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Medical Terminology > Final Exam: Chapter 5, 12, & 13 > Flashcards

Final Exam: Chapter 5, 12, & 13 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Derm/o

dermat/o

Cutane/o

A

Skin

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2
Q

Erythr/o

A

Red

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3
Q

Hidr/o

A

Sweat

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4
Q

Hist/o

Histi/o

A

Tissue

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5
Q

Ichthy/o

A

Fish

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6
Q

Kerat/o

Scler/o

A

Hard

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7
Q

Leuk/o

A

White

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8
Q

Melan/o

A

Black

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9
Q

Myc/o

A

Fungus

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10
Q

Onych/o

A

Nail

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11
Q

Plas/o

A

Formation

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12
Q

Purpur/o

A

Purple

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13
Q

Seb/o

A

Sebum (oil)

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14
Q

Squam/o

A

Scale

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15
Q

Trich/o

A

Hair

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16
Q

Xanth/o

A

Yellow

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17
Q

Xer/o

A

Dry

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18
Q

Epithelium

A

Cells covering external and internal surfaces of the body

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19
Q

Epidermis

A

Thin, cellular outer layer of the skin

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20
Q

Squamous cell layer

A

Flat, scale-like epithelial cells comprising the outermost layers of the epidermis

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21
Q

Basal layer

A

Deepest region of the epidermis

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22
Q

Melanocyte

A

A cell found in the basal layer that gives color to the skin

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23
Q

Melanin

A

Dark brown or black pigment contained in melanocytes

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24
Q

Dermis

A

Dense, fibrous connective tissue layer of the skin (also known as the corium)

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25
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Oil glands in the skin

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26
Q

Sebum

A

Oily substance secreted by the sebaceous glands

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27
Q

Sudoriferous glands

A

Sweat glands (sudor=sweat; ferre=to bear)

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28
Q

Lesion

A

An area of pathologically altered tissue (primary and secondary)

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29
Q

Subcutaneous tissue

A

Connective and adipose tissue layer just under the dermis

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30
Q

Collagen

A

Protein substance found in skin and connective tissue

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31
Q

Hair

A

Outgrowth of the skin composed of keratin

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32
Q

Nail

A

Outgrowth of the skin attached to the distal end of each finger and toe, composed of keratin

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33
Q

Keratin

A

Hard protein material found in the epidermis, hair, and nails

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34
Q

Primary lesions

A

Lesions arising from previously normal skin

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35
Q

Macule (macula)

A

A flat, dis colored spot on the skin up to 1 cm across (freckle)

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36
Q

Patch

A

A flat, dis colored area on the skin larger than 1 cm (vitiligo)

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37
Q

Papule

A

A solid mass on the skin up to 0.5 cm in diameter (mole)

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38
Q

Plaque

A

A solid mass greater than 1 cm in diameter, limited to the surface of the skin

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39
Q

Nodule

A

A solid mass greater than 1 cm, which extends deeper into the epidermis

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40
Q

Tumor

A

A solid mass larger than 1-2 cm

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41
Q

Wheal

A

An area of localized skin edema (swelling) (hive)

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42
Q

Vesicle

A

Little bladder; an elevated, fluid-filled sac (blister) within or under the epidermis up to 0.5 cm in diameter

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43
Q

Bulla

A

A blister larger than 0.5 cm (2nd degree burn)

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44
Q

Pustule

A

A pus-filled sac

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45
Q

Secondary lesions

A

Lesions that result in changes in primary lesions

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46
Q

Erosion

A

To gnaw away; loss of superficial epidermis leaving an area of moisture but no bleeding

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47
Q

Ulcer

A

An open sore on the skin or mucous membrane that can bleed and scar and is sometimes accompanied by infection

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48
Q

Excoriation

A

A scratch mark

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49
Q

Fissure

A

A linear crack in the skin

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50
Q

Scale

A

A thin flake of exfoliated epidermis

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51
Q

Crust

A

Dried residue of serum (body liquid), pus, or blood on the skin

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52
Q

Cicatrix of the skin

A

A mark left by the healing of a sore or wound showing the replacement of destroyed tissue by fibrous tissue

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53
Q

Keloid

A

An abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue that is thick and irregular

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54
Q

Vascular lesions

A

Lesions of a blood vessel

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55
Q

Cherry angioma

A

A small, round, bright-red blood vessel tumor on the skin, often on the trunk of the elderly

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56
Q

Telangiectasia

Spider angioma

A

A tiny, red blood vessel lesion formed by the dilation of a group of blood vessels radiating from a central arteriole, most commonly seen on the face, neck, or chest

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57
Q

Purpuric lesions

A

Purpura; lesions as a result of hemorrhages into the skin

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58
Q

Petechia

A

Spot; a reddish-brown, minute hemorrhagic spot on the skin that indicates a bleeding tendency–small purpura

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59
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Bruise; a black and blue mark-large purpura

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60
Q

Epidermal tumors

A

Skin tumors arising from the epidermis

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61
Q

Nevus

A

A congenital malformation on the skin that can be epidermal or vascular–also called a mole

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62
Q

Dysplastic Nevus

A

A mole with precancerous changes

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63
Q

Verruca

A

An epidermal tumor caused by a papilloma virus–also called a wart

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64
Q

Alopecia

A

Baldness; natural or unnatural deficiency of hair

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65
Q

Comedo

A

A plug of sebum (oil) within the opening of a hair follicle

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66
Q

Closed comedo (whitehead)

A

Below the skin surface with a white center

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67
Q

Open comedo (blackhead)

A

Open to the skin surface with a black center caused by the presence of melanin exposed to air

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68
Q

Eruption

A

Appearance of a skin lesion

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69
Q

Erythema

A

Redness of skin

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70
Q

Pruritus

A

Severe itching

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71
Q

Rash

A

A general term for skin eruption, most often associated with communicable disease

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72
Q

Skin pigmentation

A

Skin color due to the presence of melanin

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73
Q

Depigmentation

A

Loss of melanin pigment in the skin

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74
Q

Hypopigmentation

A

Areas of skin lacking color due to deficient amounts of melanin

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75
Q

Hyperpigmentation

A

Darkened areas of skin caused by excessive amounts of melanin

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76
Q

Suppuration

A

Production of purulent matter (pus)

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77
Q

Urticaria

A

Hives; an eruption of wheals on the skin accompanied by itch

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78
Q

Xeroderma

A

Dry skin

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79
Q

Acne

A

An inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin evidenced by comedones, pustules, or nodules on the skin

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80
Q

Albinism

A

A hereditary condition characterized by a partial or total lack of melanin pigment

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81
Q

Burn

A

Any injury to body tissue caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, radiation, or gases

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82
Q

First-degree burn

A

A burn involving only the epidermis (erythema, and hyperesthesia)

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83
Q

2nd-degree burn

A

A burn involving the epidermis and the dermis (redness, excessive sensation, as well as vesications (blisters))

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84
Q

3rd-degree burn

A

A burn involving all layers of the skin, characterized by destruction of the epidermis, and dermis with damage or destruction of the subcutaneous tissue

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85
Q

Cellulitis

A

An acute inflammation of subcutaneous tissue resulting from a bacterial invasion through a break in the skin

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86
Q

Dermatitis (eczema)

A

An inflammation of the skin characterized by redness, Pruritus, and various lesions

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87
Q

Atopic dermatitis

A

A chronic skin inflammation characterized by the appearance of inflamed, swollen papules and vesicles that crust and scale, with severe itching and burning

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88
Q

Contact dermatitis

A

An inflammation of the skin resulting from contact with a substance to which one is allergic

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89
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

Redness of the skin covered by a yellow, oily, itchy scale most commonly at the hairline, forehead, and around the nose, ears, or eyelashes and developing at any age; referred to as “cradle cap” in infants

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90
Q

Dermatosis

A

Any disorder of the skin

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91
Q

Exanthematous viral disease

A

Eruption of the skin caused by a viral disease

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92
Q

Rubella

A

Reddish; German measles

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93
Q

Rubeola

A

Reddish; 14-day measles

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94
Q

Varicella

A

A tiny spot; chickenpox

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95
Q

Eczema

A

To boil out; the term is often used interchangeably with dermatitis to denote a skin conditions characterized by the appearance of inflamed, swollen papules and vesicles that crust and scale, often with itching and burning

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96
Q

Furuncle

A

A boil; a painful nodule formed in the skin by inflammation originating in a hair follicle-caused by staphylococcosis

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97
Q

Carbuncle

A

A skin infection consisting of clusters of furuncles

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98
Q

Abscess

A

A localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by the inflammation of surrounding tissues that heals when drained or excised

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99
Q

Gangrene

A

An eating sore; death of tissue associated with a loss of blood supply resulting from trauma or an inflammatory or infectious process such as seen in complications of frostbite, severe burns, and conditions that affect circulation

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100
Q

Herpes simplex virus type 1

A

Transient viral vesicles that infect the facial area, especially the mouth and nose

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101
Q

herpes simplex virus type 2

A

Sexually transmitted ulcer-like lesions of the genital and anorectal skin and mucosa

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102
Q

Herpes zoster

A

A viral disease affecting the peripheral nerves characterized by painful blisters that spread over the skin following the affected nerves; unilateral–shingles

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103
Q

Ichthyosis

A

A skin condition caused by a gene defect that results in dry, thick, scaly skin

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104
Q

Impetigo

A

Highly contagious; bacterial skin inflammation marked by pustules that rupture and become crusted–most often occurs around the mouth and nostrils

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105
Q

Keratoses

A

Thickened areas of epidermis

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106
Q

Actinic/solar kertatoses

A

Localized thickening of the skin caused by excessive exposure to sunlight; a known precursor to cancer

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107
Q

Seborrheic keratoses

A

Benign wart-like lesions

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108
Q

Lupus

A

A chronic autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of various parts of the body

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109
Q

Cutaneous lupus

A

Limited to the skin; evidenced by a characteristic rash especially on the face, neck, and scalp

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110
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

A more severe form of lupus involving the skin, joints, and often the vital organs

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111
Q

Malignant cutaneous neoplasm

A

Skin cancer

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112
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A

A malignant tumor of squamous epithelium

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113
Q

Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

A

A malignant tumor of the basal layer of the epidermis

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114
Q

Malignant melanoma

A

A malignant tumor composed of melanocytes-most develop from a pigmented Nevus over time

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115
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

A malignant tumor of the walls of blood vessels appearing as painless, dark bluish-purple plaques on the skin; often spreads to lymph nodes and internal organs

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116
Q

Onychia

A

Inflammation of the fingernail or toenail

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117
Q

Paronychia

A

Inflammation of the nail fold

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118
Q

Pediculosis

A

Infestation with lice that causes itching and dermatitis

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119
Q

Pediculosis capitis

A

Head lice

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120
Q

Pediculosis pubis

A

Lice that generally infect the pubic region “crabs”

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121
Q

Psoriasis

A

An itching; a chronic, recurrent skin disease marked by silver-gray scales covering red patches on the skin

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122
Q

Scabies

A

A contagious disease caused by a parasite (mite) that invades the skin, causing an intense itch

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123
Q

Seborrhea

A

A skin condition marked by the hypersecretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

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124
Q

Tinea

A

A group of fungal skin diseases identified by the body part that is affected, including tinea corporis (body), commonly called ringworm and tinea pedis (foot), aka athletes foot

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125
Q

Vitiligo

A

A condition caused by the destruction of melanin that results in the appearance of white patches on the skin, commonly the face, hands, legs, and genital areas

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126
Q

Culture and sensitivity (C&S)

A

A technique of isolating and growing colonies of microorganisms to identify a pathogen and to determine which drugs might be effective in combating the infection it has caused

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127
Q

Frozen section (FS)

A

A surgical method involving cutting a thin piece of tissue from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination

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128
Q

Skin tests

A

Methods for determining the reaction of the body to a given substance by applying it to, or injecting it into the skin–tx allergies

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129
Q

Scratch test

A

The substance is applied to the skin through a scratch

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130
Q

Patch test

A

The substance is applied topically to the skin on a small piece of blotting paper or wet cloth

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131
Q

Chemosurgery (chemical peel)

A

A technique for restoring wrinkled, scarred, or blemished skin by application of an acid solution to “peel” away the top layers of the skin

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132
Q

Cryosurgery

A

Destruction of tissue by freezing- involves application of an extremely cold chemical

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133
Q

Dermabrasion

A

Surgical removal of frozen epidermis using wire brushes and emery papers to remove scars, tattoos, and/or wrinkles

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134
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of dead tissue from a wound or burn site to promote healing and prevent infection

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135
Q

Curettage

A

To clean; scraping of a wound using a spoon-like cutting instrument called a curette

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136
Q

Electro surgical procedures

A

Use of electric currents to destroy tissue-the type and strength of the current and method varies

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137
Q

Electrocautery

A

Use of an instrument heated by electric current to coagulate bleeding areas by burning the tissue

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138
Q

Electrodesiccation

A

Use of short, high-frequency, electric currents to destroy tissue by drying-the active electrode makes direct contact w/ the skin lesion

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139
Q

Fulguration

A

To lighten; use of long, high-frequency, electric sparks to destroy tissue

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140
Q

Incision and drainage (I&D)

A

Incision and drainage of an infected skin lesion

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141
Q

Laser surgery

A

Surgery using a laser in various dermatological procedures to remove lesions, scare, tattoos, etc.

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142
Q

Laser

A

An acronym for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation; an instrument that concentrates high frequencies of light into a small, extremely intense beam that is precise in depth an diameter

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143
Q

Mohs surgery

A

A technique used to excise tumors of the skin by removing fresh tissue layer by layer until a tumor-free plane is reached

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144
Q

Skin grafting

A

Transfer of skin from one body site to another to replace skin lost through burns or injury

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145
Q

Autograft

A

Transfer to a new position in the body of the same person

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146
Q

Homograft

Allograft

A

Donor transfer b/ individuals of the same species

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147
Q

Xenograft

Heterograft

A

A graft transfer from one animal species to one of another’s species

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148
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Tx of malignancies, infections, and other diseases w/ chemical agents that destroy selected cells or impair their ability to reproduce

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149
Q

Radiation therapy

A

Tx of neoplastic disease by using ionizing radiation to deter proliferation of malignant cells

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150
Q

Sclerotherapy

A

Use of sclerosing agents in treating diseases

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151
Q

Ultraviolet therapy

A

Use of ultraviolet light to promote healing of a skin lesion

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152
Q

Anesthetic

A

A drug that temporarily blocks transmission of nerve conduction to produce a loss of sensations

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153
Q

Antibiotic

A

A drug that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms

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154
Q

Antifungal

A

A drug that kills or prevents the growth of fungi

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155
Q

Antihistamine

A

A drug that blocks the effects of histamine in the body

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156
Q

Histamine

A

A regulating body substance released in excess during allergic reactions causing swelling and inflammation of tissues

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157
Q

Anti-inflammatory

A

A drug that reduces inflammation

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158
Q

Antipruritic

A

A drug that relieves itching

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159
Q

Antiseptic

A

An agent that inhibits the growth of infectious microorganisms

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160
Q

Aque/o

A

Water

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161
Q

Blephar/o

A

Eyelid

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162
Q

Conjunctiv/o

A

Conjunctiva

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163
Q

Corne/o

Kerat/o

A

Cornea

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164
Q

Cycl/o

A

Ciliary body (circle)

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165
Q

Ir/o

Irid/o

A

Iris (colored circle)

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166
Q

Lacrim/o

Dacry/o

A

Tear

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167
Q

Ocul/o

Ophthalm/o

Opt/o

A

Eye

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168
Q

Phac/o

Phak/o

A

Lens (lentil)

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169
Q

Phot/o

A

Light

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170
Q

Presby/o

A

Old age

171
Q

Retin/o

A

Retina

172
Q

Scler/o

A

Sclera (hard)

173
Q

Vitre/o

A

Glassy

174
Q

-opia

A

Condition of vision

175
Q

Anterior chamber

A

Fluid-filled space b/ the cornea and iris

176
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Water liquid secreted at the ciliary body that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye and provides nourishment for the cornea, iris, and lens

177
Q

Canal of Schlemm

A

Duct in the anterior chamber that carries filtered aqueous humor to the veins and bloodstream

178
Q

Choroid

A

Vascular layer beneath the sclera that provides nourishment to the outer portion of the retina

179
Q

Ciliary body

A

Ring of muscle behind the peripheral iris that controls the power of the lens

180
Q

Ciliary muscle

A

Smooth muscle portion of the ciliary body, which contracts to assist in near-vision capability

181
Q

Ciliary processes

A

Epithelial tissue folds on the inner surface of the ciliary body that secrete aqueous humor

182
Q

Conjunctiva

A

Joinging together; mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and outer surface of the eyeball

183
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent, anterior part of the eyeball covering the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber that functions to refract (bend) light to focus a visual image

184
Q

Eyelid (palpebra)

A

Movable protective fold that opens and closes, covering the eye

185
Q

Fovea centralis

A

Pinpoint depression in the center of the macula lutea that is the site of sharpest vision

186
Q

Fundus (base)

A

Interior surface of the eyeball including the retina, optic disk, macula, and posterior pole

187
Q

Glands of Zeis

A

Oil glands surrounding the eyelashes

188
Q

Meibomian glands

A

Oil glands located along the rim of the eyelids

189
Q

Iris

A

Colored circle; colored part of the eye located behind the cornea that contracts and dilates to regulate light passing through the pupil

190
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

Gland located in the upper outer region above the eyeball that secretes tears

191
Q

Lacrimal ducts

A

Tubes that carry tears to the lacrimal sac

192
Q

Lacrimal sac

A

Structure that collects tears before emptying into the nasolacrimal duct

193
Q

Lens

A

Transparent structure behind the pupil that bends and focuses light rays on the retina

194
Q

Lens capsule

A

Capsule that encloses the lens

195
Q

Macula lutea (macula)

A

Central region of the retina responsible for central vision; yellow pigment provides its color

196
Q

Adip/o

Lip/o

Steat/o

A

Fat

197
Q

Nasolacrimal duct

A

Passageway for tears from the lacrimal sac into the nose

198
Q

Optic disk

A

Exit site of retinal nerve fibers, as well as the entrance point for retinal arteries and the exit point for retinal veins

199
Q

Optic nerve

A

Nerve responsible for carrying impulses for the sense of sight from the retina to the brain

200
Q

Posterior chamber

A

Space b/ the back of the iris and the front of the vitreous filled with aqueous fluid

201
Q

Pupil

A

Black circular opening in the center of the iris through which light passes as it enters the eye

202
Q

Retina

A

Innermost layer that perceives and transmits light to the optic nerve

203
Q

Cones

A

Cone-shaped cells within the retina that are color sensitive and respond to bright light

204
Q

Rods

A

Rod-shaped cells within the retina that respond to dim light

205
Q

Sclera

A

Tough, fibrous, white outer coat extending from the cornea to the optic nerve

206
Q

Trabecular mesh work

A

Mesh-like structure in the anterior chamber that filters the aqueous humor as it flows into the canal of Schlemm

207
Q

Vitreous

A

Jelly-like mass filling the inner chamber b/ the lens and retina that gives bulk to the eye

208
Q

Asthenopia

A

Eyestrain

209
Q

Blepharospasm

A

Involuntary contraction of the muscles surrounding the eye, causing uncontrolled blinking and lid squeezing

210
Q

Diplopia

A

Double vision

211
Q

Exophthalmos

Exophthalmus

A

Abnormal protrusion of one or both eyeballs

212
Q

Lacrimation

A

Secretion of tears

213
Q

Nystagmus

A

Involuntary, rapid oscillating movement of the eyeball

214
Q

Photophobia

A

Extreme sensitivity to, and discomfort from light

215
Q

Scotoma

A

Blind spot in vision

216
Q

Refractive errors

A

Defects in the bending of light as it enters the eye, causing an improper focus on the retina

217
Q

Astigmatism

A

Distorted vision caused by an oblong or cylindrical curvature of the lens or cornea that prevents light rays from coming to a single focus on the retina

218
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness; difficulty seeing close objects when light rays extend beyond the proper focus on the retina

219
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness; difficulty seeing distant objects when light rays fall short of the proper focus on the retina

220
Q

Presbyopia

A

Impaired vision owing to old-age loss of accommodation

221
Q

Accommodation

A

Ability of the eye to adjust focus on near objects

222
Q

Ambylopia

A

Decreased vision in early life due to a functional defect that can occur as a result of strabismus, refractive errors (when one eye is more nearsighted, farsighted, or astigmatic than the other) or trauma; usually occurs in one eye, also known as lazy eye

223
Q

Aphakia

A

Absence of the lens, usually after cataract extraction

224
Q

Blepharitis

A

Inflammation of the eyelid

225
Q

Blepharochalasis

A

Baggy eyelid; overabundance and loss of elasticity of skin on the upper eyelid, causing a fold of skin to hang down over the edge of the eyelid when the eyes are open

226
Q

Blepharoptosis

Ptosis

A

Dropping of the eyelid usually caused by paralysis

227
Q

Chalazion

A

Chronic modular inflammation of a meibomian gland, usually the result of a blocked duct; commonly presents as a swelling on the upper or lower eyelid

228
Q

Cataract

A

Opaque clouding of the lens causing decreased vision

229
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Pinkeye; inflammation of the conjunctiva

230
Q

Dacryoadenitis

A

Inflammation of the lacrimal gland

231
Q

Dacryocystitis

A

Inflammation of the tear sac

232
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

Disease of the retina in diabetics characterized by capillary leakage, bleeding, and new vessel formation, leading to scarring and loss of vision

233
Q

Ectropion

A

Outward turning of the rim of the eyelid

234
Q

Entropion

A

Inward turning of the rim of the eyelid

235
Q

Epiphora

A

Abnormal overflow of tears caused by blockage of the lacrimal duct

236
Q

Glaucoma

A

Group of diseases of the eye characterized by increased intramural pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve, producing defects in vision

237
Q

Hordeolum

A

Sty; an acute infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid

238
Q

Iritis

A

Inflammation of the iris

239
Q

Keratitis

A

Inflammation of the cornea

240
Q

Macular degeneration

A

Breakdown or thinning of the tissues in the macula, resulting in partial or complete loss of central vision

241
Q

Pseudophakia

A

Eye in which the natural lens is replaced with an artificial lens implant

242
Q

Pterygium

A

Fibrous growth of conjunctival tissue that extends onto the cornea

243
Q

Retinal detachment

A

Separation of the retina from the underlying epithelium, disrupting vision and resulting in blindness if not repaired surgically

244
Q

Retinitis

A

Inflammation of the retina

245
Q

Strabismus

A

Crossed eyes; a condition of eye misalignment caused by intraocular muscle imbalance

246
Q

Heterotropia

Esotropia

A

Right or left eye deviates inward toward the nose

247
Q

Exotropia

A

Right or left eye deviates outward away from the nose

248
Q

Scleritis

A

Inflammation of the sclera

249
Q

Trichiasis

A

Misdirected eyelashes that rub on the conjunctiva or cornea

250
Q

Distance visual acuity

A

Measure of the ability to see the details and shape of identifiable objects from a specified distance (usually 20 ft), typically using a Snellen chart

251
Q

Fluoresceiun angiography

A

Visualization and photography of retinal and choroidal vessels made as fluorescein dye, which is injected into a vein, circulates through the eye

252
Q

Ophthalmoscopy

A

Use of an ophthalmoscope to view the interior of the eye

253
Q

Refraction

A

Measurement of refractive errors using a phoropter to determine best corrected vision and prescription for eye glasses or contact lenses

254
Q

Phoropter

A

Instrument that holds corrective lenses in front of the eye to determine optical correction

255
Q

Slit-lamp biomicroscopy

A

Use of a tabletop microscope to examine the eye, especially the cornea, lens, fluids, and membranes

256
Q

Sonography

A

Use of high-frequency sound waves to detect pathology within the eye such as foreign bodies or a detached retina

257
Q

Tonometry

A

Use of a tonometer to measure intraocular pressure, which is elevated in glaucoma

258
Q

Blepharoplasty

A

Surgical repair of an eyelid

259
Q

Cataract extraction

A

Excision of a cloudy lens from the eye

260
Q

Cryoretinopexy

A

Use of intense cold to seal a hole or tear in the retina; used to treat retinal detachment

261
Q

Dacryocystectomy

A

Excision of a lacrimal sac

262
Q

Enucleation

A

Excision of an eyeball

263
Q

Iridectomy

A

Excision of a portion of iris tissue

264
Q

Iridotomy

A

Incision into the iris to allow for drainage of aqueous humor from the posterior to anterior chamber; used to treat a type of glaucoma

265
Q

Keratoplasty

A

Corneal transplant; replacement of a diseased or scarred cornea with a healthy one from a matched donor

266
Q

Laser surgery

A

Use of a laser to make incisions or destroy tissues

267
Q

Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

A

Technique using the excimer laser to reshape the surface of the cornea to correct refractive errors such as mypoia, hyperopia, and astigmatism

268
Q

Intraocular lens (IOL) implant

A

Implantation of an artificial lens to replace a defective natural lens

269
Q

Phacoemulsification

A

Use of ultrasound to shatter and break up a cataract w/ aspiration and removal

270
Q

Scleral buckling

A

Surgery to treat retinal detachment by placing a band of silicone around the sclera to cinch it toward the middle of the eye and relieve pull on the retina-often combined w/ other techniques to seal retinal tears such as cryoretinopexy

271
Q

Trabeculectomy

A

Removal of a portion of the trabecular meshwork to increase the flow of aqueous humor from the eye; used in tx of acute glaucoma or glaucoma not treatable with medication

272
Q

Contact lens

A

Small plastic curved disk w/ optical correction that fits over the cornea; used to correct refractive errors

273
Q

Eye instillation

A

Intro of a medicated solution in the eye

274
Q

Eye irrigation

A

Washing of the eye with water or other fluid

275
Q

Antibiotic ophthalmic solution

A

Anti microbial agent in solution, used to treat bacterial infections

276
Q

Cycloplegic

A

Agent that paralyzed the ciliary muscle and powers of accommodation; commonly used in pediatric eye exams

277
Q

Mydriatic (dilation of pupil)

A

Agent that causes dilation of the pupil

278
Q

Miotic

A

Agent that causes the pupil to contract

279
Q

Acous/o

Audi/o

A

Hearing

280
Q

Aer/o

A

Air or gas

281
Q

Aur/i

Ot/o

A

Ear

282
Q

Cerumin/o

A

Wax

283
Q

Salping/o

A

Eustachian tube or uterine tube

284
Q

Tympan/o

Myring/o

A

Eardrum

285
Q

-acusis

A

Hearing condition

286
Q

External ear/ pinna

A

Auricle(little ear); projected part of the external ear

287
Q

External auditory meatus

A

External passage for sounds collected from the pinna to the tympanum

288
Q

External ear; Cerumen

A

Waxy substance secreted by glands located throughout the external canal

289
Q

Middle ear: Tympanic Membrane (TM)

A

Eardrum; drum-like structure that receives sound collected in the external auditory meatus (canal) and amplifies it through the middle ear

290
Q

Middle Ear: malleus

A

Hammer; first of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

291
Q

Incus

A

Anvil; middle of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

292
Q

Stapes

A

Stirrup; last of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

293
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Tube connecting the middle ear to the pharynx (throat)

294
Q

Mastoid process

A

Projection of the temporal bone located behind the ear containing air cells that connect to the middle ear

295
Q

Oval window

A

Membrane that covers the opening b/ the middle ear and inner ear

296
Q

Inner ear

A

Structures and liquids that relay sound waves to the auditory nerve fibers on a path to the brain for interpretation of sound

297
Q

Labyrinth

A

Maze; inner ear consisting of bony and membranous labyrinths

298
Q

Cochlea

A

Coiled tubular structure of the inner ear that contains the organ of Corti

299
Q

Perilymph

A

Fluid that fills the bony labyrinth of the ear

300
Q

Endolymph

A

Fluid within the cochlear duct of the inner ear

301
Q

Organ of Corti

A

Organ located in the cochlea that contains receptors (hair cells) that receive vibrations and generate nerve impulses for hearing

302
Q

Vestibule

A

Middle part of the inner ear in front of the semicircular canals and behind the cochlea that contains the utricle and saccule

303
Q

Utricle

A

Larger of 2 sacs within the membranous labyrinth of the vestibule in the inner ear

304
Q

Saccule

A

Smaller of two sacs within the membranous labyrinth of the vestibule in the inner ear

305
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Three canals within the inner ear that contain specialized receptor cells that generates nerve impulses with body movement

306
Q

Otalgia

Otodynia

A

Earache

307
Q

Otorrhagia

A

Bleeding from the ear

308
Q

Otorrhea

A

Purulent drainage from the ear

309
Q

Tinnitus

A

A jingling; ringing or buzzing in the ear

310
Q

Vertigo

A

A turning round; dizziness

311
Q

Otitis externa

A

Inflammation of the external auditory meatus

312
Q

Cerumen impaction

A

Excessive buildup of wax in the ear

313
Q

Myringitis

Tympanitis

A

Inflammation of the eardrum

314
Q

Otitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear

315
Q

Aerotitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear from changes in atmospheric pressure; often occurs in frequent air travel

316
Q

Otosclerosis

A

Hardening of the bony tissue in the ear

317
Q

Mastoiditis

A

Inflammation of the mastoid process; most commonly seen as a result of the spread of inflammation and infection in otitis media

318
Q

Acoustic neuroma

A

Benign tumor on the auditory nerve that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss

319
Q

Aplasia

A

Condition of absence or malformation of inner ear structures during embryonic development, resulting in hearing loss

320
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

Inflammation of the labyrinth

321
Q

Menière disease

A

Disorder of the inner ear due to an excessive buildup of endolymphatic fluid causing episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss; one or both ears can be affected, and attacks vary in frequency and intensity

322
Q

Deafness

A

General term for partial or complete hearing loss

323
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Hearing impairment caused by interference with sound or vibratory energy in the external canal, middle ear, or ossicles

324
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

Hearing impairment caused by lesions or dysfunction of the cochlea or auditory nerve

325
Q

Mixed hearing loss

A

Combo of sensorineural and conductive hearing loss

326
Q

Presbyacusis

Presbycusis

A

Hearing impairment in old age

327
Q

Audiometry

A

Process of measuring hearing

328
Q

Audiometer

A

Instrument to measure hearing

329
Q

Audio gram

A

Record of hearing measurement

330
Q

Audiologist

A

Person who specializes in the study of hearing impairments

331
Q

Auditory acuity testing

A

Physical assessment of hearing; useful in differentiating b/ conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

332
Q

Tuning fork

A

Two-pronged, fork-like instrument that vibrates when struck; used to test for hearing, especially bone conduction

333
Q

Brainstem auditory evoke potentials (BAEP)

A

Electro diagnostic testing using computerized equipment to measure involuntary responses to sound within the auditory nervous system-commonly used to assess hearing in newborns

334
Q

Otoscopy

A

Use of an otoscope to examine the external auditory meatus (canal) and tympanic membrane

335
Q

Pneumatic otoscopy

A

Otoscopic observation of the tympanic membrane as air is released into the external auditory meatus; immobility indicates the presence of middles ear effusion (fluid buildup) as occurs as a result of otitis media

336
Q

Tympanometry

A

Measurement of the compliance and mobility of the tympanic membrane and ossicles of the middle ear by monitoring the response after exposure to external airflow pressures

337
Q

Microsurgery

A

Surgery w/ the use of a microscope; used in procedures involving delicate tissue such as the ear

338
Q

Myringotomy

Tympanostomy

A

Incision into the eardrum, most often for insertion of a small metal or plastic tube to keep the meatus open, avoiding fluid buildup as that which occurs as a result of otitis media

339
Q

Otoplasty

A

Surgical repair of the external ear

340
Q

Stapedectomy

A

Excision of the stapes to correct otosclerosis

341
Q

Tympanoplasty

A

Vein graft of a scarred tympanic membrane to improve sound conduction

342
Q

Auditory prosthesis

A

Any internal or external device that improves or substitutes for natural hearing

343
Q

Hearing aid

A

External amplifying device designed to improve hearing by more effective collection of sound into the ear

344
Q

Cochlear implant

A

Electronic device implanted in the cochlea that provides sound perception to pts w/ severe or profound sensorineural hearing loss in both ears

345
Q

Ear lavage

A

Irrigation of the external ear canal, commonly done to remove excessive buildup of cerumen

346
Q

Ear instillation

A

Intro of a medicated solution into the external canal

347
Q

Antibiotic

A

Drug that inhibits the growth of or destroys microorganisms; used to tx diseases caused by bacteria

348
Q

Antihistamine

A

Drug that blocks the effects of histamine

349
Q

Histamine

A

Regulation body substance released in excess during allergic rxns that cause swelling and inflammation of tissues; seen in hay fever, urticaria (hives)

350
Q

Anti-inflammatory

A

Drug that reduces inflammation

351
Q

Decongestant

A

Drug that reduces congestion and swelling of membranes, such as those of the nose and Eustachian tube after infection

352
Q

Acous/o

Audi/o

A

Hearing

353
Q

Aer/o

A

Air or gas

354
Q

Aur/i

Ot/o

A

Ear

355
Q

Cerumin/o

A

Wax

356
Q

Salping/o

A

Eustachian tube or uterine tube

357
Q

Tympan/o

Myring/o

A

Eardrum

358
Q

-acusis

A

Hearing condition

359
Q

External ear/ pinna

A

Auricle(little ear); projected part of the external ear

360
Q

External auditory meatus

A

External passage for sounds collected from the pinna to the tympanum

361
Q

External ear; Cerumen

A

Waxy substance secreted by glands located throughout the external canal

362
Q

Middle ear: Tympanic Membrane (TM)

A

Eardrum; drum-like structure that receives sound collected in the external auditory meatus (canal) and amplifies it through the middle ear

363
Q

Middle Ear: malleus

A

Hammer; first of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

364
Q

Incus

A

Anvil; middle of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

365
Q

Stapes

A

Stirrup; last of the 3 auditory ossicles of the middle ear

366
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Tube connecting the middle ear to the pharynx (throat)

367
Q

Mastoid process

A

Projection of the temporal bone located behind the ear containing air cells that connect to the middle ear

368
Q

Oval window

A

Membrane that covers the opening b/ the middle ear and inner ear

369
Q

Inner ear

A

Structures and liquids that relay sound waves to the auditory nerve fibers on a path to the brain for interpretation of sound

370
Q

Labyrinth

A

Maze; inner ear consisting of bony and membranous labyrinths

371
Q

Cochlea

A

Coiled tubular structure of the inner ear that contains the organ of Corti

372
Q

Perilymph

A

Fluid that fills the bony labyrinth of the ear

373
Q

Endolymph

A

Fluid within the cochlear duct of the inner ear

374
Q

Organ of Corti

A

Organ located in the cochlea that contains receptors (hair cells) that receive vibrations and generate nerve impulses for hearing

375
Q

Vestibule

A

Middle part of the inner ear in front of the semicircular canals and behind the cochlea that contains the utricle and saccule

376
Q

Utricle

A

Larger of 2 sacs within the membranous labyrinth of the vestibule in the inner ear

377
Q

Saccule

A

Smaller of two sacs within the membranous labyrinth of the vestibule in the inner ear

378
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Three canals within the inner ear that contain specialized receptor cells that generates nerve impulses with body movement

379
Q

Otalgia

Otodynia

A

Earache

380
Q

Otorrhagia

A

Bleeding from the ear

381
Q

Otorrhea

A

Purulent drainage from the ear

382
Q

Tinnitus

A

A jingling; ringing or buzzing in the ear

383
Q

Vertigo

A

A turning round; dizziness

384
Q

Otitis externa

A

Inflammation of the external auditory meatus

385
Q

Cerumen impaction

A

Excessive buildup of wax in the ear

386
Q

Myringitis

Tympanitis

A

Inflammation of the eardrum

387
Q

Otitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear

388
Q

Aerotitis media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear from changes in atmospheric pressure; often occurs in frequent air travel

389
Q

Otosclerosis

A

Hardening of the bony tissue in the ear

390
Q

Mastoiditis

A

Inflammation of the mastoid process; most commonly seen as a result of the spread of inflammation and infection in otitis media

391
Q

Acoustic neuroma

A

Benign tumor on the auditory nerve that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss

392
Q

Aplasia

A

Condition of absence or malformation of inner ear structures during embryonic development, resulting in hearing loss

393
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

Inflammation of the labyrinth

394
Q

Menière disease

A

Disorder of the inner ear due to an excessive buildup of endolymphatic fluid causing episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss; one or both ears can be affected, and attacks vary in frequency and intensity

395
Q

Deafness

A

General term for partial or complete hearing loss

396
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Hearing impairment caused by interference with sound or vibratory energy in the external canal, middle ear, or ossicles

397
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

Hearing impairment caused by lesions or dysfunction of the cochlea or auditory nerve

398
Q

Mixed hearing loss

A

Combo of sensorineural and conductive hearing loss

399
Q

Presbyacusis

Presbycusis

A

Hearing impairment in old age

400
Q

Audiometry

A

Process of measuring hearing

401
Q

Audiometer

A

Instrument to measure hearing

402
Q

Audio gram

A

Record of hearing measurement

403
Q

Audiologist

A

Person who specializes in the study of hearing impairments

404
Q

Auditory acuity testing

A

Physical assessment of hearing; useful in differentiating b/ conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

405
Q

Tuning fork

A

Two-pronged, fork-like instrument that vibrates when struck; used to test for hearing, especially bone conduction

406
Q

Brainstem auditory evoke potentials (BAEP)

A

Electro diagnostic testing using computerized equipment to measure involuntary responses to sound within the auditory nervous system-commonly used to assess hearing in newborns

407
Q

Otoscopy

A

Use of an otoscope to examine the external auditory meatus (canal) and tympanic membrane

408
Q

Pneumatic otoscopy

A

Otoscopic observation of the tympanic membrane as air is released into the external auditory meatus; immobility indicates the presence of middles ear effusion (fluid buildup) as occurs as a result of otitis media

409
Q

Tympanometry

A

Measurement of the compliance and mobility of the tympanic membrane and ossicles of the middle ear by monitoring the response after exposure to external airflow pressures

410
Q

Microsurgery

A

Surgery w/ the use of a microscope; used in procedures involving delicate tissue such as the ear

411
Q

Myringotomy

Tympanostomy

A

Incision into the eardrum, most often for insertion of a small metal or plastic tube to keep the meatus open, avoiding fluid buildup as that which occurs as a result of otitis media

412
Q

Otoplasty

A

Surgical repair of the external ear

413
Q

Stapedectomy

A

Excision of the stapes to correct otosclerosis

414
Q

Tympanoplasty

A

Vein graft of a scarred tympanic membrane to improve sound conduction

415
Q

Auditory prosthesis

A

Any internal or external device that improves or substitutes for natural hearing

416
Q

Hearing aid

A

External amplifying device designed to improve hearing by more effective collection of sound into the ear

417
Q

Cochlear implant

A

Electronic device implanted in the cochlea that provides sound perception to pts w/ severe or profound sensorineural hearing loss in both ears

418
Q

Ear lavage

A

Irrigation of the external ear canal, commonly done to remove excessive buildup of cerumen

419
Q

Ear instillation

A

Intro of a medicated solution into the external canal

420
Q

Antibiotic

A

Drug that inhibits the growth of or destroys microorganisms; used to tx diseases caused by bacteria

421
Q

Antihistamine

A

Drug that blocks the effects of histamine

422
Q

Histamine

A

Regulation body substance released in excess during allergic rxns that cause swelling and inflammation of tissues; seen in hay fever, urticaria (hives)

423
Q

Anti-inflammatory

A

Drug that reduces inflammation

424
Q

Decongestant

A

Drug that reduces congestion and swelling of membranes, such as those of the nose and Eustachian tube after infection

Medical Terminology (8 decks)

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