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NASM CPT > Final Exam - Domain One > Flashcards

Final Exam - Domain One Flashcards

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1
Q

Communication network within the body

A

Nervous System

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2
Q

Brain and spinal cord; coordinates activity in the body

A

Central Nervous System (CNS)

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3
Q

Nerves connecting the CNS to the rest of the body and environment

A

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

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4
Q

What are the two peripheral nervous system subdivisions?

A

Somatic and Autonmic

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5
Q

Serves the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle; voluntary

A

Somatic

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6
Q

Involuntary systems (e.g. heart, digestion)

A

Autonomic

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7
Q

What are the two autonomic subdivisions?

A

Parasympathetic and Sympathetic

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8
Q

Decreases activation during rest and recovery

A

Parasympathetic

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9
Q

Increases activation to prep for activity

A

Sympathetic

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10
Q

Functional unit of the nervous system

A

Neuron

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11
Q

What are the two type of neurons

A

Motor (efferent) and Sensory (afferent) Neurons

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12
Q

Transmit nerve impulses from CNS to effector sites

A

Motor (efferent) Neurons

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13
Q

Respond to stimuli; transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to CNS

A

Sensory (afferent) neurons

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14
Q

Sense distortion in body tissues

A

Mechanoreceptors

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15
Q

What are the three functions of the nervous system?

A

Sensory, Integrative, and Motor

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16
Q

Respond to pressure, acceleration, deceleration of joints

A

Joint Receptors

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17
Q

Sense changes in the muscular tension

A

Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO)

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18
Q

Sense changes in muscle length

A

Muscle Spindles

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19
Q

Connect muscle to bone; provide anchor for muscles to produce force

A

Tendons

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20
Q

Outer layer of connective tissue surrounding a muscle

A

Fascia

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21
Q

Bundles of individual muscle fibers

A

Fascicles

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22
Q

Cellular components of myofibrils encased in a plasma membrane

A

Muscle Fiber

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23
Q

Produces muscular contraction; repeating sections of actin and mysosin

A

Sarcomere

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24
Q

Thick and thin filaments slide past one another, shortening the entire sacomere

A

Sliding Filament Theory

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25
Q

Smaller size; fatigue slowly

A

Type I (slow twitch) Muscle Tissue

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26
Q

Larger size; quick to produce maximal tension; fatigue quickly

A

Type II (fast twitch) Muscle Tissue

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27
Q

One motor neuron and the muscle fibers it connects with

A

Motor Unit

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28
Q

Contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation

A

Neural Activation

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29
Q

Chemical messengers that transport impulses from nerve to muscle

A

Neurotransmitters

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30
Q

A Z-line and thick and thin Filaments are the three components of a what?

A

Sacromere

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31
Q

What is the cross-section of a muscle composed of starting from the outermost portion?

A

Muscle Fiber, Endomysium, Perimysium, and Epimysium

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32
Q

What is composed of a nucleus, dendrites, axon, node, neurolemma, myelin sheath, and synaptic terminals?

A

Neuron

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33
Q

Attach directly to vertebrae and consists of the transverse abdominis, internal oblique, multifidus, pelvic floor, and diaphragm

A

Local Stabilization System

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34
Q

Attach from pelvis to spine and consists of the quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex, and portions of internal oblique

A

Global Stabilization System

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35
Q

Attach spine and/or pelvis to extremities and consists of the latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, and quadriceps

A

Movement System

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36
Q

Skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

A

Axial Skeleton

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37
Q

Upper and lower extremities, shoulder and pelvic girdles

A

Appendicular Skeleton

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38
Q

Supports, protects, allows bodily movement, produces blood, and stores minerals

A

Skeletal System Functions

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39
Q

Flattened or indented portions of a bone; can be muscle attachment sites

A

Depressions

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40
Q

Projection protruding from a bone; muscles tendons, and ligaments can attach

A

Process

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41
Q

Connects bone to bone; little blood supply; slow to heal

A

Ligaments

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42
Q

Joint motion

A

Arthrokinematics

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43
Q

No joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage; little to no movement

A

Non-Synovial Joints

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44
Q

Held together by joint capsule and ligaments; associated with movement

A

Synovial Joints

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45
Q

What are the three major motion types of joints?

A

Roll, Slide and Spin

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46
Q

What type of joints include the elbows and ankles and move in the sagittal plane?

A

Hinge Joint

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47
Q

What types of joints include the shoulders and hips and are the most mobile, moving in all three planes of motion?

A

Ball-and-socket

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48
Q

The best method to strengthen bones

A

Weight-Bearing Exercise

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49
Q

What are the two enlargements of the spinal cord?

A

Lumbar and Cervical

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50
Q

What are the four nerve subdivisions of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical nerves (C1-8), Thoracic Nerves (T1-12), Lumbar Nerves (L1-5), and Sacral Nerves (S1-5)

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51
Q

What major components make up the spine?

A

Brain, Brain Stem, and Spinal Cord

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52
Q

System of glands; secretes hormones to regulate bodily function

A

Endocrine System

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53
Q

Responsible for male sex traits

A

Testosterone

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54
Q

Influences fat deposition on hips, buttocks, and thighs; responsible for female sex traits

A

Estrogen

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55
Q

Anabolic hormone; responsible for bodily growth up until puberty

A

Growth Hormone

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56
Q

Regulates energy and glucose metabolism in the body

A

Insulin

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57
Q

Cardiovascular and respiratory systems

A

Cardiorespiratory System

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58
Q

Heart, blood, and blood vessels

A

Cardiovascular System

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59
Q

Shorter, more tightly connected than skeletal muscle; involuntary

A

Cardiac Muscle

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60
Q

Smaller, superior chambers of the heart; receive blood from veins

A

Atria

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61
Q

Gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart

A

Right Atrium

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62
Q

Gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs

A

Left Atrium

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63
Q

Located in right atrium; initiates impulse for heart rate; ‘pacemaker for the heart’

A

Sinatrial (SA) Node

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64
Q

Larger, inferior chambers of the heart; pump blood out

A

Ventricles

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65
Q

Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs

A

Right Ventricle

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66
Q

Pumps oxygenated blood to the body

A

Left Ventricle

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67
Q

Carry blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

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68
Q

Transport blood back to the heart

A

Veins

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69
Q

Small branches of arteries; ending in capillaries

A

Arterioles

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70
Q

Smallest blood vessels; site of gas, chemical, and water exchange

A

Capillaries

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71
Q

Transportation, regulation, and protection are functions of what?

A

Blood

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72
Q

Very small veins; connect capillaries to larger veins

A

Venules

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73
Q

Amount of blood pumped with each contraction

A

Stroke Volume

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74
Q

The rate at which the heart pumps; average untrained adult = 70-80 bpm

A

Heart Rate

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75
Q

What is the average heart rate of an average untrained adult?

A

70-80 bpm

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76
Q

Volume of blood pumped per minute; heart rate x stroke volume

A

Cardiac Output

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77
Q

Lungs and respiratory passageways; brings in oxygen, removes CO2

A

Respiratory System

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78
Q

Contracting inspiratory muscles to move air into lungs

A

Inspiration

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79
Q

What are the two types of inspiratory muscles?

A

Primary and Secondary

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80
Q

The diaphragm and external intercostals are part of the which inspiratory muscles?

A

Primary

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81
Q

The scalenes, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid are part of which inspiratory muscles?

A

Secondary

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82
Q

Relaxing inspiratory muscles (passive), contracting expiratory muscles (active) to move air out

A

Expiration

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83
Q

What are the two expiratory muscles?

A

Internal Intercostals, Abdominals

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84
Q

3.5 ml x kg^-1 x min^-1 = 1 metabolic equivalent (MET) is the formula for what?

A

Resting Oxygen Consumption (VO2)

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85
Q

Highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion

A

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)

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86
Q

Associated with stress and anxiety; may result in headaches, fatigue, poor circulation, and/or poor sleep patterns

A

Abnormal Breathing Patterns

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87
Q

Does cardiorespiratory exercise decrease or increase cardiac output, breathing efficiency, oxygen transport and use, use of fats for fuel, mental alertness, about to relax and sleep, tolerance to stress, learn body mass, and metabolic?

A

Increase

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88
Q

Does cardiorespiratory exercise decrease or increase resting heart rate, cholesterol, blood pressure, and the risks of heart disease, blood clots, depression, anxiety, obesity, and diabetes?

A

Decrease

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89
Q

Study of energy in the human body

A

Bioenergetics

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90
Q

Process in which nutrients are acquired, transported, used, and disposed of by the body

A

Metabolism

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91
Q

Requires oxygen

A

Aerobic

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92
Q

Without oxygen

A

Anaerobic

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93
Q

Energy storage and transfer unit within cells

A

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

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94
Q

Where the body can no longer produce enough energy with normal oxygen intake

A

Anaerobic Threshold

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95
Q

Elevation of metabolism after exercise

A

Excess Post Oxygen Consumption (EPOC)

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96
Q

What are the three energy systems?

A

Oxidative System, Glycolysis, and ATP-PC

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97
Q

Anaerobic, high-intensity, and lasts 10-15 seconds are characteristics of which energy system?

A

ATP-PC Energy System

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98
Q

Anaerobic, moderate-to-high Intensity, and lasts up to 30-50 seconds are the characteristics of which energy system?

A

Glycolysis Energy System

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99
Q

Aerobic glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport Chain, and long-term energy are the characteristics of what energy system?

A

Oxidative Energy System

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100
Q

Science concerned with internal and external forces acting on the body

A

Biomechanics

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101
Q

Influence applied by on object to another, accelerates or decelerates the second object

A

Force

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102
Q

A force that produces rotation; the closer the load to the point of rotation, the less of this kind of force it creates (i.e. bent arm is easier than straight arm)

A

Torque

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103
Q

Rigid “bar” that rotates around a stationary fulcrum

A

Lever

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104
Q

Fulcrum in middle (nodding head)

A

1st Class Lever

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105
Q

Resistance in the middle (calf raise)

A

2nd Class Lever

106
Q

Effort in the middle (biceps curl); most common in human limbs

A

3rd Class Lever

107
Q

Above point of reference on the body

A

Superior

108
Q

Below a point of reference on the body

A

Inferior

109
Q

Nearest to a point of reference on the body

A

Proximal

110
Q

Farthest from a point of reference on the body

A

Distal

111
Q

Front of the body

A

Anterior

112
Q

Back of the body

A

Posterior

113
Q

Closer to the middle of the body

A

Medial

114
Q

Further from the middle of the body

A

Lateral

115
Q

On the opposite of the body

A

Contralateral

116
Q

On the same side of the body

A

Ipsilateral

117
Q

What are the three planes of motion?

A

Frontal, Sagital, and Transverse

118
Q

Adduction/abduction, lateral flexion, and eversion/inversion happen on what plane of motion?

A

Frontal Plane of Motion

119
Q

Side lateral raise, side lunge, and side shuffle are examples of motions on what plane?

A

Frontal Plane

120
Q

Flexion and Extension motions happen on what plane of motion?

A

Sagittal Plane of Motion

121
Q

Biceps curl, triceps pushdown, and squat are examples of motions on what plane?

A

Sagital Plane

122
Q

Rotation and horizontal adduction/abduction happens in which plane of motion?

A

Transverse Plane of Motion

123
Q

Throwing, golfing, swinging a bat, and trunk rotation are examples on what plane?

A

Transverse Plane

124
Q

An imaginary plane dividing the body into front and back halves

A

Frontal Plane

125
Q

An imaginary plane dividing the body into left and right halves

A

Sagittal

126
Q

An imaginary plane dividing the body into top and bottom halves

A

Transverse

127
Q

Bending movement; decreases relative angle between segments

A

Flexion

128
Q

Straightening movement; increases relative angle between segments

A

Extension

129
Q

Extension at the ankle

A

Plantarflexion

130
Q

Flexion at the ankle

A

Dorsiflexion

131
Q

Movement in the frontal plane away from the middle

A

Abduction

132
Q

Movement in the frontal plane toward the middle

A

Adduction

133
Q

Transverse plane arm movement from anterior to lateral (e.g. chest flies)

A

Horizontal Abduction

134
Q

Transverse plane arm movement from lateral to anterior

A

Horizontal Adduction

135
Q

Rotation toward the middle of the body

A

Internal Rotation

136
Q

Rotation away from the middle of the body

A

External Rotation

137
Q

Moving in opposite direction of force, accelerates or produces form; muscle shortens

A

Concentric Muscle Action

138
Q

Muscle develops tension while lengthening; decelerates force

A

Eccentric Muscle Action

139
Q

Muscular force equal to resistive force, stabilizes force; no change in muscle length

A

Isometric Muscle Action

140
Q

Concentric, eccentric, and isometric muscle actions make up what?

A

Muscle Action Spectrum

141
Q

Resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length

A

Length-tension Relationship

142
Q

Muscles working together to produce movement

A

Force-couple

143
Q

As the velocity of a contraction increases, concentric force decreases and eccentric force increases

A

Force-velocity curve

144
Q

Ability to produce and reduce force, and stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion

A

Neuromuscular Efficiency

145
Q

Alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows center of gravity to be maintained over a base of support

A

Structural Efficiency

146
Q

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress

A

Davi’s Law

147
Q

Neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract; provides inhibitory effect to muscle spindles

A

Autogenic Inhibition

148
Q

Simultaneous contraction of one muscle, and reaction of its antagonist to allow movement

A

Reciprocal Inhibition

149
Q

Tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance

A

Relative Flexibility

150
Q

Consistently repeating the same motion; places abnormal stresses on the body

A

Pattern Overload

151
Q

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

A

Postural Distortion Patterns

152
Q

Muscle inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist

A

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

153
Q

Inappropriate muscle takes over function of a weak or inhibited prime mover

A

Synergistic Dominance

154
Q

Alternation of muscle length surrounding a joint

A

Muscle Imbalance

155
Q

Ability to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movement

A

Stabilization

156
Q

Ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force

A

Strength

157
Q

Ability to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods

A

Strength Endurance

158
Q

Maximal force a muscle can produce in a single voluntary effort

A

Maximal Strength

159
Q

Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers from resistance training

A

Muscular Hypertrophy

160
Q

Ability to produce the greatest force in the shortest amount of time

A

Power

161
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization, Strength, and Power

162
Q

What are the five phases of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Hypertrophy, Maximal Strength, and Power

163
Q

First phase of the OPT model

A

Stabilization Endurance

164
Q

Second phase of the OPT model

A

Strength Endurance

165
Q

Third phase of the OPT model

A

Hypertrophy

166
Q

Fourth phase of the OPT model

A

Maximal Strength

167
Q

Fifth phase of the OPT model

A

Power

168
Q

First level of the OPT model

A

Stabilization

169
Q

Second level of the OPT model

A

Strength

170
Q

Third level of the OPT model

A

Power

171
Q

What are the three phases of the strength level of the OPT model?

A

Strength Endurance, Hypertrophy, and Maximal Strength

172
Q

Motor response to internal and external stimuli

A

Motor Behavior

173
Q

How the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences

A

Motor Control

174
Q

Integration of motor control processes through practice, leading to a relatively permanent change to produce a killed movement

A

Motor Learning

175
Q

The change in motor skill behavior over time throughout the lifespan

A

Motor Development

176
Q

What are the three components of motor behavior?

A

Motor Control, Motor Learning, and Motor Development

177
Q

Cooperation of the nervous and muscular systems in gathering and interpreting information and executing movement

A

Sensorimotor Integration

178
Q

Groups of muscles that are recruited by the CNS to provide movement

A

Muscle Synergies

179
Q

Cumulative sensory input from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements

A

Proprioception

180
Q

Use of sensory information and sensorimotor integration to help the HMS in motor learning

A

Feedback

181
Q

What are the Two types of feedback?

A

Internal and External Feedback

182
Q

Sensory information is used by the body to reactively monitor movement and the environment

A

Internal Feedback

183
Q

Information provided by some external source (e.g., fitness professional, recording, mirror, etc.) to supplement the internal environment

A

External Feedback

184
Q

Sugars, starches, celluloses, and fiber; chief source of energy–provides nutrition that fat and protein can’t, keeps glycogen stores full, helps maintain fluid balance, and spares protein for building muscle

A

Carbohydrates

185
Q

A single sugar unit (glucose, fructose, galatose)

A

Monosaccharide

186
Q

Two sugar units (sucrose, lactose, maltose)

A

Disaccharides

187
Q

Long chains of monosaccharide units linked together (starch, fiber).

A

Polysaccharides

188
Q

Complex carbohydrate; provides bulk in diet and intestinal health; regulates absorption of glucose

A

Fiber

189
Q

What are the two types of fiber?

A

Soluble and Insoluble Fiber

190
Q

Dissolved by water; helps moderate blood glucose and lower cholesterol

A

Soluble Fiber

191
Q

Does not dissolve in water

A

Insoluble Fiber

192
Q

Simple sugar made by the body from carbs, fats, and sometimes protein; main source of fuel

A

Glucose

193
Q

Complex carbohydrate used to store energy in liver and muscle tissue

A

Glycogen

194
Q

The rate carb sources raise blood sugar and the effect on insulin release

A

Glycemic Index

195
Q

What is a high glycemic idex?

A

Greater than 70

196
Q

What is a moderate glycemic index?

A

56-69

197
Q

What is a low glycemic index?

A

Less than 55

198
Q

What are the three sources of lipids?

A

Monounsaturated, Polyunsaturated, and Saturated

199
Q

Cellular membrane structure and function, precursor to hormones, cellular signals, nutrient regulation, protecting organs, insulates the body, prolongs digestion, and helps with satiety are all functions of what?

A

Lipids

200
Q

Olive oil, avocados, and peanuts are all food sources of what kind of lipids?

A

Monounsaturated

201
Q

Sunflower oil, soy oil, Omea-3’s (fish, flax) are all food sources of what kind of lipids?

A

Polyunsaturated

202
Q

Meat, coconut oil, and dairy are all food sources of what kind of lipids?

A

Saturated

203
Q

Chemical form of most fat in food and in the body

A

Triglycerides

204
Q

Raises “bad” LDL cholesterol

A

Saturated Fatty Acid

205
Q

Used to increase shelf life in foods; raises bad and lowers good cholesterol

A

Trans-fatty Acids

206
Q

Increases “good” HDL cholesterol; decreases risk of heart disease

A

Unsaturated Fatty Acids

207
Q

Lipid missing one hydrogen; one double bond

A

Monounsaturated Fatty Acid

208
Q

Lipids with more than one point of unsaturation

A

Polyunsaturated Fatty Acid

209
Q

Amino acids linked by a peptide bond

A

Protein

210
Q

Cannot be manufactured by the body; must be obtained from food; there are a total of eight

A

Essential Amino Acids

211
Q

Can be manufactured by the body

A

Nonessential Amino Acids

212
Q

Supplies all essential amino acids in appropriate ratios

A

Complex Protein

213
Q

Contains less than all 8 essential amino acids in appropriate ratios

A

Incomplete Protein

214
Q

When energy needs are met with carbs and fats, how is protein used?

A

Spared to build and repair body tissues and structures

215
Q

During a negative energy balance, how is protein used?

A

Amino acids are broken down and used for energy instead of carbs and fats (gluconeogenesis)

216
Q

Vitamins and minerals needed for health

A

Micronutrients

217
Q

Degree to which a substance causes harm

A

Toxicity

218
Q

What percentage of water is the body made of?

A

60%

219
Q

How much water should sedentary adults should consume on average?

A

3L per day for men, 2.2L per day for women

220
Q

When should someone drink a sports drinking containing 8% carbs?

A

When exercise exceeds 60 minutes

221
Q

How much extra water should an overweight person consume?

A

8 ounces for every 25 pounds overweight

222
Q

What adversely affects circulatory function and decreases performance?

A

Dehydration

223
Q

Amount of heat energy required to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree celcius

A

calorie (lowercase c)

224
Q

Amount of energy expended at rest

A

Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)

225
Q

Additional energy use for digestion; 6-10% of total energy expenditure

A

Thermic Effect of Food (TEF)

226
Q

How much total energy is expended during physical activity?

A

20%

227
Q

How many calories per gram is in protein?

A

4 calories

228
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for sedentary adults?

A

0.8 g/kg/day (0.4 g/lb/day)

229
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes?

A

1.2-1.7 g/kg/day (0.5-0.8 g/lb/day)

230
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for endurance athletes?

A

1.2-1.4 g/kg/day (0.5-0.6 g/lb/day)

231
Q

Protein should make up what percentage of a diet?

A

10-35%

232
Q

What is the recommended carbohydrate intake for sedentary adults?

A

6-10 g/kg/day

233
Q

How many calories per gram is in a carbohydrate?

A

4 calories

234
Q

How many grams of carbohydrates should come from fiber?

A

25-38 grams

235
Q

Carbohydrates should make up what percentage of a diet?

A

45-65%

236
Q

How many calories per gram is in fat?

A

9 calories

237
Q

Fats should make up what percentage of a diet?

A

20-35%

238
Q

What fat ratio is desirable?

A

High polyunsaturated-to-saturated

239
Q

A person should eat a high carb meal how many hours before exercise?

A

2-4 hours

240
Q

How many grams of carbohydrates should be consumed during exercise lasting more than 60 minutes?

A

30-60 grams every hour

241
Q

To maximize glycogen replenishment, a person should eat how many grams of carbohydrates 30 minutes after exercise?

A

1.5 g/kg of body weight

242
Q

Guidelines for adequate intake of a nutrient

A

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI)

243
Q

Average daily nutrient intake level to meet the requirement of nearly all healthy individuals

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

244
Q

Highest average daily intake level likely to pose no risk to health

A

Tolerable Upper Intake (UL)

245
Q

Recommended average daily nutrient intake level adequate for healthy individuals

A

Adequate Intake (AI)

246
Q

Less than what percentage of calories from saturated fat should be consumed for fat loss?

A

10%

247
Q

What should be distributed throughout the day for fat loss?

A

Carbs, Proteins, and Fats

248
Q

How many meals per day helps control hunger, minimizes blood sugar fluctuation, and increases energy for fat loss?

A

4 -6 meals

249
Q

What kind of calories and foods should be avoided for fat loss?

A

Empty calories and Highly Processed Foods

250
Q

How much water should be consumed each day at a minimum for fat loss?

A

9-13 Cups

251
Q

Weighing and measuring food is recommended for what fitness goal?

A

Fat Loss

252
Q

Diets under how many calories should be supervised by a physician for fat loss?

A

1,200 calories

253
Q

How many meals should be eaten per day for lean mass gain?

A

4-6 meals

254
Q

What should be spread throughout the day for lean mass gain?

A

Protein

255
Q

When should carbs and protein be ingested to increase recovery and protein synthesis for lean mass gain?

A

Within 90 minutes of exercise

256
Q

What should not be neglected for lean mass gain?

A

Carbs and Fats

257
Q

Gor general health, what carb sources should be chosen to consume?

A

Low-glycemic and High in Fiber

258
Q

Total calorie intake and burn in what period of time dictates weight loss or gained for general health?

A

24 Hours

259
Q

Something that enhances athletic performance

A

Ergogenic Aid

260
Q

Made in the body and can increase muscle mass, strength, and anaerobic performance during exercise

A

Creatine

261
Q

How many mg/kg of caffeine 1 hour before exercise has the most effective ergogenic response, but will occur on an individual basis?

A

3-6 mg/kg body weight

262
Q

What are prohibited by the World Anti-Doping Agency?

A

Prohormones and Anabolic Steroids

NASM CPT (18 decks)

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