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Oral Pathology - My deck > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When does central face development occur?

A

Begins at 4 weeks

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2
Q

When does upper lip formation occur?

A

Between weeks 6-7

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3
Q

What structures fuse to forms the upper lip?

A

Medial nasal processes merge with each other as well as the maxillary processes of the 1st branchial arch

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4
Q

What structures fuse to from the primary palate?

A

The medial nasal processes

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5
Q

What structures fuse to form the secondary palate?

A

The maxillary processes – makes up 90% of the hard and soft palate

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6
Q

What is cleft lip?

A

A failure of fusion of the medial nasal process with the maxillary process

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7
Q

Is cleft lip more commonly unilateral or bilateral?

A

80% are unilateral

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8
Q

When can cleft lip be treated?

A

Rule of 10 – 10 weeks, 10 pounds, 10% hemoglobin

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9
Q

What is cleft palate?

A

Failure of the palatal shelves to fuse

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10
Q

What is the minimal manifestation of a cleft palate?

A

A bifid uvula

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11
Q

Is cleft palate more common to present alone or with cleft lip?

A

45% of developmental cases are cleft lip and cleft palate. This is more common in males!

50% of patients with syndromic cleft palate have only cleft palate. This is more common in females!

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12
Q

What syndrome is associated with cleft palate and what are its characteristics?

A

Pierre Robin Sequence

Cleft palate, mandibular micrognathia, glossoptosis

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13
Q

What are nonsyndromic factors that are associated with orofacial clefts?

A

Maternal alcohol or cigarette use, folic acid deficiency, anticonvulsant therapy

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14
Q

In what racial groups are orofacial clefts most common?

A

Native Americans = 1 in 250
Asians = 1 in 300
Caucasians = 1 in 700
African Americans = 1 in 1500

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15
Q

What term describes when the surface of a palatal cleft is still intact?

A

Submucous palatal cleft

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16
Q

What term describes mucosal invaginations that occur at the corners of the mouth on the vermillion border?

A

Commissural lip pits – NOT associated with facial or palatal clefts

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17
Q

What term describes mucosal invaginations of the lower lip and are usually bilateral?

A

Paramedian lip pits – evaluate for syndrome

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18
Q

What syndrome is associated with paramedian lip pits and what are its characteristics?

A

Van der Woude syndrome

Autosomal Dominant, Cleft lip and Cleft palate, Paramedian lip pits

*This is also the most common form of syndromic clefting CL+CP

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19
Q

What term describes a redundant fold of tissue on the mucosal side of the lip?

A

Double lip

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20
Q

What syndrome is associated with double lip and what are its characteristics?

A

Ascher syndrome

Double lip (usually acquired from fluid retention), blepharochalasis, nontoxic thyroid enlargement

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21
Q

What term describes “ectopic” sebaceous glands?

A

Fordyce Granules (these are a variation of normal)

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22
Q

When do Fordyce Granules appear and where do they usually occur?

A

Appear around puberty, and occur on the buccal mucosa and lateralportionof the vermillion upper lip

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23
Q

What term describes a diffuse, gray-white lesions found bilaterally on the buccal mucosa that do not wipe off and disappear when the tissue is stretched?

A

Leukoedema (this is a variation of normal)

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24
Q

In what population is leukoedema most common?

A

African American adults (90%) and children (50%)

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25
Q

True or False: Microglossia is usually syndromic,

A

True, the syndromes usally have asscoiated limb features such as hypodactlyly or hypomelia

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26
Q

What 3 things frequently cause macroglossia?

A

Vascular malformations, muscular hypertrophy (down’s syndrome), tumors

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27
Q

What syndrome is associated with macroglossia due to tumors?

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

Patients have increased risk for several childhood tumors (macroglossia, and hemihyperplasia)

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28
Q

What term describes a developmental tongue abnormality characterized by a short, thick lingual frenum resulting in limitation of tongue movement?

A

Ankyloglossia

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29
Q

Where does a lingual thryoid occur? (Between what structures)

A

Between the foramen cecum and the epiglottis

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30
Q

Are males or females more likely to have lingual thryoids?

A

Females

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31
Q

What are some symptoms of lingual thyroid and when do they occur?

A

Dysphagia, dystonia, dyspnea and they arise during puberty

ALso hypothyroidisn because it is usually the patients only functioning thryoid tissue

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32
Q

How can the presence of lingual thyroid be confirmed/dx?

A

Through a thryoid scan using iodine isotopes or technitium-99m, CT or MRI

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33
Q

Why should biopsy be avoided in patients with lingual thryoid?

A

Because of risk of hemorrhage and it may be the patients only functioning thyroid tissue

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34
Q

What syndrome is associated with fissured tongue?

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome

Also has cheilitis granulomatosa, and facial paralysis

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35
Q

What other condition is fissured tongue strongly associated with?

A

Geographic tongue

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36
Q

What are two other names for geopgraphic tongue?

A

Benign migratory glossitis and erythema migrans

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37
Q

What is geographic tongue and who does it usually affect?

A

A common inflammatory condition that affects females more often than males

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38
Q

What term describes a marked accumulation of keratin of the filiform papilla of the tongue?

A

Hairy tongue

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39
Q

What might be associated with causing hairy tongue?

A

heavy smoking, poor oral hygiene, abx, radiation therapy

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40
Q

What term describes superficial dilated veins and where do they commonly occur?

A

Varicosities (or varices), they occur on the ventral and lateral tongue

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41
Q

What term describes a calcification within a varix?

A

phlebolith

It will feel like a bb

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42
Q

What term describes a large superficial artery and where do they commonly occur?

A

Caliber persistent artery, they almost exclusively occur on the lip mucosa

Can feel a pulsation

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43
Q

What way will the mandible deviate in coronoid hyperplasia?

A

Toward the affected side, and will see on opening

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44
Q

What way will the mandible deviate in condylar hyperplasia?

A

Toward the opposite side, and should see when closed (and opened)

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45
Q

Name the 5 types of localized bony protuberances

A

Torus palatinus, torus mandibularis, buccal exostoses, palatal exostoses, solitary exostoses

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46
Q

What are the two different terms that describes a focal concavity of the cortical bone in the lingual surface of the mandible?

A

Stafne defect aka lingual mandibular salivary gland depression

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47
Q

What are the 3 different terms that describe calcification of the stylohyoid ligament?

A

Eagle’s syndrome, Stylohyoid syndrome, carotid artery syndrome

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48
Q

What are some symptoms of Eagle’s syndrome and when do they “classically occur”?

A

Vague facial pain while swallowing, turning the head, or opening the mouth, dysphagia, dysphonia, headache, dizziness

They occur after a tonsillectomy

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49
Q

What are the 2 cysts of the newborn, what are they likely from and where do they occur?

A

Epstein’s pearls – median palatal raphe
Bohn’s nodules – usually near junction of hard and soft palate

Remnants of epithelium

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50
Q

What term describes a swelling of the upper lip that results in elevation of the ala of the nose, who is most commonly affected by this, and what is the treatment ?

A

Nasolabial cyst, females between 30-50, requires surgical removal

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51
Q

What two different terms describe the most common non-odontogenic cyst of the oral cavity and when should it be removed?

A

Nasopalatine duct cyst aka incisive canal cyst
Biopsy is mandatory b/c it cannot be dx radiogrpahically
IF greater than 6 mm or there is pain, swelling or drainage

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52
Q

What term describes the soft tissue counterpart of the nasopalatine duct cyst?

A

Cyst of the incisive papilla

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53
Q

How are epidermoid and dermod cysts different?

A

Dermoid cysts contain dermal adnexal structures in the cyst wall and occur in the FOM, epidermoid cysts are like large pimples that occur in acne prone areas like the back, head and neck

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54
Q

What term describes a cyst that develops from remnants of the thyroglossal tract and where does it usually occur?

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

Swelling near midline, usually inferior to hyiod bone

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55
Q

What term describes a cyst that develops within oral lymphoid tissue and where does it usually occur?

A

Lymphoepithelial cyst

FOM is most common, but can be ventral tongue or soft palate

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56
Q

What are two different names for a cyst that occurs in the upper lateral neck along the anterior border of the SCM?

A

Branchial cleft cyst aka cervival lymphoepithelial cyst

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57
Q

What term describes assymetric overgrowth of one or more body parts?

A

Hemihyperplasia

beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

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58
Q

What term describes atrophy affecting one side of the face and what might be the cause?

A

Progressive hemifacial atrophy, and borelia infection (lyme diseas) might be the cause

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59
Q

What term describes painless, unilateral enlargement of the maxillary bone?

A

Segmental odonotmaxillary dysplasia

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60
Q

What is Crouzon syndrome?

A

It is a type of craniofacial dysostosis, characterized by cranisynostosis –> abnormal shaped heads, ocular proptosis, underdeveloped maxilla, and a beaten metal pattern in the skull in radiographs

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61
Q

What is Apert syndrome?

A

Ocular proptosis, hypertelorism, downward slant of lateral palpebral fissures, syndactyly and mental retardation

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62
Q

What is treacher-collins syndrome?

A

Defects of structures derived from the 1st and 2nd branchial arches
Characteristics are hypoplastic zygoma, coloboma and underdeveloped mandible

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63
Q

What factors can result in defects in enamel?

A

Birth related trauma, chemicals, radiation therapy, infections, malnutrition, and metabolic and neurologic disorders

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64
Q

What term describes enamel defects in permanent teeth caused by periapical inflammation of the overlying deciduous tooth? What tooth is most commonly affected?

A

Turner’s hypoplasia (turner’s tooth)

Commonly seen in permanent bicuspids because of overlying deciduous molars

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65
Q

What is dental fluorosis caused by?

A

excess amounts of fluoride, just aesthetic concerns

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66
Q

What are Hutchinson’s incisors and mulberry molars and what are they caused by?

A

Anterior teeth that look like straight edged screwdrivers
Berry looking molars
Caused by congenital syphillis

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67
Q

What is attrition?

A

loss of tooth structures caused by tooth-tooth contact

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68
Q

What is abrasion?

A

pathologic wearing away of tooth structure (like tooth brushing)

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69
Q

What is demastication?

A

loss of tooth structure exhibiting features of both attrition and abrasion

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70
Q

What is erosion/corrosion?

A

loss of tooth structure caused by nonbacterial chemical processes

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71
Q

What is perimolysis?

A

Erosion from dental exposure to gastric secretions

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72
Q

What is abfraction?

A

Loss of tooth structure from occlusal stresses that create repeated tooth flexure

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73
Q

What is oligodontia?

A

Lack of 6 or more teeth

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74
Q

What teeth are most likely congenitally missing?

A

3rd molars, then 2nd premolars and lateral incisors

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75
Q

What is the most common site of a supernumerary tooth?

A

Maxillary incisor region (mesiodens)

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76
Q

What is gemination?

A

single enlarged tooth

Count is normal when abnormal tooth is counted as one

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77
Q

What is fusion?

A

single enlarged tooth

Count reveals a missing tooth when the abnormal tooth is counted as one

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78
Q

What is concrescence?

A

Union of two adjacent teeth by cementum alone wihhout dentin

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79
Q

What tooth does dens evaginatus typically occur on and who does it commonly affect?

A

Premolar teeth in the mandible, usually bilateral

Native Americans, Inuit, Asians

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80
Q

What tooth are most commonly affected by dens-in-dente/dens invaginatus?

A

Permanent maxillary lateral incisors

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81
Q

What term describes ectopic enamel?

A

Enamel pearl

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82
Q

What term describes an enlargement of the pulp chamber of a multirooted tooth and what 3 things is this associated with?

A

Taurodontism

Kleinfelter’s syndrome
Amelogenesis imperfecta
Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome

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83
Q

What is tricho-dento-osseous syndrome?

A

Taurodontism, kinky hair, osteosclerosis, brittle nails

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84
Q

What is disease is strongly associated with generalized hypercementosis?

A

Paget’s disease of bone

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85
Q

What is amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

developmental alteration in the structure of enamel (both permanent and deciduous) in the absence of systemic disorder

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86
Q

What are the types of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

Hypoplastic - inadequate depostion of enamel matrix = pinpoint
Hypocalcified – enamel does not mineralize properly = soft enamel is lost so see dentin and its brown
Hypomaturation – enamel doesn’t mature properly = brown or snowcapped crowns

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87
Q

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta and what is it caused by?

A

Hereditary developmental disturbance of dentin in the absence of any systemic disorder

Caused by a mutation in dentin sialophosphoprotein (DSPP) gene

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88
Q

What term describes dentinogenesis imperfecta in the presence of osteogenesis imperfecta? What is the defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta with opalescent teeth

Also have blue sclera
Mutation of COL1A1 or COL1A2

Defect in Type 1 collagen maturation

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89
Q

What is the clinical and radiographic presentation of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue-to-brown discoloration and translucency
Bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, thin roots, obliteration of root canals and pulp chambers!
Shell teeth in deciduous teeth

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90
Q

What are the two major patterns of dentin dysplasia?

A

Type I: clinically normal, but rootless teeth
Type II: blue to brown translucency, Bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, thin roots, obliteration of root canals and pulp chambers, “hot dog on a stick pulp”

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91
Q

How is Type II dentin dysplasia and dentinogenesis dysplasi differentiated?

A

Can’t distinguish clincally, need genetic testing to differentiate

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92
Q

What term describes a localized, non-hereditary developmental abnormality in the formation of teeth?

A

Regional Odontodysplasia

“ghost teeth”

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93
Q

What are the 4 differential diagnoses for a periapical radiolucency ?

A

periapical cyst, periapical granuloma, periapical abscess, periapical scar

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94
Q

What are some sequelae of periapical pathology?

A

Sinus tract, osteomyelitis, cellulits, condensing osteitis

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95
Q

What is the most common peripapical pathosis?

A

Periapical granuloma

Consists of chronic inflammatory cells (few neutrophils)

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96
Q

What is a phoenix abscess?

A

Secondary acute inflammatory changes within within a periapical granuloma

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97
Q

What are two other names for a periapical cyst?

A

Apical peridontal cyst, or radicular cyst

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98
Q

What inflammatory cells are present in a periapical abscess?

A

Neutrophils

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99
Q

When does a periapical scar usually form?

A

Following surgical endodontic therapy, when both the facial and lingual cortical plates have been lost

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100
Q

What is a sinus tract?

A

From a periapical abscess with pus formation! IT follows the path of lest resistant through bone and soft tissue
If drainage occurs intraoral –> parulis or fistula
If draining occurs in skin (which is most common in mandibular teeth) –> cutaneous sinus tract

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101
Q

What is osteomyelitis, what does it result in and where is it most common?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation in bone, usually due to bacterial infection resulting in expanding lytic destruction, suppuration and sequestra formation.
Most common in mandible

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102
Q

What is an involucrum?

A

During osteomyleitis, fragments of necrotic bone may become surrounded by new, vital bone

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103
Q

Why does cellulitis occur?

A

Purulence is unable to establish a draingage point so it spreads diffusely through the overlying soft tissue

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104
Q

What are the 2 dangerous types of cellulitis associated with dental infections?

A

Ludwigs’ angina, canvernous sinus thrombosis

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105
Q

What are the signs of Ludwig’s angina and what tooth usually causes it? How is it treated?

A

Rapid swelling of sublingual, submandibular and submental spaces (“bull neck”), elevation of the tongue, drooling, pain, dysphagia, dysphonia, fever, restricted neck movement

Mandibular molar with periapical abscess

  1. Maintain airway
  2. incision and drainage
  3. ABX therapy
  4. elimination of original focus of infection
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106
Q

What are the signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis and what tooth is usually the cause? How is it treated?

A

Edematous periorbital enlargement +lateral border of nose

Maxillary canine

Surgical drainage and ABX

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107
Q

What are some possible sequelae of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Protrusion and fixation of the eyeball, pupil dialtion, excessive lacrimation, loss of sight, meningitis, bran abscesses

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108
Q

What is another name for condensing osteitis and how can it be distinguished from cemento-osseous deysplasia and idiopathic osteosclerosis?

A

Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis

No RL border (–> cemento-osseous dysplasia)
Associated with root apex (–> idiopathic osterosclerosis)

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109
Q

What is epulis granulomatosa?

A

A mass growing out of a extraction site which can be indicative metastatic cancer

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110
Q

What two different terms describe a hypersensitivity reaction that causes gingival inflammation and erythema? What is it usually related to?

A

Plasma cell gingivitis aka allergic gingivostomatitis

It is an acute onset from cinnamaldehyde

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111
Q

What term describes a idiopathic, small bright red papillary alteration of the maxillary anterior facial gingiva that bleeds easily upon manipulation? What is it though it be?

A

Localized Juvenile Spongiotic Gingival Hyperplasia

Exteriorized junctional or sulcular epithelium

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112
Q

What term is used to describe gingival epithelium that spontaneous sloughs off or can be removed with the mirror? What are the 5 differential diagnoses for this?

A

Desquamative gingivitis

THIS IS A CLINICAL description

  1. Lichen planus
  2. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
  3. pemphigus vulgaris
  4. systemic lupus erythematosis
  5. Hypersensitivity
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113
Q

What drugs can cause drug induced gingival hyperplasia?

A

Cyclosporin
Phenytoin
Nifedipine

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114
Q

What term describes a slowly progressive gingival enlargement caused by a collagenous overgrowth of the gingival fibrous CT that can be familial or idiopathic?

A

GIngival Fibromatosis

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115
Q

What term describes a inflammatory process that arises with the operculum? What tooth is most commonly affected?

A

Pericoronitis

Mandibular 3rd molars

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116
Q

What syndrome is associated with accelerated periodontitis and what are its characteristics?

A

Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome
Mutation of Cathepsin C gene on chromosome 11 –> defect in neutrophils leading to accelerated periodontitis due to A.a. in young individuals , and palmar plantar keratosis

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117
Q

What characteristics are associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

A

Foul odor
Blunted papilla
Gray pseudomembrane
Frequently occurs with physiological stress

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118
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and staphylcoccus aureus

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119
Q

What commonly causes tonsillitis and pharyngitis?

A

Group A hemolytic strep, influenza, EBV – majority are caused by viruses

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120
Q

What are some sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis and tonsillitis?

A

Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, rheumatic heart disease, acute glomerulonephritis

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121
Q

What are the signs of scarlet fever?

A

First 2 days: White Strawberry tongue - white coating with only visible fungiform papillae
4-5 days: red strawberry tongue - erythematous dorsal surface with hyperplastic fungiform papillae
1 week: dermatological features = skin erythema and desquamation
Pastia’s lines - red streaky rash in areas of pressure and skin folds

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122
Q

What are some sequelae of scarlet fever?

A

Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, hepatitis, abscess, pneumonia

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123
Q

What term describes concretions in pharyngeal tonsillar crypts and what bacteria can secondarily colonize these?

A

Tonsillolithiasis/tonsillar concretions

Actinomyces spp

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124
Q

What microorganism causes diphtheria and what organism is the reservoir for diphtheria?

A

Cornebacterium diphtheriae

Humans are the sole reservoir

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125
Q

What microorganism causes syphilis and how is it spread?

A

Treponema pallidum

Spread through sexual contact and from mother to fetus

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126
Q

What is primary syphilis characterized by?

A

Characterized by the chancre that develops at the site of inoculation (3-90 days after inoculation) – it is a painless ulceration

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127
Q

What is secondary syphilis characterized by?

A

Disseminated syphilis = always a diffuse, painless, cutaneous rash and may have painless lymphadenopathy, or a mucus patch in the oral cavity

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128
Q

What is tertiary syphilis characterized by?

A

Latent syphilis (1-30 years) with cardiac complications, ocular lesions, tongue lesions (gumma)

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129
Q

What are some things that can cause granulomatous inflammation affecting the palate or tongue?

A

TB (disseminated TB), Cocaine, NK T cell lymphoma, deep fungal infection

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130
Q

What is congenital syphilis characterized by?

A

Hutchinson’s triad =

Hutchinson’s incisors (and mulberry molars0, ocular interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness

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131
Q

What microorganism causes gonorrhea?

A

Neisseria gonnorhoeae

Most common reportable infectious disease in the US

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132
Q

What microorganism causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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133
Q

What term describes a TB infection of the skin?

A

Lupus vulgaris

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134
Q

What term describes a mycobacterial infection caused by drinking contaminated milk (bovine TB)?

A

Scrofula

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135
Q

What microorganism causes leprosy and what is the host of the microorganism?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

Nine-banded armadillo

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136
Q

What term describes a rapidly progressive, opportunistic, polymicrobial infection that causes necrosis through anatomic barriers?

A

Noma

Measles usually precedes infection

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137
Q

What microorganism causes actinomycosis and what is a characteristic feature of actinomycoses infections?

A

Actinomyces israelii

Suppurative infection that discharges yellow material that are colonies of bacteria and termed sulfur granules

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138
Q

What microorganism causes cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

Most common cause of chronic regional lymphadenopathy in children

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139
Q

What term describes cat scratch disease resulting in a conjuctival granuloma with pre-auricular lymphadenopathy?

A

Oculoglandular syndrome of Parinaud

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140
Q

What is the cause of sinusitis?

A

Blockage of the ostiomeatal complex disrupting drainage of sinuses

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141
Q

What term describes a calcification in the sinus in chronic sinusitis?

A

Antrolith

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142
Q

What microorganism causes candidiasis and which from is the invasive form?

A

Candida albicans
The hyphae form is the invasive form

(in all other yeast infections, the yeast form is the infectious form)

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143
Q

Who does candidiasis commonly affect?

A

It is mostly an opportunistic infection

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144
Q

What are the 4 clinical patterns of candidiasis and which form is the most common?

A

Psuedomembranous, erythematous, chronic hyperplastic, mucocutaneous

Erythematous is the msot common

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145
Q

What are the 5 clinical presentations of erythematous candidiasis?

A

Median rhomboid glossitis, chronic multifocal candidiasis, angular cheilitis, denture stomatitis, acute atrophic candidiasis

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146
Q

What is chronic multifocal candidiasis?

A

Median rhomboid glossitis and signs of infection at other sites (like the palate or angular cheilitis)

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147
Q

Why does denture stomatitis occur?

A

The patient wears the denture continuously, so remember to treat the soft tissues and the denture!

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148
Q

What is another name for chronic hyperplastic candidiasis and what are the characteristics of it?

A

Candidal leukoplakia

It is a white patch that cannot be removed

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149
Q

What is mucocutaneous candidiasis?

A

A rare group of immunological disorders where patients develop endocrine candidiasis syndrome, autoimmune polyendocrinopathy candidiasis ectodermal dystrophy syndrome, and iron deficiency anemia

Also, oral lesions do not rub off

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150
Q

What microorganism causes histoplasmosis and where is it found?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

Found in humid areas with soil enriched areas by bird or bat excrement

Ohio and MIssissippi RIver Valley

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151
Q

What microorganism causes blastomycosis and where is it found?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Found in eastern areas of the US and into Canada

152
Q

What does blastomycosis cause?

A

It resembles pneumonia or tuberculosis, and induces pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia

153
Q

What causes paracoccidiodomycosis and what harbors the microorganism?

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Nine banded armadillo

154
Q

What microorganism causes coccidiodomycosis/San Joaquin Valley Fever and where is it found? What can is cause?

A

Coccidiodes immitis
Lives on dead/decaying organic matter
Can cause erythema nodosum which affects the legs

155
Q

What microorganism causes cryptococcosis and where is it found?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans, and it is found in pigeon excrement

156
Q

Where is zygomycosis found?What patient is at risk for zygomycosis/mucomycosis?

A

Decaying organic matter

Uncontrolled diabetic can have rhinocerebral zygomycosis

157
Q

What microorganisms cause aspergillosis adn what is a large mass of the fungal hyphae called?

A

Aspergillosis fumigatus, Aspergillosis flavus

Aspergilloma –> can calcify in sinus and become an antrolith

158
Q

What condition has been the only condition to induce lesions of HSV 1?

A

UV light

159
Q

What terms describe primary infections of HSV 1?

A

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is young patient

Primary herpetic pharyngotonsillitis if older than 18

160
Q

What is the most common site of recurence/recrudescent infection of HSV 1 and what is this called?

A

Vermillion border and adjacent skin of the lips aka Herpes labialis, “cold sore”, “fever blister”

161
Q

What is the prodrome of herpes labialis?

A

Pain, burning, itching, tingling 6-24 hours before the lesion develops

162
Q

What is the progression of herpes labialis?

A

Start as multiple, small, erythematous papules/vesicles that rupture and crust withing 2 days, then heals without scarring in 7-10 days

163
Q

When is active viral replication complete in herpes labialis?

A

Within 2 days, so mechanical rupture of the intact vesicles releases the virus and can result in spreading of infection

164
Q

Where do intraoral recurrent herpes simplex lesions occur?

A

Almost always on keratinized, bound mucosa (so the palate and attached gingiva)
Have a central, yellowish area of ulceration

165
Q

What virus causes chicken pox?

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (or HHV 3)

166
Q

Where does VZV establish latency? And what disease/characteristics occur with reactivation?

A 
Dorsal root ganglia
Herpes zoster (Shingles)
167
Q

What should you be concerned about if the tip of nose is involved in VZV infections?

A

Ocular involvement leading to permanent blindness

168
Q

What syndrome is associated with VZV infections?

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

Cutaneous lesions of the external auditory canal, involvement of ipsilateral face and auditory nerves, facial paralysis, heraing deficits, vertigo

169
Q

What virus causes infectious mononucleosis? How is it diagnosed?

A

Esptein Barr Virus

Presence of Paul-Bunnel heterophil antibodies

170
Q

What are other lesions that are associated with EBV?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia, Lymphomas (BUrkitt’s Lymphoma), Nasopharyngmeal carcinoma

171
Q

What are characteristics of CMV infections and in the histology?

A

Usually in AIDS patients, usually asymptomatic but can have fever, joint and muscle pain, etc
Owl eye cell in histology

172
Q

What are the classifications of enteroviruses? And what classification is most important to oral health care professionals and why?

A

Echoviruses
Caxsackievirus
Poliovirus

Coxsackie produces herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease, acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

173
Q

What are the characteristics of herpangina?

A

Skin rash, small 2-6 oral lesions in the posterior mouth (red –> vesicles –> ulcers), with sore throat, fever, dysphagia

174
Q

What are characteristics of Hand-Foot-and-mouth disease?

A

Skin rash on hands and feet, and large oral lesions with flu like symptoms

175
Q

What are 2 other names for Measles, what is the cause of measles and what are the stages of measles?

A

Rubeola/9 day measles
Paramyxovirus

1st stage = 3 Cs+Fever+Koplik’s spots
2nd stage = Skin rash on trunk and extremities + fever
3rd stage = rash gets brown pigment staining

176
Q

What are 2 other names for German Measles, what is it caused by, what are the signs?

A

Rubella/3 day measles
Togavirus

Arthritis, Forcheimer’s sign (dark red papules on the palate)

177
Q

What is congenital rubella syndrome? What can prevent it?

A

Deafness, Heart disease, Cataracts

The MMR vaccine

178
Q

What is another name for mumps, what causes it and what are some characteristics of it?

A

Epidemic parotitis

Paramyxovirus

Incubation of 2-4 weeks, contagious 1 day before till 2 weeks after resolution of symptoms

Causes discomfort and swelling in exocrine glands

179
Q

What are the most frequent routes of transmission of HIV?

A

Sexual contact, Parenteral exposure to blood, transmission from mother to fetus

180
Q

What cell is targeted by HIV?

A

CD4+ T helper lymphocyte

181
Q

What are the 3 stages of AIDS?

A

Acute self limited viral syndrome
Asymptomatic/Latenet syndrome
Final symptomatic syndrome

182
Q

What are the oral manifestations most strongly associated with HIV infection?

A

Candidiasis (psuedomembranous), oral hairy leukoplakia, Kaposi’s sarcoma, non-hodgkin’s lymphoma, periodontal diseases

183
Q

What is the clinical presentation of oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

BILATERAL white mucosal plaque that does not rub off

Usually on the lateral border of the tongue

184
Q

What is the clinical presenation of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Multifocal neoplasm of vascular endothelial cell origin

185
Q

What are the 3 atypical patterns of periodontal disease in HIV/AIDS patients?

A

Linear gingival erythema, necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, necrotizing ulcerative periodontisis

186
Q

What are the characteristics of linea alba?

A

Typically bilateral, from pressure, irritation, or sucking trauma and located on the buccal mucosa at the level of the occlusal plan

187
Q

What are the characteristics of morsicatio buccarum?

A

Due to chronic cheek chewing, just the epithelium is involved

188
Q

What are the characteristics of a traumatic ulceration?

A

From acute or chronic trauma, appears as areas of erythema surrounding a central removable, yellow fibrinopurulent membrane with a rolled white border of hyperkeratosis

189
Q

What term describes a unique from of chronic traumatic ulceration and where is it usually found?

A

Traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosinophilia, occurs on the tongue because of the skeletal muscle

muscle damage –> eotactin –> eosinophils = non healing ulcers that last for months

190
Q

What term describes chronic ulceration found under the tongue in infants?

A

Riga-Fede disease

191
Q

When is biopsy warranted in cases of traumatic ulcerations and morsicatio buccarum?

A

Cases that do no resolve after 2 weeks

192
Q

What are the characteristics of electrical burns?

A

Appear as painless, charred, yellow area that doesn’t bleed, then a few days later will become necrotic and begins to slough

193
Q

What is the yellow center due to in thermal burns and traumatic ulcerations?

A

Yellow center is due to fibrin

194
Q

What are the predominant problems associated with anticancer therapy?

A

Mucositis, hemorrhage (oral pethechiae, etc from bone marrow suppression), xerostomia, altered taste, osteoradionecrosis, trismus

195
Q

What is the difference between 1st and 2nd generation bisphosphonates?

A

1st gen have low potency and are readily metabolized

2nd gen are more potent and termed aminobisphosphonates due to the addition of a nitrogen side chain, and have a half life of 10 years

196
Q

Why is there a strong association of gnathic osteonecrosis and aminobisphosphonates?

A

The incorporation of medication is highest in areas of active remodeling, such as the jaws

197
Q

What is the prevalence of osteonecrosis in patients taking IV and oral bisphosphonates?

A

IV is up to 6-8%

Oral is 1:100,000

198
Q

What are the treatment protocols for people taking IV and oral bisphosphonates?

A

60% of BRONJ occurs after a dental procedure

Oral: informed consent before bone manipulation
IV: manipulation of bone should be avoided

199
Q

What are the signs of methamphetamine use?

A

Delusions of parasitosis, rampant caries (due to xerostomia and consumption of acidic drinks/foods)

200
Q

What is a concern with meth use and sympathomimetic amines?

A

Use of LA and epinephrine can lead to hypertensive crisis, cerebral vascular accident, myocardial infarction

201
Q

What is exfoliative cheilitis?

A

Persistent scaling and flaking of the vermillion border usually due to habits like lip licking

202
Q

What are some causes of submucosal hemorrhage?

A

Repeated coughing or vomiting, convulsions, trauma, anticoagulant therapy, thrombocytopenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, viral infections

203
Q

How is the diagnosis of amalgam tattoo confirmed?

A

Take a radiograph of the affected areas, and biopsy must be done if it can’t be see on the radiograph in order to rule out melanoma

204
Q

What is smoker’s melanosis?

A

Nicotine stimulates melanin production, most commonly seen on the anterior facial gingiva, cessation of smoking results in gradual disappearance

205
Q

What is an antral pseudocyst?

A

A dome shaped, slight radiopaque lesion arising from the intact floor of the maxillary sinus

Under the sinus mucosa! (schniederian membrane)

206
Q

What is cervicofacial emphysema and when can it occur?

A

It is the introduction of air into subcutaneous or fascial spaces of the face and neck

May occur after use of compressed air, after difficult/prolonged extractions, or as a result of increased intraoral pressure after an oral surgery

*do not use air driven handpieces during oral surgery

207
Q

What term describes a clinical alteration involving the fungiform papilla, likely due to an allergy and what are the 3 types?

A

Transient lingual papillitis

Localized
Generalized
Diffuse, papulokeratotic variant

208
Q

What are two terms for a “canker sore” and where do they occu?

A

Recurrent aphthous ulcer aka recurrent apthous stomatitis

Occur exclusively on movable mucosa

209
Q

What are the 3 clinical variations of recurrent aphthous ulcers?

A

Minor = 3-10 mm, 7-14 days to heal, no scarring, 1-5 lesions/episode, Fewst recurrences

Major= 1-3 cm, 2-6 weeks of healing time, possible scarring, 1-10 lesion/episode

Herpetiform = 1-3 mm, 7-10 days to heal, no scarring, up to 100, most

210
Q

What syndrome is associated with chronic, recurrent aphthous like ulcerations? What are the other characteristics of this syndrome?

A

Behcet’s syndrome

Oral aphthous like ulcerations, ocular inflammation, genital ulcers and skin lesions,
joint pain

211
Q

What term describes a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown cause and who does it affect?

A

Sarcoidosis

African Americans&raquo_space;»> Caucasians

212
Q

What are 2 different syndromes associated with Sarcoidosis and what are their characteristics?

A

Lofgren’s syndrome = erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, arthralgia

Heerfordt’s syndrome (uveoparotid fever) = Parotid enlargement, inflammation of the eye, facial paralysis and fever

213
Q

What are the

skin lesions and histological features of sarcoidosis?

A

Lupus pernio, erythema nodosum

Granulomatous inflammation, schaumann bodies, asteroid bodies, hamazaki-Wesenberg bodies

214
Q

What is the diagnostic test for sarcoidosis?

A

Elevated serum angiotensin converting enzyme levels and chest x ray

215
Q

What is Wegener’s granulomatosis, what are the oral lesions associated with is and what is the diagnostic test?

A

Class Wegener’s granulomatosis = necrotizing granulomatous lesions of respiratory tract, necrotizing glomerulonephritis, and systemic vasculitis of small arteries and veins

Strawberry gingivitis

Diagnostic: indirect immunofluorescence detects the presence of antineutrophil cytoplasma antibodies (either perinuclear or cytoplasmic)

216
Q

What term describes a hypersensitivty reaction to cinnamon?

A

Contact stomatitis from cinnamon

217
Q

What two terms describe diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues most commonly caused by mast cell degranulation (IgE mediated histamine release)?

A

Angioedema

Treatment for allergic angioedema is oral antihistamines

218
Q

What can cause diffuse involvement of the head and neck in angioedema and what is the treatment?

A

Angiotensin converting ezyme inhibitors (-prils)

Do not respond to antihistamines, some respond to C1-INH concentrate, avoid all medications in this class (ACE inhibitors)

219
Q

What term describes a benign proliferation of stratified squamous epithelium, and what types of HPV specifically cause it?

A

Squamous papilloma

HPV types 6 and 11

220
Q

What type of virus is HPV and types of HPV specifically cause verruca vulgaris?

A

HPV is a DNA virus of the papovavirus subgroup

Types 2, 4, 6, and 40

221
Q

What is another name for condyloma acuminatum and what types of HPV cause condyloma acuminatum?

A 
Venereal wart (an STD)
2, 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 53, 54

6 and 11 is most common
16 and 18 are high risk for malignant transformation to squamous cell carcinoma in the anogenital area

222
Q

What are the 3 differential diagnoses for squamous papilloma?

A

Verruca vulgaris, condyloman acuminatum, verruciform xanthoma

223
Q

What two terms describe an epithelial disease that appears in childhood with painless, multiple lesions in clusters that are flattered or rounded and mucosal colored? What causes it?

A

Multifocal epithelial hyperplasia aka Heck’s disease

HPV types 13 adn 32

224
Q

What term describes a virally induced epithelial hyperplasia that is typically seen in children, is painless and caused by DNA poxvirus?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

Contains molluscum bodies aka Henderson-Paterson bodies

225
Q

What is a characteristic of verruciform xanthoma?

A

Lipid laden histiocytes in the epithelium

226
Q

What is an extremely common skin lesion of older people that is a proliferation of basal cells?

A

Seborrheic keratosis

227
Q

What term describes an inherited condition where multiple small black papules are found scattered around the zygomatic and peri-orbital region?

A

Dermatosis papulosa nigra

228
Q

What is Leser- Trelat sign?

A

A sudden appearance of numerous seborrheic keratoses with pruritus that has been associated with internal malignancy

229
Q

What is the medical term for a freckle, and how is the diagnosis confirmed?

A

Ephelis

Become more prominent with sun exposure

230
Q

What term describes a benign brown macule resulting from UV light damage to the skin, and how is the diagnosis confirmed?

A

Actinic lentigo

Does not change in color intensity with UV light exposure

231
Q

What term describes a benign cutaneous melanocytic hyperplasia that occurs on skin not exposed to sublight?

A

Lentigo simplex

An actual increase in number of melanocytes

232
Q

What term describes an acquired, symmetrical, hormonally driven hyperpigmentation of the sun exposed skin of the face, and what is it associated with?

A

Melasma

Associated with pregnancy
- melanocytes stimulated by MSH which is released by the pituitary gland along with other hormones

233
Q

What term describes a freckle in the mouth, and what is the most common site?

A

Oral melanotic macule

BUT most common site s the vermillion zone of the lower lup so it is called a labial melanotic macule

234
Q

What term describes an acquired pigmentation of the oral mucosa that appears to be a reactive process due to trauma?

A

Oral melanoacanthoma

235
Q

What is the most commonly recognized nevus and what is it from? Is there a risk of malignant transformation?

A

Acquired melanocytic nevus and it is a proliferation of cells from the neural crest (theques are islands of melanocytes)

Most common of all adult tumors , and yws 1 in a million can transform into melanoma

236
Q

What are some names for larger congenital melanocytic nevi and what is important about them?

A

Bathing trunk nevus or garment nevus

15% may undergo malignant transformation into melanoma

237
Q

What term describes a melanocytic nevus with surrounding pale hypopigmented border thought to be cell destruction by the immune system?

A

Halo nevus

238
Q

What term describes a nevus that occurs in childhood, but looks histopathologically the same as melonoma?

A

Spitz nevus

239
Q

What is the 2nd most frequent melanocytic nevus encountered in the oral cavity?

A

Blue nevus

(Tyndall effect – light with long wavelengths are absorbed, blue is reflected back)

Malignant transformation can occur

240
Q

What term decribes an intraoral white plaque that does not rub off and cannot be identified as any other entity?

A

Leukoplakia

241
Q

What is leukoplakia considered?

A

A pre-malignant lesion (so a biopsy needs to be done)

80% are “benign” but 20% are starting cancers

242
Q

What are some causative factors for leukoplakia?

A

Tobacco, Alcohol, Sanguinaria, UV radioation, microorganisms (Treponema pallidum, candida albicans)

Predilection for men

243
Q

What sites are high risk sites for dysplasia or carcinoma in leukoplakia?

A

Lip vermillion, lateral/ventral tongue, floor of mouth

244
Q

What term describes an leukoplaki with scatterered patches?

A

Erythroplakia

245
Q

What term describes a high risk form of leukoplakia, and who does it affect?

A

Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (mulitple, rough, white plaques)

Predilection for women, and no association with tobacco use

Will eventually turn into cancer

246
Q

What is the difference between hyperkeratosis, hyperparakeratosis, and hyperorthokeratosis?

A

Hyperkeratosis = thickened keratin layer
Hyperparakeratosis - no granular cell layer (nuclei retained)
Hyperorthokeratosis = nuclei lost

247
Q

What are the classifications of “involvement” for leukoplakia biopsies?

A

Mild dysplasia = limited to lower 1/3
Moderate dysplasia = limited to lower 1/2
Severe dysplasia = present above lower 1/2
Carcinoma in situ = present throughout epithelium

248
Q

What carcinoma do leukoplakias become?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas (5% in 2-4 years)

249
Q

What term descrubes a ale, corrugated appearing lesion from smokeless tobacco?

A

Tobacco pouch keratosis

250
Q

What term describes a chronic, progressive scarring, high risk, precancerous condition of the oral mucosa and what is it linked to? Why is it high risk considered high risk?

A

Oral submucous fibrosis
Linked to betwl quid or paan
- areca nut, slaked lime, betel leaf, with or without tobacco or sweeteners

10% undergo malignant transformation

251
Q

What term describes a white keratotic change on the palate due to heat, usually from smoking? What is a variation that can be premalignant?

A

Nicotine stomatitis

Reverse smoker’s palate

252
Q

What term describes a lesion caused by cumulative UV radiation, and is a scaly irregular plaque? Why is it high risk?

A

Actinic keratosis

About 10% will progress to squamous cell carcinoma in 2 years

253
Q

What term describes a common premalignant alteration of the lower lip vermillion? When should a biopsy be done?

A

Actinic cheilosis

If there is induration, scaly areas, leukoplakia, ulcers

same as actinic keratosis where 10% will develop squamous cell carcinoma

254
Q

What term describes a firm, well demarcated, painless, sessile, dome shaped nodule with a central plug of keratin?

A

Keratoacanthoma

255
Q

What kinds of smoking has a greater oral cancer risk ?

A

Pipe and cigar smoking, but reverse smoking presents the greatest risk
Risk of squamous cell carcinoma increases the longer the person smokes

256
Q

What is the role of alcohol in the development of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Uncertain if alcohol alone can initiate, but it is a significant risk factor

257
Q

What are some other things that can cause squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Phenolic agents, radiation, iron deficiency, Vitamin A deficiency, syphilis, oncogenic viruses, immunosuppression, oncogenes

258
Q

What are the most common sites of squamous cell carcinoma in the oral cavity?

A

Posterio lateral/ventral tongue, then floor of mouth, soft palate, gingiva

259
Q

Where does squamous cell carcinoma tend to spread?

A

Ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes, then distantly to the lungs,liver, or bones

260
Q

What is true about the histologic grading and clinical staging with squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Clinical staging is a better prognostic indicator than histologic grading when it comes to squamous cell carcinoma

261
Q

What two terms describe a low grade variant of oral squamous cell carcinoma, that can be caused by smokeless tabacco and can look like cauliflower?

A

Verrucous carcinoma aka Snuff Dipper’s cancer

262
Q

What term refers to a group a malignancies that arise fromthe lining epithelium of the nasopharynx and is most prevalent in Chinese men? What are some strong contributory factors?

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

EBV infection
Vitamin C deficiency
Consumption of salt fish with N-nitrosamines
Tobacco

263
Q

What is the most common of all cancers?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

264
Q

What is the cause of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Results from UV radiation

Frequent sunburns

265
Q

What is the most common form of basal cell carcinoma and what are its characteristics?

A

Nodular

Firm, painless papule that slowly enlarges to develop a central depression and umbilicated appearance
Has one or more telangiectatic blood vessels
Rolled borders are usually present

266
Q

What is the risk of metastasis in basal cell carcinoma?

A

Metastasis is extremely rare

267
Q

What is a type of treatment for basal cell carcinoma?

A

Mohs micrographic surgery – uses frozen sections to evaluate margins during surgery

268
Q

What does melanoma arise form and what is a major causative factor?

A

Melanocytic origin

UV radiation (Acute sun exposure) -other risk factors are fair complexion, light hair, painful blistering sunburns, dysplastic or congenital nevi

269
Q

What is important about melanoma?

A

It is very aggressive! Even though it is the 3rd most common skin cancer, it accounts for the most deaths and patient usually die from distant metastasis

270
Q

What are the ABCDE’s of melanoma? and what are they used for?

A

Used to distinguish melanoma from a melanocytic nevus

Asymmetry
Border irregularity
Color Variation
Diameter greater than 6 mm
Evolving/Changing lesion
271
Q

What are the 2 patterns of growth in melanoma and what determines the prognosis?

A

Radical (horizontal spread), Vertical (invade underlying CT)

Depth of invasion correlates with prognosis – any invasion more then .5 mm in oral mucosal melanoma has poor prognosis

272
Q

What are some areas with worse prognosis in melanoma?

A 
BANS
Interscapular area of the back
Posterior Upper arm
Posterior and Lateral Neck
Scalp
273
Q

What are the most common locations of a mucocele?

A

Lower lip, FOM, anterior ventral tongue, then buccal mucosa

274
Q

What term describes a mucocele in the floor of the mouth that can get large enough to even block off the airways?

A

Ranula (plunging ranula)

275
Q

What term describes a n epithelium lined cavity that arises from salivary gland tissue?

A

Salivary duct cyst

276
Q

What term describes a calcification developed in a salivary gland? What salivary gland is most likely to be affected?

A

Sialolith

The submandibular gland (long and tortuous duct with thick secretion)

277
Q

What term describes inflammation of the salivary glands?

A

Sialadenitis

278
Q

What are some infectious and non infectious causes of sialadenitis?

A

Mumps, Bacteria, Sjogren syndrome, sarcoidosis, radiation, recent surgery (anesthesia mumps), allergic reaction, obstruction of the salivary gland

279
Q

What term describes a non-inflammatory asymptomatic salivary gland enlargement and what causes it?

A

Sialadenosis

DM, hypothyroidismm pregnancy, general malnutrition, alcoholism, anorexia nervosa, bulimia, anti-hypertensive drugs, psychotropic drugs

280
Q

What term describes a localized, sessile, painless mass that mimics a neoplasm on the hard palate?

A

Adenomatoid hyperplasia of the minor salivary glands

281
Q

What term describes a locally destructive inflammatory condition of the salivary glands, believed to be due to ischemia?

A

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

282
Q

What term describes a swelling and eversion of the lower lip as a result of hypertrophy and inflammation of the minor salivary glands?

A

Cheilitis glandularis

283
Q

What can cause sialorrhea?

A

Local irritations, GERD, rabies, heavy metal posioning, medication, neurological disorder

284
Q

What are some complications of xerostomia?

A

Candidiasis, root and cervical caries, alteration of taste (and fissured tongue)

285
Q

What are some things that should be eliminated to help manage xerostomia?

A

Alcohol, smoking, caffeine consumption

286
Q

What term describes an autoimmune disease tha tminaly affects salivary and lacrimal glands?

A

Sjogren syndrome

287
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sjogrens syndrome?

A

No other autoimmune disease, or associated with other autoimmune disease (like rheumatoid arthritis, or SLE)

288
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Positive serum anti-SSA/SSB, ocular staining score > or + 3, Presence of focal lymphocytic sialadenitis with a focus score > or + 1/4 mm2 is labial salivary gland biopsy samples

289
Q

What are individuals with sjogren’s syndrome at an increased risk for?

A

Lymphoma (MALT lymphoma)

290
Q

What is the most common site of a salivary gland neoplasm out of all sites?

A

Parotid gland > minor glands > submandibular and sublingual

291
Q

What are the % of benign and malignant salivary gland neoplasms in major salivary glands?

A

All major sites= 66B - 34M
Parotid= 70B - 30M
Submd= 60B - 40M
Sublg= 30B - 70M

292
Q

What are the % of benign and malignant salivary gland neoplasms in minor salivary glands?

A 
Retromolar= 90M - 10B
Tongue= 85M - 15B
Lower lip= 60M - 40M
Cheek/Palate/All minor= 50M - 50B
Upper lip= 2020M - 80B
293
Q

What is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

294
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary neoplasm?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

*in both adults and children!!

295
Q

What are the 4 common benign salivary gland neoplasms?

A

Canalicular adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Warthin tumor
Oncocytoma

296
Q

Where does canalicular adenoma occur and who is commonly affected?

A

In the upper lip exclusively in minor glands

>60 = canalicular adenoma
<50 = pleomorphic adenoma
297
Q

What is unique about the cells in a oncocytoma?

A

Large epithelial cells known as oncocytes, and they have an excessive amount of mitochondira

298
Q

What is the another name for Warthin’s tumor, where does it occur and who does it
commonly affect?

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

Almost exclusively in the parotid gland

And 60 year old males who are smokers have the greatest risk

299
Q

What are the 5 common malignant salivary gland neoplasms?

A 
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Acinic cell adenocarcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
Malignant mixed tumor
300
Q

What is the most common locations of mucoepidermoid carcionoma?

A

Parotid, then minor glands, specifically the palate.

Although, the submandibular gland has a poorer prognosis that the parotid gland

301
Q

What is the 2nd most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm what where does it occur?

A

Acinic cell adenocarcinoma

Partoid, then minor glands, then submandibular

302
Q

What is the most common salivary gland neoplasm of the submandibular gland? What can it cause?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

(although this is more common in minor glands)

It can cause pain and facial nerve paralysis because it has a tendency for perineural spread

303
Q

Where does polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma occur?

A

Almost exclusively in the minor glands

304
Q

What is the most common tumor of the oral cavity? Why is it not an actual tumor?

A

Fibroma

Reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to local irritation or trauma

305
Q

What term describes a fibrous tumor not associated with irritation and typically occurs lingual to the cuspid papilla?

A

Giant Cell Fibroma

306
Q

What term describes a tumor-like hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue usually in association with a ill fitting denture?

A

Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

Epulis fissuratum

307
Q

What term describes a tumor-like growth that has a pebbly or papillary surface? What is this condition related to?

A 
Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
Related to:
Ill fitting denture
Poor denture hygiene
Wearing a denture 24/7
308
Q

What term describes a counterpart of a cutaneous lesion, that rarely occurs in the mouth but is a result from overproduction of hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts?

A

Oral focal mucinosis

another thing that looks like a bump on the gums

309
Q

What are the 3 P’s for a bump on the gums?

A

Pyogenic granuloma
Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Peripheral ossifiying fibroma

310
Q

Why is a pyogenic granuloma not a true granuloma? What do they look like? What are 2 other names for it?

A

Reactive lesion to local irritation or trauma

Ulcerated and bleeds easily (blood vessels)

Pregnancy tumor, granuloma gravidarum

311
Q

How is a peripheral giant cell granuloma different than the other P’s?

A

Often more blue or purple, and may produce a cupping resorption to the underlying bone

312
Q

How is a peripheral ossifying fibroma different than the other P’s?

A

About half of cases occur in the incisor-cuspid region, can appear more pale and have bone formation within the mass

313
Q

What term describes a benign tumor of fat and what diagnostic test can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

A

Lipoma

Float in formalin

314
Q

What term describes a benign tumor of nerve origin? What causes them and where do they usually occur in the oral cavity?

A

Neuroma (traumatic neuroma)

Most common in mental foramen area, and are painful!!

315
Q

What two different terms describe a benign neural neoplasm of Schwann cell origin, and where do they typically occur?

A

Schwannoma aka Neurilemoma

Tongue

316
Q

What are the histopathologic features of a Schwannoma?

A

Antoni A: Verocay bodies – organization/spindle like

Antoni B: Everything that is not A

317
Q

What is the most common type of peripheral nerve neoplasm and what conditions are associated with it?

A

Neurofibroma

Neurofibromatosis

318
Q

What is another name for Neurofibromatosis Type I? What are the diagnostic criteria?

A

Aka von Recklinghausen’s disease of the skin

Plexiform variant is pathognomonic

2 or more:
6+ cafe au lait macules with coasts of california
2+ NF or 1 plexiform NF
Crowe's sign
Optic glioma
2+ iris hamartomas (lisch nodules)
osseous lesion (like sphenoid dysplasia)
1st degree relative with NF1
319
Q

What are the oral manifestations of neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

enlargement of the fungiform papilla, intraoral neurofibromas, enlargement of the mandibular foramen or canal

320
Q

What are the characteristics of Multiple endocrin neoplasia, Type 2b? What is usually the first sign of the condition

A

Parathyroid, Pituitary tumors, Pancreatic tumors, Adrenal gland tumors (Pheochromocytoma), Thyroid tumors (Medullary carcinoma), Mucosal neuromas wiht a predilection for the oral cavity

Bilateral neuromas of the commissural mucosa (or oral neuromas)

321
Q

What is characteristic about the build of patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2b?

A

Patients have a marfanoid build with thin, elongated limbs, narrow face, protuberant lips

322
Q

What term describes a rare pigmented tumor in the mouth of infants? Where in the mouth does it occur? What is a diagnostic test for this?

A

Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

Anterior maxilla

High urinary levels of vanillylmandelic acid

323
Q

What term describes a benign neoplasm in the oral cavity that is yellow and commonly occurs on the dorsal tongue? What is a diagnostic test for this?

A

Granular cell tumor

Exhibit significant pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (looks like squamous cell caricinoma)

s-100 positive

324
Q

What term describes a mass that occurs almost exclusively on the maxillary, alveolar ridge of newborns? What is a diagnostic test for this?

A

Congenital epulis

No pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia and s-100 negative

325
Q

What is the most common tumor of infancy? What are the 2 types? What test can be done to confirm diagnosis?

A

Hemangioma

Capillary – may not blanch
Cavernous – blanches on diascopy and looks darker red

326
Q

What term describes a non hereditary condition caused by the persistence of a vascular plexus around the cephalic portion of the neural tube? What are the lesions called?

A

Sturge Weber angiomatosis

Port wine stain or nevus flammeus

327
Q

What are the characteristics of Sturge-Weber angiomatosis?

A

In addition to nevus flammeus, patients have leptomeningeal angiomas that overlie the ipsilateral cerebral cortex. Typically associated with a convulsive disorder. May result in mental retardation or contralateral hemiplagia

328
Q

What term describes a benign tumor of lymphatic vessels? What type commonly occur in the mouth and where?

A

Lymphangioma

Cavernous lymphangiomas, most frequently on the tongue

“frog eggs or tapioca pudding”

329
Q

What term describes a benign tumor of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyoma

can be the smooth muscle around a blood vessel

330
Q

What term describes a benign neoplasm of skeletal muscle and where do they usually occur?

A

Rhabdomyoma

Heart, but if outside the heart then the Head and Neck

331
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma caused by adn what are the 4 types?

A

Caused by HHV-8

  • Classic: Older men of Italian, Jweish, Slavic descent; on legs
  • Endemic: African, poor prognosis
  • Iatrogenic: organ transplant recipients
  • AIDS related
332
Q

What term describes a malignancy of skeletal muscle? Who is usally affected by this?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Children (60% of soft tissue sarcomas of childhood)

Like rhabdomyomas and occur in face and orbit

333
Q

What is one possible explanation of Head and Neck metastasis in the absence of lung mets?

A

Batson’s plexus - a valveless vertebral venous plexus

334
Q

What is the most common site of metastases to the oral tissues?

A

The gingiva

335
Q

What are the oral symptoms related to anemia?

A

Erythematous, bald tongue, glosspyrosis, glossodynia

Mucosa may show pallor, Petechiae, spontaneous gingival hemorrhage

336
Q

What is thrombocytopenia and what can causes it?

A

Decreased number of circulating platelets

Reduced production (malignancy in bone marrow), Increased destruction (autoimmune), Sequestration in the spleen (conditions causing splenomegaly)

337
Q

What is normal platelet count? When is clinical evidence of thrombocytopenia usually seen? When can thrombocytopenia be fatal?

A

200,000-400,000 mm3

Below 100,000 mm#

Fatal if less than 10,000 mm3

338
Q

What is the difference in lymphoid hyperplasia on lymph nodes/tonsils in chronic and acute infections?

A

Chronic: enlarged, non tender, firm, freely movable nodules

Acute: enlarged, tender, soft, freely moveable

339
Q

What is neutropenia? What is this often associated with?

A

Decrease in the number of circulating neutrophils

Bacterial, viral, fungal infections becuase neutrophils are the first line of defense

340
Q

What is lymphopenia?

A

Decrease in lymphocytes

341
Q

What term describes several types of malignancies of hematopoietic stem cell derivation?

A

Leukemia

342
Q

What leukemia shows specific chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Chronic myeloid luekemia

Translocation of 9 and 22

343
Q

What is the most common childhood leukemia? What is the most common leukemia of adulthood?

A

Childhood: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Adulthood: Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

344
Q

What may be an oral sign of leukemia?

A

Infiltrate of leukemic cells may infiltrate = boggy, non tender swelling called granulocytic sarcoma

345
Q

What term describes a condition with pain and tenderness, with sharply demarcated radiolucencies and teeth floating in air? What are the different spectrums in this condition and how is diagnosis confirmed?

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

Eosinophilic granuloma of bone - no visceral involvement
Acute disseminated histiocytosis - mostly in infants (letterer-siwe disease)
Crhonich disseminated histocytosis (hand-Schuller Christian Disease)

Need id of lesional langheran cell to confirm dx – birbeck granules to distinguish them (done by electron microscopy)

346
Q

What is the most common lymphoma? And what cell are characteristic with this condition? What virus is associated with this?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cells

Epstein Barr Virus

347
Q

What cell is commonly affected in non-hodgkin’s lymphoma? What is the most common non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma of the oral cavity? What are some characteristics of it?

A

B-cell origin

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Non tender masses, fixed nodes, patietns may complain that their denture has become too tight

348
Q

What is the most common cutaneous lymphoma? What term describes an aggressive expression of this condition? And what are some histopathological features of this condition?

A

Mycosis Fungoides

Sezary syndrome

Epidermotropism (atypical lymphocytes invade the epithelium) – termed Sezary cells and they form small intraepithelial aggregates termed Pautrier’s microabscesses

349
Q

What terms describe a malignancy of B cell origin? What virus has been associated with it?? What is the histopathology associated with this malignancy?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma or African Burkitt’s lymphoma or B cell lymphoma

EBV

Starry sky pattern – solid sheet of B cells and occasional macrophages

350
Q

What lymphoma cause an aggressive, nonrelenting destruction of the midline structures of the palate and nasal process?

A

NK/T-cell lymphoma aka angiocentric T cell lymphoma

351
Q

What term describes a malignancy of plasma cell origin and is the most common hematologic malignancy of African Americans? What are the characteristics of this condition? Why does renal failure occur in these patients?

A

Multiple myeloma

Multiple well defined punched out RL especially in the skull

Kidneys become overburdened with Bence Jones proteins

352
Q

What term describes a unifocal, monoclonal neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells and what does it probably give rise to?

A

Plasmacytoma

Probably gives rise to multiple myeloma

353
Q

What is the cause of osteopetrosis? What are some other characteristics of osteopetrosis?

A

Failure of normal osteoclast function = widespread increase in skeletal density

Cranial nerve compression, delayed tooth eruption, osteomyelitis after extraction

354
Q

What term describes a syndrome complex characterized by dental and clavicle abnormalities? What are the other characteristics?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

Short stature, big head, pronounced frontal bossing, ocular hypertelorism, broad base of nose, prolonged retention of deciduous teeth, delay or failure of eruption of permanent teeth, numerous unerupted permanent and supernumerary teeth

355
Q

What term describes an isolated lesion in bone that looks like osteoporosis or a neoplasm?

A

Focal Osteoporotic Marrow Defect

356
Q

What term describes a focal area of increased radiodensity that is of unknown cause and cannot be attributed to anything else?

A

Idiopathic Osteosclerosis

357
Q

What term describes an abnormal resorption and deposition of bone? What are some characteristics of this condition? What is diagnostic of this condition?

A

Paget’s disease of bone

Maxillary disease is much more common, enlargement of the middle 1/3 of the face called leontiasis ossea, symmetrical and enlarged alveolar ridge (dentures no longer fit)

Cotton wool or cotton roll appearance in radiograph

High elevations in serum alkaline phosphatase levels with normal calcium and phosphorous levels

358
Q

What must patients be evaluated for if they have a central giant cell granuloma?

A

Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism and lesions of cherubism

359
Q

What are the characteristics of cherubism?

A

Developmental jaw condition that occurs between 2-5 years old

Bilateral involvement of the posterior mandible, infraorbital rim and orbital floor involvement = eyes turned up to heaven

360
Q

What are the characteristics of traumatic one cyst?

A

Benign, empty cavity
Cyst is a misnomer - no epithelial lining
Trauma hemorrhage theory
Scalloping between roots, teeth or vital

361
Q

What are the characteristics of a aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

“blood soaked sponge”
Not a true cyst
Blow out/Ballooning distension of the bone

362
Q

What term describes a sporadic condition resulting from a postzygotic mutation? What are the characteristics of the lesions?
What syndromes are associated with this condition?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

Ground glass appearance

Jaffe-Lichtenstein syndrome: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and Cafe au lait spots (coasts of maine)
McCune-Albright syndrome: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe au laits spots (coasts of Maine), sexual precocity, pituitary adenoma, hyperthyroidism
Mazabraud syndrome: has intramuscular myxomas

363
Q

What are the 3 types of cemento-osseous dysplasia? Who is most commonly affected by cemento-osseous dysplasia? Why is it important to not biopsy these conditions?

A

Focal: single sight of involvement in the posterior mandible
Periapical: involves the anterior mandible
Florid: multiple focal involvement not limited to the anterior mandible

Female, African Americans

Might lead to inflammation –> necrosis due to hypovascularity

364
Q

What term describes a true neoplasm with composed of a variable mixture of bone and cementum, and cause a downward bowing of the inferior cortex of the mandible?

A

Ossifying fibroma

365
Q

How is juvenile ossifying fibroma different from an ossifying fibroma?

A

It occurs in adolescent males, usually in the maxilla, and is more aggressive

366
Q

What is a benign tumor of mature bone? What is the most common location? What are some signs of an osteoma?

A

Osteoma
Paranasal sinus lesions are more common than gnathic lesions
Can have pain, swelling, sinusitis and nasal discharge

367
Q

What are the characteristics of Gardner Syndrome?

A

Colonic polyps that turn into adenocarcinoma, dental abnormalities (supernumerary teeth and odontomas), skeletal abnormalities (osteomas), epidermoid cysts, dermoid tumors, thyroid carcinoma, pigmented lesions of the ocular fundus

368
Q

What is the difference between osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma?

A

Produce prostaglandins, arise from osteoblasts, target like appearance

Osteoid osteoma = smaller than 2 cm, pain is relieved by aspirin

Osteoblastomas = larger and cannot be relieved by aspirin

369
Q

What term describes an odontogenic neoplasm of cementoblasts? How can you distinguish this growth from other periapical radiodensities?

A

Cementoblastomas

The PDL is obscured – mass is fused to tooth

Needs extraction

370
Q

What term describes a condition where swelling, pain and crepitus occur in the TMJ and loose bodies are seen on radiograph?

A

Synovial Chondromatosis

371
Q

What is the most common type of malignancy to originate within bone? What are the radiographic features?

A

Osteosarcoma

Root resorption –> spiking resorption
Widening of the PDL
Sunburst appearance (bony projections)
Codman’s triangle

372
Q

What term describes a sarcoma in a bone that has been previously subjected to radiation therapy?

A

Postirradiation bone sarcoma

373
Q

What term describes a malignant tumor of cartilage?

A

Chondrosarcoma

374
Q

What is the 3rd most common osseous neoplasm and occurs in young patients?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

375
Q

What is the most common form of cancer involving bone? Where does it originate from

A

Metastatic tumors to the jaws

Breast, Lung, Thyroid, Prostate, Kidney

376
Q

What are the characteristics of metastastic tumors to the jaws?

A

Pain, swelling, loosening of teeth, paresthesia (numb chin syndrome), widening of the PDL

Oral Pathology - My deck (22 decks)

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