Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What term describes a lesion around the nose or mouth with amber colored crusts?

A

Impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What bacteria cause impetigo?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep), and Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 forms of Impetigo?

A

Bullous and Non bullous; non bullous is the much more common one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What age group is commonly affected by non bullous impetigo?

A

Children and young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is another location of non bullous impetigo?

A

The legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe bullous impetigo.

A

More commonly seen in infants; Superficial vesicles that rapidly enlarge to from larger, flaccid bullae which rupture and develop and thin brown crust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If untreated, bullous impetigo can lead to which 3 things?

A

Meningitis, pneumonia, and glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What term describes inflammation of the tonsils and pharynx?

A

Tonsillitis and pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes tonsillitis and pharyngitis?

A

Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus, influenza virus and epstein barr virus – a majority of cases are caused by viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of tonsillitis pharyngitis?

A

Sore throat, dysphagia, tonsillar hyperplasia, fever, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is streptococcal pharyngitis and tonsillitis diagnosed and treated?

A

Diagnosed by throat culture; tx penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are possible sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis and tonsillitis?

A

Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, rheumatic heart diease, acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What term describes an infection that results from disseminated Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection?

A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the clinical oral features of scarlet fever.

A

First 2 days: White strawberry tongue - white coating with only fungiform papillae visible
4-5 days: Red strawberry tongue - erythematous dorsal surface with hyperplastic fungiform papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the dermatological features of scarlet fever?

A

Skin erythema at 1 week, and desquamation at 3-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What term describes a rash in areas of pressure and skin folds presenting as transverse red streaks, caused by scarlet fever?

A

Pastia’s lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the possible complications of scarlet fever?

A

Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What term describes a foul smelling

compaction of desquamated keratin and foreign material in the tonsils?

A

Tonsillar concretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which species of bacteria usually colonizes tonsillar concretions?

A

Actinomyces spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What term describes if tonsillar concretions undergo dystrophic calicification?

A

Tonsillolith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the main issue with tonsillar concretions?

A

Can promote recurrent tonsillar infections, but are otherwise asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some at home treatments for tonsillar concretions?

A

Gargle warm salt water and/or use pulsating jets of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which bacteria causes diphtheria?

A

Cornebacterium diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Humans are the ______ _______ of diphtheria.

A

Sole reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which bacteria causes syphilis?
Treponema pallidum (spirochete)
26
How is syphilis primarily transmitted?
Sexual contact and from mother to fetus
27
In which population is syphilis more common?
In men and in African Americans (socioeconomic status)
28
Describe primary syphilis.
Chancre, a painless ulceration, that develops at the site of inoculation (3-90 days after inaculation)
29
What are the most common sites of primary syphilis?
The anus and external genitalia -- oral lesions account for 2%
30
Describe secondary syphilis.
Disseminated syphilis - painless lymphadenopathy, and a painless, maculopapular cutaneous, widespread rash. Some patients may have a mucous patch in the oral cavity
31
Describe tertiary syphilis.
Latent syphilis - possible cardiac complications, ocular lesions, syphillitic glossitis, gumma
32
What is gumma?
Intraoral lesions of granulomatous inflammation that affect the tongue or palate
33
What is Hutchinson's triad?
Hutchinson's incisors (and mulberry molars), ocular interstitial keratitis, 8th nerve deafness - saddle nose is also associated with Hutchinson't triad
34
What STD is associated with Hutchinson's triad?
Congenital syphilis
35
Which STD is the most common reportable infectious disease in the US?
Gonorrhea
36
What bacteria causes gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonnorhoeae
37
How is gonorrhea transmitted?
Sexual contact, and during birth can get into infant's eyes
38
What term describes a gonorrheal infection of an infant's eye?
Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
39
In females, gonorrhea may progress to ____.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
40
What are the signs and symptoms of gonorrhea?
Purulent discharge, dysuria
41
What microorganism causes tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
42
What is the morphology of M tuberculosis?
Acid fast bacillus
43
How is tuberculosis transmitted?
Airborne droplets
44
What term describes tuberculosis of the skin?
Lupus vulgaris
45
What term describes an mycobacterial infection caused by drinking contaminated milk?
Scrofula
46
What does TB on the tongue and palate clinically present as?
Painless, chronic, non healing ulceration This is disseminated TB
47
Describe the histology of TB.
Granulomas with central areas of necrosis (caseating granulomatous inflammation)
48
What bacteria causes leprosy?
Mycobacterium leprae
49
Where are endemic areas for leprosy?
Louisiana, Texas and Hawaii
50
Where are most cases of Leprosy?
Brazil, India, Indonesia, Myanmar, Nigeria
51
What animal is a host?
Nine banded armadillo
52
What are the 2 main categories of leprosy?
Tuberculoid leprosy and Lepromatous leprosy
53
Tuberculoid leprosy is also known as ___________ leprosy.
Paucibacillary leprosy
54
Lepromatous leprosy is also known as _________ leprosy.
Multibacillary leprosy
55
What term describes a very act fasting infection that is polymicrobial, opportunistic, and spreads though anatomic barriers?
Noma
56
What disease most frequently precedes development of Noma?
Measles
57
What condition does Noma frequently begin as?
Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (Periodontitis)
58
Which bacteria are frequently associated with Noma?
Fusobacterium necrophorum, and Prevotella intermedia
59
Describe the zones of necrosis in Noma.
Necrotic areas are well defined and unilateral
60
How is Noma treated?
ABX, correct nutrition, conservative debridement | 95% mortality is untreated
61
What bacteria causes actinomycosis?
Actinomyces israelii
62
Where does Actinomyces israelii typically colonize in humans?
Tonsillar crypts, Plaque and Carious dentin
63
What is a characteristic of actinomycosis caused by an odontogenic infection?
Suppuration and discharge of yellow material (sulfur granules), that represent colonies of bacteria
64
Which disease is the most common cause of chronic lymphadenopathy in children?
Cat scratch disease
65
What bacteria causes cat scratch disease?
Bartonella henselae
66
Describe the pathogenesis of cat scratch disease.
Begins in the skin, then classically spreads to adjacent lymph nodes
67
In what population does cat scratch disease usually occur in?
Patients younger than 21
68
In cat scratch disease, what term describes a primary lesions adjacent to the eye that results in conjuctival granulomas with preauricular lymphadenopathy?
Oculoglandular syndrome of Parinaud
69
How is cat scratch disease usually treated?
It is usually self limiting and will resolve after 4 months
70
What condition is one of the most common health complaints in the US, and is usually caused by blockage of the ostiomeatal complex?
Sinusitis
71
What are the most common predisopsing factors of sinusitis?
Allergic rhinitis, and upper respiratory tract viral infection
72
At what point does sinusitis become chronic sinusitis?
After 3 months of recurring episodes of acute/symptomatic sinus disease
73
What term describes a calcified mass in the sinus?
Antrolith
74
What are the classic symptoms of maxillary sinusitis?
Increased pain when head is upright, and decreased pain when patient is supine.
75
True or False: A sinus infection does not can't cause pain in several teeth.
False. A sinus infection should be strongly considered when patients complain of pain from several teeth
76
How is chronic sinusitis treated?
ABX, but if patient is unresponsive surgical correction to enlarge the ostial openings may be considered. However, surgical correction should be avoided in children,