peptidoglycan
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
What targets the prokaryotic ribosome
Inhibition of protein synthesis
What targets the plasma membrane
Interference with cell membrane structure and function
What targets a metabolic process in the microbe that is different?
Inhibition of a metabolic process
What is effective against more than one group of bacteria
- Advantage is that you don’t have to know the cause of the infection first
- Disadvantage is that you will kill normal flora and cause a superinfection
Broad-spectrum drugs
What targets a specific group?
- Advantage is that you will not kill normal flora (at least not as much)
- Disadvantage is that you must be reasonably sure of the cause of the infection
Narrow-Spectrum Drugs
Which are the microbes that were once small in number overgrow when normal resident biota are destroyed by broad-spectrum antimicrobials
Super Infection
absolutely toxic to the infectious agent and nontoxic to the host this is?
selectively toxic
What are semisynthetic antibiotics?
They are biochemically altered drugs in a lab to give it better qualities.
What are natural antibiotics?
They are unaltered molecules.
What test for drug susceptibility measures the zone of inhibition surrounding the discs is measured and compared with a standard for each drug?
Kirby-Bauer technique
What test for drug susceptibility is this?
-Antimicrobial is diluted
-Each tube is inoculated with a small uniform sample of pure culture
-Minimum inhibitory concentration
The test can be expanded to determine a MBC (Minimum bactericidal concentration
Tube dilution tests
What are the two tests that test drug susceptibility?
- Kirby-Bauer technique
- Tube dilution tests
What is the ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans as compared to its minimum effective (therapeutic) dose
Therapeutic index
Which phase is done in healthy young people (usually males) to test for toxicity
Phase I Clinical trial of Human Clinical Trials
Which phase is done in persons with the infection or disorder to see if the drug is effective
Phase II clinical trials of Human Clinical Trials
Which phase continues after phase II but compares the drug to any current treatments on the market
Phase III clinical trials of Human Clinical Trials
Which phase occurs after market studies
Phase IV of Human Clinical Trials
An adaptive response in which microorganisms begin to tolerate an amount of drug that would normally be inhibitory is?
drug resistance
Drug resistance for antimicrobials is in the?
microbe not the host.
Microbes can become resistant to a drug after?
- spontaneous mutation
- acquisition of entire new genes or sets of gene via horizontal transfer from another species.
What breaks the central ring of the penicillin molecule?
beta lactamase
Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes are?
pre-biotics
Preparations of live microorganisms fed to animals and humans to improve intestinal biota are?
probiotics
What are the first line of barrier defenses?
any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry.
Barrier defenses:
skin
shedding and sweating
Barrier defenses:
mucous
coat impend entry and attachment
Barrier defenses:
lacrimal apparatus:
blinking, and tear production across the eye.
Barrier defenses:
constant flow of saliva cleanses….
the oral cavity and carries microbes to the stomach.
Barrier defenses:
Respiratory tract:
- nasal hairs trap larger particles
- copious flow of mucus and fluids provides flushing action
- ciliated epithelium convey particles trapped in mucus toward the pharynx
- sneeze relex expels a large amount of air at high velocity
- foreign matter in the bronchi, trachea, and larynx triggers coughing to eject irritants
Barrier defenses:
Gastrointestinal tract:
-Stomach acids, and digestive enzymes in the stomach and small intestine kill most microbes.
Barrier defenses:
Genitourinary tract:
- Protection through the continuous trickle of urine through ureters
- Periodic bladder emptying flushes urethra.
- Vaginal secretions provide cleansing of the lower reproductive tract in females.
All these are?
- Sebaceous secretions exert an antimicrobial effect.
- Specialized glands of the eyelids lubricate the conjunctiva with an antimicrobial secretion.
- Lysozyme
- High lactic acid and electrolyte content of sweat create a salty and acidic environment
- Acidic pH and fatty acid content of the skin
- Hydrochloric acid in the stomach gives protection against microbes that are swallowed.
- Digestive juices and bile in the intestine are destructive to microbes.
- Semen contains an antimicrobial chemical.
- Vagina has a protective acidic pH maintained by normal flora (Lactobacilli).
- Transferrins in the blood bind iron and keep microbes from accessing it.
Barrier defenses:
chemical
an enzyme found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in the cell wall of bacteria
lysozyme
What is in the blood and binds iron and keeps microbes from accessing it.
Transferrins
Recognize body cells
self antigen
Differentiate them from any foreign material in the body
non self antigen
What are markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common?
PAMPS
What are signal molecules that are found on microbial surfaces recognized by phagocytes and other defensive cells?
PAMPS
What am i?
- General purpose phagocytes
- Found in the blood an migrate out of the blood and into the tissues when stimulated
- React early in the inflammatory response to bacteria and other foreign materials and to damaged tissue
- High ________ count in the blood is a common sign of bacterial infection
- Primary component of pus
Neutrophiles
What are transformed into macrophages after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into the tissues?
Monocytes
What are the cells in the skin?
Dendritic cells
Lung cells?
Alveolar macrophages
Cells in the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, kidney, bone, and brain are?
Macrophages
microglial cells are
in the CNS
What are the steps of phagocytosis?
chemotaxis attachment ingestion phagolysosome formation digestion excretion
what is the chemical trail called that leads to the injury?
chemotaxis
What is the process of inflammation?
- initial injury
- chain reaction take place
- vasodilation
- summoning beneficial cells and fluids to injured area
What is a fever?
abnormally elevated body temperature
What are substances that reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting?
pyrogens
What are products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoans, fungi, endotoxin, blood, blood products, vaccines, or injectable solutions that cause fever?
Exogenous pyrogens
What are liberated by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during phagocytosis such as interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor that cause fever?
Endogenous pyrogens
What help mediate nonspecific immune reactions such as inflammation and phagocytosis?
Cytokines
What activates immune reactions during inflammation such as vasoactive mediators?
cytokines
What helps regulate the growth and activation of lymphocytes?
cytokines
What helps with hematopoiesis factors for white blood cells
miscellaneous inflammatory mediators
cytokines
A small protein produced naturally by certain white blood and tissue cells is a?
Interferon
_________ molecules are rapidly secreted into the extracellular space, binding to other host cells.
Interferon
Binding of ________ induces the production of proteins in the cell that inhibit viral multiplication.
Interferon
Interferons can degrade and prevent what?
degrade viral RNA
translation of vital proteins.
What do cytokines do?
communicate with each other.
Body temperature is maintained by the?
hypothalamus
- Impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
- Increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions
fever
Complement 3 pathways:
Which pathway is initiated either by the foreign cell membrane of a parasite or a surface antibody?
Classical pathway
Complement 3 pathways:
Which binds to pathogen membranes
alternative pathway
Complement 3 pathways:
Which binds to mannose?
ectin pathway
Common effects of all complement pathways:
Which one is caused by the membrane attack complex?
kills the cell
cytolysis.
Common effects of all complement pathways:
Which one has certain complement proteins bind to microbes and enhance the ability of phagocytic cells to ingest them?
opsonization
Common effects of all complement pathways:
Which one has certain complement proteins bind to mast cells and make them release histamine?
Inflammation
What is the ability of the body to react with countless foreign substances?
immunocompetence
mature in specialized bone marrow sites.
b-cells
mature in the thymus.
t-cells
What is MHC?
Major Histocompatibility compleX
What codes for markers that appear on all nucleated cells, display unique characteristics of self?
MHC: Class I genes
What markers found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells, and are involved in presentation of antigens to T cells?
MHC: Class II genes
Foreign molecules that stimulate an immune response is?
Antigen
the portion of an antigenic molecule to which a lymphocyte responds to is?
epitope
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are?
Haptens
Bacterial toxins that are potent stimuli for T cells are?
superantigens
What creates a overwhelming release of cytokines and cell death?
superantigens
What are antigens that evoke allergic reactions?
allergens
After processing is complete, the antigen will be bound to the MHC receptor and moved to the surface of the APC so it will be readily accessible to T lymphocytes.
APC’s process
The cells are?
Macrophages
B cells
Dendritic cells
APC’s
All t-cells produce?
cytokines
How many types of t-cells are there?
three
All helper t cells bear the?
CD4
The main function of helper t -cells is?
to active b cells, macrophages and neutrophils and to promote inflammation in anti parasitic and allergic reactions.
cytotoxic t-cells are?
cells that kill other cells
Which cell lacks specificity for antigens?
natural killer cells.
What kind of cells do natural killer cells kill?
cancer cells and virus infected cells
What cells can cytotoxic t-cells kill?
- virally infected cells
- cancer cells
- cells from other animals and humans.
levels of antibodies in the serum over time is?
titer
Humoral immunity is produced by?
b cells
Which response am i?
- The first time the antigen is encountered
- B and T cells begin clonal selection and expansion
- B cells responding to the antigen alone produce primarily IgM.
- patient usually gets sick
- helper t cells are produced; they stimulate B cells to produce IgG
- patient recovers
primary response
Which response am i?
- Occurs when the antigen is seen again
- Memory B and T cells produce an immediate immune response with more IgG and some IgM
- The patient does not get sick
secondary response
any immunity that is acquired through the normal biological experiences of an individual
natural immunity
protection from infection obtained through medical procedures such as vaccines and immune serum
artificial immunity
- an individual receives immune stimulus that activates B and T cells to produce immune substances such as antibodies
- Creates memory
- natural (having the infection) or artificial (vaccination)
active immunity
- individual receives antibodies from another human or animal
- Recipient is protected for a short period of time
- lack of memory
- Lack of antibody production against the disease
- Immediate onset of protection
- Short-term effectiveness
- natural (antibodies from mother to infant) or artificial (receiving immune products in a medical environment) in origin
passive immunity
Who was the first person to create a vaccine to small pox?
edward jenner
a certain percentage of the population is vaccinated, making it impossible for the microbe to circulate
herd immunity
Which T cell job is to remember the antigen
memory T
Which T cell controls the T-cell response
regulatory t cells
Which T cells activate macrophages, assist B-cell processes, and help activate cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
Which cells ingest the pathogen and process it to present it to T and B lymphocytes.
Dendritic
Activated ________ divide to produce plasma cells
B cells
Activated b-cell also produce _________ cells that are specific for the antigen and can be activated quickly if the antigen is seen again.
memory b
The functions of antibodies are?
- opsonization
- neutralization
- inflammation
- agglutination
- complement activation
What enhances the ability of phagocytes to bind to the microbe?
opsonization
What inhibits attachment of the microbe or toxin to the host cell?
neutralization
What causes antibodies to bind to mast cells or basophils and cause them to release histamine and other mediators?
inflammation
since antibodies have two binding sites they can bind cells together in clumps that the immune system can find and destroy what is this called?
agglutination
What are two antibodies side by side on a microbe will activate complement?
complement activation
What considers macroscopic and microscopic morphology, physiology, and biochemistry?
phenotypic
What is serological analysis called?
immunologic
What genetic techniques increasingly being used as a sole resource for identifying bacteria?
genotypic
What aids in the observation of:
Cell shape, size, and arrangement
Gram stain reaction, acid-fast reaction
Endospores, granules, and capsules
Light microscopy
What can pinpoint additional structural features such as: Cell wall Flagella Pili Fimbriae
Electron microscopy
What separates microbes into Gram positive and Gram negative groups
gram staining
What is used to ID leprosy and Tuberculosis
Acid-fast stain
What encourages the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of other microbes
Selective media
What uses color changes or other visible differences to differentiate groups of bacteria
differential media
What contains extra nutrients to promote the growth of fastidious organisms.(blood media?
Enriched media
These are example of?
- Carbohydrate fermentation: production of acid and/or gas
- Hydrolysis of gelatin, starch, and other polymers
- Enzyme actions: catalase, oxidase, and coagulase
- Various byproducts of metabolism
- Performed with rapid, miniaturized systems that can simultaneously determine up to 23 characteristics
Biochemical testing
What type of typing is this?
- Used when morphological and biochemical tests are insufficient
- Bacteriophage infect bacteria in a species-specific and strain-specific way, which is useful in identifying some bacteria.
- A lawn of bacterial cells is inoculated onto agar, mapped off into blocks, and phage are exposed to each block.
Phage typing
What results in the production of numerous identical copies of DNA or RNA molecules within hours?
Polymerase chain reaction
What identifies a microbe by analyzing segments of its genetic material
Hybridization
What is similar to genetic fingerprinting:
Involves the separation of DNA fragments that are too large for conventional gel electrophoresis methods
pulsed- field gel electrophoresis
What was established by the CDC to assist in the investigation of possible disease outbreaks caused by food-borne pathogens
PulseNet
comparison of 16S rRNA sequences is?
ribotyping
What involves in vitro testing of serum – fluid from blood that lacks clotting factors, cells and platelets
-antibodies have an extreme specificity for antigens
serology
antigens are whole cells or organisms such as red blood cells, bacteria, or viruses
-forms visible clumps of cells
agglutination
Antigen is a soluble molecule and antibody reactions makes the antigen precipitate from the solution is?
precipitation
Ag-Ab technique for identifying, classifying, and sub-grouping certain bacteria into categories called?
serotyping
- Proteins within cell lysates are separated via electrical charge within a gel
- Proteins in the gel are transferred to a special filter
- Filter is incubated with antibody solutions labeled with radioactive, fluorescent, or luminescent molecules
- Sites of specific Ag-Ab binding will appear as a pattern of bands that can be compared to known positive and negative controls.
Western Blot
Fluorescent antibodies (FAbs):
-Monoclonal antibodies labeled by a fluorescent dye
Direct testing:
-Unknown test specimen or antigen is fixed to a slide and exposed to a FAb solution
If Ag-Ab complexes form, they will remain bound to the sample and will be visualized by fluorescence microscopy
-Indirect testing:
FAbs recognize the Fc region of antibodies in patient sera.
These tests are?
Immunofluorescence testing
Antibodies or antigens labeled with a radioactive isotope used to pinpoint minute quantities of a corresponding antigen or antibody are?
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
- Uses an enzyme-linked indicator antibody to visualize Ag-Ab reactions
- Relies on a solid support such as a microtiter plate that can adsorb the reactions
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Chips (absorbent plates):
Contain gene sequences from potentially thousands of different possible infectious agents
These are?
Microarrays
What is used to determine the structure and composition of various chemical compounds and biological molecules.
Mass spectrometry
What scans have been increasingly employed to find areas of localized infection in deep tissue.
MRI, CT, and PET
