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Anatomy 2 > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

4 membranes develop which will protect and nourish the embryo:

A

Yolk Sac
Amnion
Chorion
Allantois

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2
Q

Yolk Sac

A
  • early site of blood formation
  • comes from endoderm
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3
Q

Amnion

A
  • membrane that surrounds developing embryo and is filled with amniotic fluid
  • comes from ectoderm
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4
Q

Chorion

A
  • membrane that becomes a portion of the placenta and secretes hCG
  • comes from trophoblast
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5
Q

Allantois

A
  • early site of blood formation
  • comes from endoderm
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6
Q

3 possible functions/things that the Allantois membrane can become

A
  1. RBC
  2. umbilical cord
  3. urinary bladder
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7
Q

PLACENTA FORMATION: The placenta is responsible for bringing ___ and _______ to the fetus and taking away waste products, including ____. When fully functional, (3 - 4 months) the placenta will produce ________ and _________

A

PLACENTA FORMATION: The placenta is responsible for bringing O2 and nutrients to the fetus and taking away waste products, including CO2. When fully functional, (3 - 4 months) the placenta will produce progesterone and estrogen.

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8
Q

The human gestation period is about

A

40 weeks

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9
Q

measurement of gestation: 266 days vs 280 days

A

266 days- measured after ovulation
280 days- measured from the beginning of the last cycle (mensturation)

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10
Q

3 stages of labor and how long each takes

A

Stage of Dilation (hours)
Stage of Expulsion (minutes)
Placental Stage (minutes)

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11
Q

Name of the delivery of baby

A

Paturition

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12
Q

What do pregnancy tests detect?

A

hCG

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13
Q

Start of dilation is due to ______

A

cortisol

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14
Q

Labor: ACTH –>

A

ACTH –> adrenal (cortisol) –> increase in prostaglandin, decrease in progesterone –> oxytocin

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15
Q

Start of labor =
End result of labor =

A

Start of labor = adrenal (cortisol)
End result of labor = oxytocin

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16
Q

DNA is broken down into individual _______

A

chromosomes

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17
Q

Chromosomes are composed of individual ______

A

genes

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18
Q

Each gene codes for..

A

1 trait

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19
Q

These 46 chromosomes can be arranged in ______ ______. Each chromosome of the pair, one from the mother and the other from the father, will have the same_____, same ______, and carry the same complement of genetic information.

A

These 46 chromosomes can be arranged in HOMOLOGOUS PAIRS. Each chromosome of the pair, one from the mother and the other from the father, will have the same shape , same size and carry the same complement of genetic information.

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20
Q

Chromosomal pairs 1-___ are classified as ______ _________ whereas pair ___ contains the ____ _________– the chromosomes that contain the information that determines the sex of the individual.

A

Chromosomal pairs 1-22 are classified as AUTOSOMAL CHROMOSOMES, whereas pair 23 contains the SEX CHROMOSOMES – the chromosomes that contain the information that determines the sex of the individual.

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21
Q

Male and female embryos develop identically until

A

7 weeks after fertilization

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22
Q

What gene determines male or female?

A

SRY gene

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23
Q

Absence of the SRY gene

A

female

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24
Q

Presence of the SRY gene

A

male

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25
Q

Is it possible to be XY and not a male?

A

Yes

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26
Q

The variations of a gene

A

Alleles

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27
Q

If alleles are the same the person can be said to be ________ If the alleles are different then the person is ________

A

If these alleles are the same the person can be said to be HOMOZYGOUS. If the alleles are different then the person is HETEROZYGOUS.

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28
Q

Y chromosome vs X chromosome

A

The Y chromosome ONLY has genes for sex characteristics, while the X chromosome has genes for sex chromosomes AND other traits

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29
Q

Genotype

A

Listing of alleles present; the genetic makeup of an organism

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30
Q

Phenotype

A

The trait that is expressed; what is visually seen

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31
Q

Phenotypes are based on what’s

A

dominant and recessive

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32
Q

Having a blood type AB is considered

A

codominant

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33
Q

Just because something is dominant,

A

doesn’t mean it’s normal or most common

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34
Q

Carrier is when

A

1 of the 2 alleles is recessive, so despite it being hidden, it can be passed to the next generation

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35
Q

Cystic fibrosis leads to

A

increased thickness of mucus

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36
Q

It is important during any type of cell division, that chromosomal pairs divide equally. During meiosis, _________ of the chromosomes can occur, leading to ________ distribution of _________ in the gametes and problems in the offspring.

A

It is important during any type of cell division, that chromosomal pairs divide equally. During meiosis, NONDISJUNCTION of the chromosomes can occur, leading to unequal distribution of chromosomes in the gametes and problems in the offspring.

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37
Q

Examples of nondisjunction

A

Things like Turner’s Syndrome, Metafemale Syndrome, and Klinefelter’s Syndrome

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38
Q

What connects the anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus?

A

HHPV

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39
Q

Hormones of the anterior pituitary

A

Growth hormone
Prolactin
Thyroid stimulating hormone

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40
Q
  1. Corticotropin RH (CRH) =
  2. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) =
A
  1. hypothalamus
  2. anterior pituitary
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41
Q

Anything with Rh in it, like GhRh, goes to the ______ _____(instead of the target organ assigned to it)

A

anterior pituitary

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42
Q

The hypothalamus makes two posterior pituitary glands: ______ and _______

How do they travel to the P.P?

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

(HHT)

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43
Q

Does the posterior pituitary gland make hormones?

A

No, it just stores it. The hypothalamus makes them

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44
Q

What connects the posterior pituitary to the hypothalamus?

A

HHT

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45
Q

Negative feedback

A

A stimulus initiates actions that will stop the stimulus

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46
Q

Positive feedback

A

A stimulus initiates actions that will prolong the stimulus

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47
Q

_____ is one of the rare examples of _________ in the body

A

Oxytocin
Positive feedback

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48
Q

Humoral Stimulus

A

hormone release caused by altered levels of certain critical ions or nutrients in the blood

ex) Calcitonin

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49
Q

Neural Stimulus

A

hormone release caused by neural input

ex) Epinephrine

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50
Q

Hormonal Stimulus

A

hormone release caused by another hormone

ex) Thyroid

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51
Q

Ovaries and testes are a _______ stimulus

A

hormonal

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52
Q

The thyroid gland is a _____ stimulus and releases _______

A

Humoral stimulus
Calcitonin

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53
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Target Organs: bone and muscle
Effect: growth

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54
Q

Hyposecretion of GH as a child =
Hypersecretion of GH as a child =
Hypersecretion as an adult =

A

Dwarfism
Giantism
Acromeagly

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55
Q

Oxytocin & Prolactin have ______ with ____ and _____

A

Oxytocin & Prolactin have synergism with estrogen and progesterone

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56
Q

Oxytocin

A

Target Organs: mammary glands and uterus
Effect: stimulates uterine contractions and milk letdown

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57
Q

Prolactin

A

Target Organ: mammary gland
Effect: stimulates lactation

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58
Q

Parathyroid glands are a _____ stimulus and releases

A

humoral
PTH

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59
Q

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
- target organ and effect

A

Target organ: Thyroid Gland
Effect (T3 and T4): regulates cellular metabolism

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60
Q

T3 and T4 are high

A

TSH and TRH decrease

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61
Q

TRH- from______
TSH- from ______
T3, T4 from ______

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Thyroid gland

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62
Q

T3 and T4 are low

A

TSH and TRH increase

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63
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A

Target Organ: kidneys
Effect: increases water retention and decreases urine output

Hyposecretion = diabetes

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64
Q

______ of ADH causes ______

A

hyposecretion
diabetes

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65
Q

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Juvenile onset (usually kids)
Insulin-dependent (requires insulin, they completely lack it)

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66
Q

Gestational Diabetes

A

Temporary, during pregnancy
May become type 2 diabetic after pregnancy
Baby may come out to be 12+ lbs

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67
Q

Diabetes Mellitus leads to fasting ______

A

hyperglycemia

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68
Q

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Adults
Resistance to insulin
Non-insulin dependent
Linked to obesity

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69
Q

Diabetes Mellitus, PU/PD:
Results from _________of _______, causing ______ _____ levels to remain ____

A

Results from hyposecretion of insulin, causing blood glucose levels to remain high

PU/PD = pee and drink alot

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70
Q

Blood cells are formed by a process called ______. Within the red bone marrow, there are undifferentiated stem cells called __________, which will give rise to either RBCs. WBCs and platelets.

A

Blood cells are formed by a process called HEMOPOIESIS. Within the red bone marrow, there are undifferentiated stem cells called HEMOCYTOBLASTS, which will give rise to either RBCs. WBCs and platelets.

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71
Q

The process of RBC production is called _______. It occurs in the _____ beginning with as all formed elements do, _______

A

Erythropoiesis
Red bone marrow
Hemocytoblasts

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72
Q

Cells stages present in erythropoiesis:

A

Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast —-> Reticulocyte —> RBC

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73
Q

How long does it take for a hemocytoblast to become a mature RBC?

A

1 week

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74
Q

Erythrocytes
-shape
-composed of ____ = an _____
- adult vs early stages?

A

-Biconcave discs

-Composed of hemoglobin= an oxygen-carrying pigment

-As an adult, they lack a nucleus and mitochondria, but they had them during the early stages of an erythrocyte

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75
Q

Hemoglobin contains

A

4 polypeptides, heme, and iron

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76
Q

Benefits of the biconcave shape of erythrocytes

A

increased surface area and gives cell more flexibility to squeeze through small vessels

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77
Q

Which section has a nucleus, and where is each section found
Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast —-> Reticulocyte —> RBC

A

Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast } all have a nucleus and are only found in the red bone marrow. takes 3-4 days.

Reticulocyte —> RBC } no nucleus and is only found in the blood. takes 1-2 days.

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78
Q

What’s the stimulus for Erythropoietin?

A

Hypoxia

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79
Q

The number of RBCs must be kept constant. The body maintains this level by ______, a hormone that controls ______. It’s released by the _____ which stimulated the red bone marrow to increase RBC production. The direct stimulus is _____, which means __________.

A

The number of RBCs must be kept constant. The body maintains this level by ERYTHROPOIETIN, a hormone that controls ERYTHROPOIESIS. It’s released by the KIDNEYS which stimulated the red bone marrow to increase RBC production. The direct stimulus is HYPOXIA, which means LACK OF ADEQUATE O2 AT TISSUE LEVEL.

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80
Q

Anemia
-what is it
-symptoms
-3 main causes

A

Reduced oxygen-carrying ability in the blood due to a decrease in RBCs/hemoglobin level

Fatigue, pale, cold

Not produced, lost, destroyed

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81
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia

A

Lost

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82
Q

Hemolytic anemia

A

Destroyed

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83
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Not produced

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84
Q

Dietary anemia

A

Not produced

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85
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

Not produced

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86
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Destroyed

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87
Q

Abnormal increase of RBCs/too many RBCs is called _____

A

Polycythemia

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88
Q

Primary polycythemia (absolute) vs Secondary polycythemia (relative)

A

In both cases, the blood is too thick. The result is the same but the cause is different.

Primary/Absolute: red bone marrow is overactive so it can’t get oxygen around fast enough

Secondary/Relative: due to dehydration

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89
Q

2 types of WBCs and a description/ex.

A

granular WBCs- 1 lobed nucleus, granules in cytoplasm. ex: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

agranular WBCs- 1 nucleus (not lobed), no granules in cytoplasm. ex: lymphocytes and monocytes

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90
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Attraction of phagocytes to microbes by a chemical stimulus

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91
Q

Diapedesis

A

The movement of WBCs from the blood into tissues

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92
Q

Official names of formed elements

A

Red blood cells = erythrocytes
White blood cells = leukocytes
Platelets = thrombocytes

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93
Q

Thrombocytes
-percent of blood
-fragments of _____
-survives for _____
-produced from
-functions to

A

1% of blood

Fragments of megakaryocytes

Survives for 5 days

Produced from hemocytoblasts

Functions to prevent blood loss (clotting)

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94
Q

3 phases of hemostasis

A

Vascular Spasms
Platelet Plug
Coagulation (blood clotting)

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95
Q

Coagulation

A

During coagulation, a clot is formed in the injured area

-Procoagulants
-Anticoagulants

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96
Q

Procoagulants

A

Substances that enhances the clot formation: (called clotting factors)

Most are made by the liver and requires vitamin K

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97
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Substances that inhibit the formation of a clot

Endogenous anticoagulants: Heparin, Antithrombin
Exogenous anticoagulants: Heparin, Coumadin, EDTA

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98
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Removes the unneeded clot when healing occurs
Begins within 2 days (and continues over several days until the clot is dissolved)

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99
Q

T-pa could be used as

A

treatment of a myocardial infection

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100
Q

t-PA

A

activates plasminogen (converts plasminogen to plasmin)

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101
Q

What actually breaks down the clot?

A

Plasmin.

t-PA just converts plasminogen to plasmin, which is the one to break it down

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102
Q

Plasminogen

A

an inactive blood protein that needs to be activated by t-PA to become plasmin, an active enzyme

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103
Q

On the surface of RBCs

A

antigen

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104
Q

Those who have antigen A of the surface of their RBC have type __ blood

A

A

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105
Q

Those without antigen A or B have type ___ blood. Those with both antigen A and B have type ___ blood.

A

O

AB

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106
Q

Antibodies

A

Located in the plasma and react with the antigens of other blood types

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107
Q

When incompatible bloods are mixed together, the most dangerous reaction occurs between the ____ of the donor and the _____ of the recipient

A

antigens

antibodies

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108
Q

List each blood type and its antigens and antibodies

Type A:
Type B:
Type AB:
Type O:

A

Type A:
A antigen and anti-B antibodies

Type B:
B antigen and anti-A antibodies

Type AB:
A and B antigens and no antibodies

Type O:
No antigens and anti-A and anti-B antibodies

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109
Q

Universital Recipient and why

A

AB, no antibodies so the blood won’t attack any blood its given

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110
Q

Universal Donor and why

A

Type O, no antigens, won’t attack any blood that it gives

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111
Q

Those who have Rh antigens on their RBCs are

Those who don’t are

A

Rh positive

Rh negative

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112
Q

Normally there are no __________ in the blood of Rh- people. However, they develop ___ exposure to Rh+ blood. This differs from ABO antibodies that are always there in the plasma starting from birth.

A

anti-Rh antibodies

after

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113
Q

Problems can occur in a pregnancy if the mom is Rh ___ and the child is Rh ___. If this happens, _____ ___ __ __ ____ may occur which may be treatable, but is preventable

A

negative
positive
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

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114
Q

B- has no ___ ______, unless it is mentioned that B- has received a previous blood tranfusion by someone with B+ blood, in which it ________

A

Rh antibodies

does have Rh antibodies

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115
Q

Whole blood is composed of a fluid portion called _____ and solid portion called _____ _______. These include ______, ______, and ______

A

Plasma

Formed elements

RBCs, WBCs, and platelets

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116
Q

Majority of whole blood is composed of

A

plasma (55%)

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117
Q

Which is the majority of formed elements? RBCs, WBCs, or platelets?

A

RBCs

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118
Q

The absence of mitochondria in an erythrocyte causes 3 things:

A

1) more hemoglobin
2) shorted erythrocyte lifespan
3) unused oxygen (the sole purpose of erythrocytes is to carry oxygen to others)

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119
Q

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry ___ molecules

A

4

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120
Q

A low reticulocyte count may indicate ___ or ___. A high reticulocyte count may indicate a ____ ____ ____.

A

anemia or leukemia

recent blood loss

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121
Q

Regenerative anemia

A

5% reticulocyte count

over-generating reticulocytes, possible recent blood loss

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122
Q

Nonregenerative anemia

A

0% reticulocyte count

Under-generating reticulocytes may indicate anemia or leukemia. 0% might make sense if they just lost a lot of blood.

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123
Q

% of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils in the blood

A

60-70% neutrophils (majority)

2-4% eosinophils

.5-1% basophils

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124
Q

Neutrophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow
function: phagocytosis

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125
Q

Eosinophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow
function: allergy + parasites

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126
Q

Basophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow
function: histamine + heparin

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127
Q

Lymphocytes

A

function: antibodies
tissue developed in red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

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128
Q

Monocytes

A

function: phagocytosis
tissue developed in red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

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129
Q

Hemostasis

A

A hemostatic process that will stop the loss of blood (balance of the blood)

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130
Q

3 steps to platelet plug formation

A
  1. Platelet adhesion
  2. Platelet activation
  3. Platelet aggregation
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131
Q

Describe the three steps to platelet plug formation:

First comes ______ ______, which is where the thrombocytes ____ to exposed collagen with the assistance of ____ _________ ___.

Second is _____ _______, which releases ________ to ______additional thrombocytes to the area

Lastly is _______ _______, where ____ thrombocytes stick to existing ones with the assistance of _______, creating a plug

A

First comes platelet adhesion, which is where the thrombocytes stick to exposed collagen with the assistance of von wilebrand factor.

Second is the platelet activation, which releases prostaglandin to attract additional thrombocytes to the area

Lastly is platelet aggregation, where new thrombocytes stick to existing ones with the assistance of fibrinogen, creating a plug

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132
Q

Von Willebrand factor

A

Platelet adhesion

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133
Q

Prostaglandin is released during what stage of platelet plug formation?

A

platelet activation

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134
Q

What stage of platelet plug formation involves fibrinogen?

A

Platelet aggregation

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135
Q

Explain the effects of aspirin

A

Antiprostaglandin prevents prostaglandin from woking, preventing the plug from forming

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136
Q

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn: 2 points

A

Normally, there won’t be problems with the first pregnancy, but the formation of Rh antibodies will cause problems in later pregnncies

The mixing of blood occurs during labor. The blood of the newborn and the mother are separate during the pregnancy

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137
Q

What is given to Rh- mothers during pregnancy (and within 72 hrs after delivery)?

A

An injection of Rhogam (doesn’t allow anti-Rh antibodies to form)

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138
Q

Fibrous pericardium

A

the outer tough fibrous CT sac that surrounds the heart, preventing overfilling

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139
Q

Serous pericardium

This _______ ____ is filled with a few milliliters of _____ _____

A

the thinner, more delicate membrane that is composed of 2 layers (parietal and visceral) with a small space in between.

This PERICARDIAL SPACE is filled with a few milliliters of PERICARDIAL FLUID.

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140
Q

Myocardial Infarction
-definition and cause

A

A heart attack, in which there is death of an area of the myocardium due to interruption of the blood supply. When this occurs, the normal contractile muscle dies and is replaced by fibrous connective tissue (scar tissue) that does not contract.

Cause: thrombus formation in the coronary artery.

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141
Q

SA node originates the _____ and is called the _____ of the heart

A

impulse
pacemaker

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142
Q

HEART MURMUR: abnormal sound heard _______________, or that may mask these normal heart sounds. Generally, it is due to a valve not ______ completely or abnormal valve ______.

____ ______occurs around valve and it is heard as a murmur. Not necessarily a pathology as these are often heard in young children due to thin cardiac walls leading to vibrations.

A

HEART MURMUR: abnormal sound heard BEFORE OR AFTER THE LUB-DUP, or that may mask these normal heart sounds. Generally, it is due to a valve not CLOSING completely or abnormal valve ANATOMY.

BLOOD TURBULENCE occurs around valve and it is heard as a murmur. Not necessarily a pathology as these are often heard in young children due to thin cardiac walls leading to vibrations.

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143
Q

Systole

A

phase of contraction
(high pressures)

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144
Q

Diastole

A

phase of relaxation
(low pressures)

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145
Q

Cardiac Output is the

A

amount of blood ejected by each ventricle per minutes

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146
Q

Cardiac Output equation

A

CO = Stroke Volume X Heart Rate

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147
Q

Stroke volume is the

A

amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle per beat

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148
Q

Intrinsic regulation:

The amount of blood that is able to fill the ventricles prior to depolarization and the resulting stretching to the ventricular walls is termed the _______. An increased preload due to exercise for example leads to an increase in _____ ____ by causing an increase in stroke volume. This relationship is referred to ______________of the Heart.

A

The amount of blood that is able to fill the ventricles prior to depolarization and the resulting stretching to the ventricular walls is termed the PRELOAD. An increased preload due to exercise for example leads to an increase in CARDIAC OUTPUT by causing an increase in stroke volume. This relationship is referred to FRANK-STARLINGS LAW of the Heart.

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149
Q

Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium

Definition and which is the largest layer?

A

Epicardium- thin, external layer of the heart
Myocardium- cardiac muscle layer, in the middle, intercalated discs, striated, involuntary
Endocardium- thin, lines the inside of the heart
Myocardium is the largest layer

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150
Q

The heart is angled obliquely with the apex pointing towards the LEFT HIP resting on the DIAPHRAGM. It’s also enclosed in a PERICARDIAL SAC which has 2 layers, the FIBROUS PERICARDIUM, and the SEROUS PERICARDIUM.
List the order of the pericardial sac from the outside-in

The ____ is the same layer as the ____

A
  1. Fibrous pericardium
  2. Serous pericardium
  3. Parietal
  4. Visceral

The visceral is the same layer as the epicardiu

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151
Q

Valves function to

A

prevent backflow of the blood

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152
Q

List the blood flow THROUGH the heart and whether it’s deoxy. or oxygenated blood

A

SVC, IVC, or CS –> right atrium –> tricuspid valve –> right ventricle –> pulmonary valve –> pulmonary artery –> LUNGS –> pulmonary vein –> left atrium –> bicuspid valve –> left ventricle –> aortic valve –> aorta –> BODY

everything before the lungs (right side of the heart) is deoxygenated blood, and everything after (left side of the heart), is oxygenated

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153
Q

Where does the impulse start in the heart?

A

SA node

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154
Q

Conduction system through the heart:
1. Under normal conditions, cardiac excitation begins the ___ _____ located in the wall of the ____ ____. Each impulse (action potential) from the SA node travels through both atria and cause them to contract.

  1. The impulse moves down to the ___ _____, located in the superior portion of the _________ ____. It is then stimulated and sends the action potential to….
  2. the _____ ___ ___ then to the……
  3. _____ and _____ _____ _____ within the interventricular septum.
  4. Finally, the impulse is passed to the _______ _____, taking the impulse to the myocardium of the ventricles and causing a contraction of the ventricles.
A
  1. Under normal conditions, cardiac excitation begins the SINOATRIAL NODE (SA node), located in the wall of the RIGHT ATRIUM. Each impulse (action potential) from the SA node travels through both atria and cause them to contract.
  2. The impulse moves down to the ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODE (AV node), located in the superior portion of the INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM. It is then stimulated and sends the action potential to….
  3. the BUNDLE OF HIS then to the……
  4. RIGHT and LEFT BRANCH BUNDLES within the interventricular septum.
  5. Finally, the impulse is passed to the PURKINJE FIBERS, taking the impulse to the myocardium of the ventricles and causing a contraction of the ventricles.
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155
Q

Heart: 1st sound occurs

A

during the QRS and is due to the closing of the AV valves

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156
Q

Heart: 2nd sound occurs

A

during the T wave and is due to the closing of the SLV valves

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157
Q

P wave

A

atrial depolarization
AV open, SLV closed

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158
Q

QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization
AV closing, SLV open (1st sound)

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159
Q

T wave

A

ventricular repolarization
SLV closing (2nd sound)
AV closed

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160
Q

What causes a heart murmur?

A

Blood turbulence

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161
Q

What causes the heart sounds heard with a stethoscope?

A

Closure of the valves

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162
Q

How is cardiac output adjusted?

A

Stroke Volume X Heart Rate

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163
Q

Arteries:
vessels carrying blood ___ from the heart
usually this blood is ____
large diameter: ____ arteries and ____ arteries
3 layers of tissue

A

vessels carrying blood AWAY from the heart
usually, this blood is OXYGENATED
large diameter: ELASTIC arteries and MUSCULAR arteries
3 layers of tissue

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164
Q

Arterioles and metarterioles

A

connects arteries with capillaries

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165
Q

Capillaries:
a. Composed of single layer of ______
b. Lumen size large enough to allow one ___to flow per unit time - allows for ______________;_______
c. exist in capillary ___ (capillary networks) - when tissue needs are low, blood will flow only through a ___ portion of the network. When needs increase, the entire capillary bed is full of blood. Regulated by: _________________________________. Blood can also be shunted through the capillary bed going from the metarteriole to a _______ _____

A

a. endothelium
b. RBC- allows for exchange of nutrients/wastes; decreased velocity
c. bed, small

Regulated by: precapillary sphincters

thoroughfare channel

166
Q

Veins

A
  • carries blood towards the heart
  • usually carries deoxygenated blood
  • 3 tunicas which are very thin with a large lumen
167
Q

Edema

A

an abnormal increase in interstitial fluid

168
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

pushes fluid out of capillary

169
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

pulls fluid back into capillary

170
Q

Problems with hypertension
Heart effects:
Vessel effects:

A

Heart effects: afterload
Vessel effects: elasticity

171
Q

Hypertension:
Normally occurs when individual is physically or emotionally stressed. However, ________ _______ is constant high B/P over time and is also called the ______ _____. The person may feel fine for 10 - 20 years, but have increasing B/P. This slowly strains the heart and vessels. (140/90)
Hypertension also causes damage to the endothelial layer of the vessels leading to atherosclerosis and finally arteriosclerosis (hardening of the arteries).

A

However, PERSISTENT HYPERTENSION is constant high B/P over time and is also called the SILENT KILLER. The person may feel fine for 10 - 20 years, but have increasing B/P. This slowly strains the heart and vessels. (140/90)
Hypertension also causes damage to the endothelial layer of the vessels leading to atherosclerosis and finally arteriosclerosis (hardening of the arteries).

172
Q

Hypotension

A

Low BP
If the BP is extremely low, it could cause kidney shutdown

173
Q

Circulatory Shock

A

Inadequate perfusion to the tissues

174
Q

Symptoms of shock

A

Fast HR
Weak pulse
Cold
Pale (gingiva)
CRT is <2 secs

175
Q

What layer is affected in vasoconstriction/dilatation?

A

Tunica media

176
Q

What vessel will have the greatest effect on vasoconstriction/vasodilation?

artery
venule
arteriole
vein

A

arteriole

177
Q

Summary of where blood vessels are carried:

A

Heart -> arteries -> arterioles -> metarteriole -> capillary -> venules -> veins -> heart

178
Q

In veins. there is no ____ _____ in the tunica interna, meaning they stay dilated. This is also why you wouldn’t measure pulse or blood pressure. However, they’re great for _____ ____

A

elastic membrane
drawing blood

179
Q

3 Tunicas of veins:

A
  1. Tunica interna: endothelium
  2. Tunica media: smooth muscle (not as much as arteries though)
  3. Tunica externa: thickest, mainly composed of collagen
180
Q

3 distinct layers of arteries:
1. Tunica Intima: deepest tunica consisting of ______ = single layer of epithelial cells lining the heart and vessels and an _____ _____ ______
2. Tunica Media: ____ layer consisting of ____ muscle and an _____ _____ membrane
3. Tunic Externa: _____ and _____fibers

A
  1. deepest tunica consisting of ENDOTHELIUM = single layer of epithelial cells lining the HEART and VESSELS, and an INTERNAL ELASTIC MEMBRANE
  2. usually thickest layer consisting of SMOOTH MUSCLE and in some vessels, an EXTERNAL ELASTIC MEMBRANE
  3. elastic and collagen fibers
181
Q

Capillaries are the site of material moving in and out of the circulatory system. There is gas exchange occurring at the tissue level and there is ____ _____ of large amounts of ions, proteins, other nutrients and water.
The bulk flow ___ of the capillary occurs at the arteriole end. At the venule end, the fluid moves ____ the capillary from the tissue spaces. In health, approximately 85% of the fluid at the arteriole ends of the capillaries is reabsorbed at the venule end. Some of the escaped fluid and proteins will be returned to the blood via the lymphatic system. Approximately 20 liters of fluid filters out of the capillaries each day, 17 liters will be reabsorbed by the capillary and 3 liters enter the lymphatics. The _______ ______ forces fluid out of the capillary while _____ _____ helps to return fluid back to the vessel.

A

Capillaries are the site of material moving in and out of the circulatory system. There is gas exchange occurring at the tissue level and there is BULK FLOW of large amounts of ions, proteins, other nutrients and water.
The bulk flow OUT of the capillary occurs at the arteriole end. At the venule end, the fluid moves INTO the capillary from the tissue spaces. In health, approximately 85% of the fluid at the arteriole ends of the capillaries is reabsorbed at the venule end. Some of the escaped fluid and proteins will be returned to the blood via the lymphatic system. Approximately 20 liters of fluid filters out of the capillaries each day, 17 liters will be reabsorbed by the capillary and 3 liters enter the lymphatics. The HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE forces fluid out of the capillary while ONCOTIC PRESSURE helps to return fluid back to the vessel.

182
Q

If bulk flow is impaired, an edema results. What are 4 possible causes of edema?

A
  • Blocked lymphatics
  • Increased hydrostatic pressure
  • Decreased oncotic pressure
  • Increased capillary permeability
183
Q

Common pulse locations

A

neck- carotid artery
wrist- radial artery
groin- femoral artery

184
Q

Pulse is always measured with

A

arteries

185
Q

From where is blood collected?

A

veins

186
Q

What types of shock are due to hypovolemia? What does hypovolemia mean?

A

Hemorrhagic shock
Plasma loss shock
Dehydration

hypovoleima = low blood volume

187
Q

What types of shock are due to vasodialation

A

Anesthesia
Anaphylactic shock
Infection
Neurogenic

188
Q

Fetal Circulation
Circulation in the fetus is different than in the adult human because the _____ are nonfunctional. The fetus derives its oxygen and nutrients from maternal blood and eliminates its wastes into the maternal blood by diffusion.

A

Lungs are nonfunctional

189
Q
  1. Umbilical vein becomes
A

the ligamentum teres

190
Q
  1. Ductus venosus
A

becomes the ligamentum venosum
bypasses the liver

191
Q
  1. Umbilical artery
A

becomes the median umbilical ligaments

192
Q
  1. Foramen Ovale
A

becomes the fossa ovalis
bypasses the lungs
connects the right and left atrium

193
Q
  1. Ductus Arteriosus
A

becomes the ligamentum arteriosum
bypasses the lungs
connects the pulmonary artery and aorta

194
Q

Spleen- functions

A
  • Blood production (fetus)
  • Immune function
  • Removes old RBCs
195
Q

Thymus
-secretes ______ which allows for..
-____ ______

A

-location is anterior and superior to heart
-secretes hormones (THYMOSIN) which allows for the maturation of the T lymphocyte.
-age dependent

196
Q

Tonsils: MALT

A

Mucosa
Associated
Lymph
Tissue

197
Q

Innate Immunity

A
  • Functional at birth
  • No memory (nonspecific defense)
198
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A
  • Develops as a person ages
  • Memory (specific defense)
199
Q

Components of innate immunity:

A

Species Resistance
Mechanical Barriers
Chemical Mediators
Natural Killer Cells
Phagocytes
Inflammatory Response
Fever

200
Q

How do interferons work?

A

It protects neighboring unaffected cells

201
Q

Innate immunity:
Examples of complement activites (summary)

A
  1. Membrane Attack Complex
  2. Inflammatory response (chemotaxis, histamine)
  3. Opsonization
202
Q

Inflammation- the inflammation response will:

A
  1. Keep the infection localized
  2. Dispose of debris and pathogens
  3. Set the stage for repair
  4. Alerts the adaptive immune response
203
Q

4 signs of inflammation:

A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

*in more serious injuries, there may be a loss of function (categorized under pain)

204
Q

MHC 1

A

nucleated
found on fixed cells

205
Q

MCH 2

A

found on wandering cells

206
Q

List the different types of antibodies. What is each antibody associated with?

A

IgG- chronic (long term)
IgA- mucous membrane
IgM- acute (immediate)
IgE- allergy and parasites
IgD

207
Q

Primary vs Secondary antibody-mediated immune responses to the same antigen

A

In a secondary respone, there’s a decrease in lag time and an increase in antibodies

208
Q

Lag time

A

Time between invasion of antigen into body and appearance of antibodies

209
Q

Active natural immunity

A

common cold

210
Q

Passive natural immunity

A

nursing/breastfeeding

211
Q

Active artificial immunity

A

vaccine

212
Q

Passive artificial immunity

A

transfusion

213
Q

What cell is important in autoimmune diseases?

A

Regulatory T

214
Q

T lymphocyte activation cells involve:

A

Cytotoxic T
Helper T (Th1)
Memory T
Regulatory T

215
Q

B lymphocyte activation cells involve:

A

B cells
Plasma cells
Memory B
Helper T (Th2)

216
Q

Important points- T Cell Activation:

  • Infected cells are displaying _____ _ ______ antigens
  • APC displays both _____ __ and ____ __
  • Interleukin ____ produced by APC causes Th to become ___
  • Interleukin ___ produced by both Th1 and T8- activates ___
A
  • Infected cells are displaying MHC 1 endogenous antigens
  • APC displays both MHC 1 and MHC 2
  • Interleukin 12 produced by APC causes Th to become Th1
  • Interleukin 2 produced by both Th1 and T8- activates T8
217
Q

Key points of B cell Activation:
- _____ (both dendritic and B cell) displays _____
- Interleukin ___ causes Th to become ___
- Interleukin __ from Th also activates ______ to become _____ ____
- _______ made by plasma cells attack _______ antigens

A
  • APC’s (both dendritic and B cell) displays MHC 2
  • Interleukin 4 causes Th to become Th2
  • Interleukin 4 from Th also activates B cell to become plasma cells
  • Antibodies made by plasma cells attack exogenous antigens
218
Q

THORACIC DUCT: much larger duct that drains lymph from the rest of the body including the……. into the _____ ______ ______

A

THORACIC DUCT: much larger duct that drains lymph from the rest of the body including
the left side of the head, left chest, the left upper arm and the entire body below the diaphragm into the LEFT SUBCLAVIAN VEIN

219
Q

What helps fluid move in the lymphatics?

A

Valves
Milking by skeletal muscles
Breathing

220
Q

Lymph Node- 2 functions

A
  1. Filter lymph
  2. contains germination centers for lymphocytes and monocytes (they will mass produce lymphocytes if there’s too much bacteria caught in the web so that they can “eat” more)
221
Q

Movement in the vessels:

A

Capillaries -> vessels -> trunks -> ducts

222
Q

Route of lymph

A

Lymph capillaries -> afferent lymphatic vessels -> lymph nodes -> efferent lymphatic vessels -> lymphatic trunks -> lymphatic ducts

223
Q

Functions of the lymphatics:

A
  1. fluid balance
  2. lipid absorption/transport
  3. defense
224
Q

Opsonization can also be termed as

A

enhancing phagocytosis- helps phagocytes to adhere to the pathogen

225
Q

Recognition of Antigen by T and B Cells: Although some antigens bind to their receptors and directly activate B and T cells, most lymphocyte recognition involves glycoproteins on the cells called ______ ___________ ________. MHCs are unique to each individual unless s/he has an identical twin. They are found on all cell membranes except _____ Once recognition occurs, the specific lymphocyte goes through cell division, increasing the number of cells equipped to destroy the antigen.

A

Recognition of Antigen by T and B Cells: Although some antigens bind to their receptors and directly activate B and T cells, most lymphocyte recognition involves glycoproteins on the cells called MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEXES (MHCs). MHCs are unique to each individual unless s/he has an identical twin. They are found on all cell membranes except red blood cells. Once recognition occurs, the specific lymphocyte goes through cell division, increasing the number of cells equipped to destroy the antigen.

226
Q

IL-4 does not come from

A

Antigen Presenting Cells (APC)- outside

227
Q

APC

A
  1. monocytes (macrophage)
  2. B cell
  3. Dendritic cells
228
Q

Costimulation

A

Interaction between leukocytes

229
Q

Recognition between the specific antigen and its T and B lymphocytes also needs __________ with cytokines and other cells called _______ __ ______. These are the type of cells that proliferate first when meeting an antigen through their secretion of ________ (a cytokine). The specific T/B cells increase and will be directly responsible for destroying the antigen by _________ of these specific lymphocytes into identical cells called a ____.

A

Recognition between the specific antigen and its T and B lymphocytes also needs COSTIMULATION with cytokines and other cells called HELPER T CELLS. These are the type of cells that proliferate first when meeting an antigen through their secretion of INTERLEUKIN (a cytokine). The specific T/B cells increase and will be directly responsible for destroying the antigen by PROLIFERATION of these specific lymphocytes into identical cells called a CLONE.

230
Q

It is essential for our body to maintain a constant internal body temperature in order to maintain ________. If temperature fluctuates, _____ do not function properly. The ________ is responsible for maintaining/regulating body temp within a narrow range.

A

It is essential for our body to maintain a constant internal body temperature in order to maintain HOMEOSTASIS. If temperature fluctuates, ENZYMES do not function properly. The HYPOTHALAMUS is responsible for maintaining/regulating body temp within a narrow range.

231
Q

HYPERTHERMIA- heat ___ exceeds heat ____. Common causes include ____, _________, and _____. Unlike hypothermia, enzymes get ______ as a result of increased temp. This occurs at different temperatures depending on the age and overall health status of the individual.

A

HYPERTHERMIA- heat gain exceeds heat loss. Common causes include exercise, environmental, and fever. Unlike hypothermia, enzymes get denatured as a result of increased temp. This occurs at different temperatures depending on the age and overall health status of the individual.

232
Q

Typically associate hypothermia with ___ degrees Fahrenheit or lower. Affects enzymes by ____ them down. Symptoms include: decreased heart rate, decreased resp rate, decreased metabolism, coma, and death.

A

Typically associate hypothermia with 95 degrees Fahrenheit or lower. Affects enzymes by slowing them down. Symptoms include: decreased heart rate, decreased resp rate, decreased metabolism, coma, and death. Hypothermia can also be therapeutic- ex: open heart surgery

233
Q

Common causes of hypothermia

A

environmental and anesthesia

234
Q

Physiological (involuntary) changes with hypothermia

A
  • Shivering
  • Vasoconstriction
235
Q

Radiation

A

UV light, heat gain

236
Q

Conduction

A

Touching, both gain and loss

237
Q

Convection

A

Air, both gain and loss

238
Q

Evaporation

A

Water vapor, loss

239
Q

Metabolism

A

Chemical reactions, gain

240
Q

Basal metabolic rate

A

energy that keeps resting body functioning (60%)- majority

241
Q

Thermic effect of food

A

energy needed for digestion of food (10%)- least

242
Q

Muscle activity

A

energy used for movement of skeletal muscles (30%)

243
Q

Mouth- distance and time

A

Distance: a few inches
Time: a few seconds

244
Q

Distance and time for esophagus

A

Distance: 8-10 inches
Time: few seconds

245
Q

Distance and time for the stomach

A

Distance: 6 inches
Time: 2-6 hours

246
Q

Distance/time for small intestine

A

Distance: 20 ft
Time: 3-4 hrs

247
Q

Distance/time of large intestine

A

Distance: 5-6 ft
Time: 12-18 hrs

248
Q

Longest distance of the digestive system?

A

small intestine

249
Q

Longest time for the digestive system?

A

Large intestine

250
Q

Summary (for mouth):
Ingestion-
Motility-
Mechanical Digestion-
Chemical Digestion-
Absorption-
Elimination-

A

Ingestion- yes! (mouth is only area for this)
Motility- mastication
Mechanical Digestion- mastication
Chemical Digestion- salivary amylase
Absorption- no
Elimination- no

251
Q

Summary (for pharynx):
Ingestion-
Motility-
Mechanical Digestion-
Chemical Digestion-
Absorption-
Elimination-

A

Ingestion- no
Motility- deglutination
Mechanical Digestion- deglutination
Chemical Digestion- continuation of salivary amylase (functions, but not produced)
Absorption- no
Elimination- no

252
Q

Summary (for esophagus):
Ingestion-
Motility-
Mechanical Digestion-
Chemical Digestion-
Absorption-
Elimination-

A

Ingestion- no
Motility- peristalsis
Mechanical Digestion- peristalsis
Chemical Digestion- salivary amylase (still functions)
Absorption- no
Elimination- no

253
Q

Summary for stomach:
Ingestion-
Motility-
Mechanical Digestion-
Chemical Digestion-
Absorption-
Elimination-

A

Ingestion- no
Motility- Peristalsis
Mechanical Digestion- Peristalsis and Mixing waves
Chemical Digestion- Pepsin (digests proteins) and Gastric lipase (optional)
Absorption- Yes, limited
Elimination- no

254
Q

Summary for the small intestine-
Ingestion-
Motility-
Mechanical Digestion-
Chemical Digestion-
Absorption-
Elimination-

A

Ingestion- no
Motility- Peristalsis
Mechanical Digestion- Peristalsis, segmentation
Chemical Digestion- Disaccharides, Nucleases, Peptidases
Absorption- HPV, lacteal
Elimination- no

255
Q

1st place absorption begins

A

stomach

256
Q

1st place organic molecules are absorbed

A

small intestine

257
Q

Pepsinogen is activated by..

A

HCL

258
Q

Acini cells produce all of the following except:
Bile
Trypsinogen
Amylase
Nuclease

A

Bile (made by hepatocytes)

259
Q

Proper anatomical term for swallowing

A

Deglutition

260
Q

Peristalsis

A

Involuntary wave-like contractions of smooth muscle. In the G.I. tract, these contractions push digesting food forward.

261
Q

What structure is responsible for controlling the movement of air and food?

A

Epiglottis

262
Q

Stimulus for emptying of the gall bladder (contraction/relaxation of the sphincter)

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

263
Q

Inability of the body to produce insulin, to produce active insulin, or failure of receptors to work properly. The result is that the blood glucose levels rise and none reach the cells.

A

Diabetes Mellitus

264
Q

Components of the portal triad

A

Hepatic artery, Hepatic portal vein, Hepatic duct

265
Q

Portal triad carries ______ blood and central vein carries _____

A

Portal triad carries oxygenated blood and central vein carries deoxygenated blood

266
Q

In the portal triad, blood flows..

A

towards the central vein

267
Q

What components make up the renal tubule?

A

A proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), a loop of Henle (LOH), a distal convoluted tubule (DCT), and a collecting duct (CD)

268
Q

In tubular reabsorption, all glucose molecules will enter the PCT by _____ and leave the PCT by _____ _____ using a transporter.

A

by cotransport and leave the PCT by facilitated diffusion using a transporter.

269
Q

______ _____: This is the third process that is involved with the formation of urine.

Secretion: The ______ of materials that are___ ______ by the body. The primary location for secretion is the ____ and _____.

A

Tubular Secretion: This is the third process that is involved with the formation of urine.

Secretion: The removal of materials that are not needed by the body. The primary location for secretion is the PCT and DCT. (proximal/convoluted tubule)

270
Q

What components make up the renal corpuscle?

A

The glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule

271
Q

Urine is the fluid that is produced by the kidneys that contain wastes or excess materials.

The nephron forms urine by three different processes:

A
  1. Glomerular filtration
  2. Tubular reabsorption
    3.Tubular secretion
272
Q

Glomerular Filtration: This occurs in the ___ ____, which is composed of the glomerulus plus the Bowman’s capsule. The glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries, which is closely associated with the Bowman’s Capsule. The capsule wall is indented to form a double layered chamber. The outer wall is called the _____ LAYER and the inner portion is the _____ LAYER. It is the visceral layer that is closely associated with the walls of the glomerulus and is composed of _____ _____that actually wrap around the glomerular capillaries.

A

Glomerular Filtration: This occurs in the renal corpuscle, which is composed of the glomerulus plus the Bowman’s capsule. The glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries, which is closely associated with the Bowman’s Capsule. The capsule wall is indented to form a double layered chamber. The outer wall is called the PARIETAL LAYER and the inner portion is the VISCERAL LAYER. It is the visceral layer that is closely associated with the walls of the glomerulus and is composed of PODOCYTE CELLS that actually wrap around the glomerular capillaries.

273
Q

Glomerular Filtration involves a _____ _____ (____). Also keep in mind that ___ is important.

A

Glomerular Filtration involves a pressure gradient (Hydrostatic). Also keep in mind that size is important.

274
Q

Glomerular filtation:

Blood enters the glomerulus by way of an ______ ARTERIOLE. The blood pressure forces some water and dissolved solutes from the blood through the fenestrae of the capillaries and through the filtration slits of the Bowman’s capsule. This fluid holds wastes that need to be gotten rid of, plus solutes that are valuable and need to return to the body. This fluid is called _____ and is what urine will be derived from. Not everything is filtered by the glomerulus. Some material like _____ and ____ will remain in the blood vessels. This blood will then be taken away from the glomerulus by the ______ ARTERIOLE. The formation of filtrate depends upon the ______ ______, created inside of the glomerulus, being high enough to form filtrate. To help in this pressure formation, ….

A

Blood enters the glomerulus by way of an AFFERENT ARTERIOLE. (afferent = towards, arteriole = small blood vessel). The blood pressure forces some water and dissolved solutes from the blood through the fenestrae of the capillaries and through the filtration slits of the Bowman’s capsule. This fluid holds wastes that need to be gotten rid of, plus solutes that are valuable and need to return to the body. This fluid is called FILTRATE and is what urine will be derived from. Not everything is filtered by the glomerulus. Some material like red blood cells and proteins will remain in the blood vessels. This blood will then be taken away from the glomerulus by the EFFERENT ARTERIOLE (efferent = away from). The formation of filtrate depends upon the HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE, created inside of the glomerulus, being high enough to form filtrate. To help in this pressure formation, the efferent arteriole has a smaller lumen than the afferent arteriole.

275
Q

The only membrane transport being used in Glomerular Filtration is

A

filtration

276
Q

Tubular reabsorption occurs throughout the tubular system, but the major site is the _______ _____ _____

A

PCT

277
Q

4 transport methods used for tubular reabsorption

A
  • Active transport
  • Secondary active transport
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Osmosis
278
Q

Secondary active transport and Osmosis occurs on the

A

Apical surface

279
Q

Facilitated diffusion and Osmosis occur on the

A

Basal surface

280
Q

The goal of tubular reabsorption

A

To get solutes that are nutrients back into the blood

281
Q

In tubular reabsorption, all glucose molecules will enter the PCT by _____ and leave the PCT by _____ _____ using a transporter.

A

Normally, all glucose molecules will enter the PCT by cotransport and leave the PCT by facilitated diffusion using a transporter.

282
Q

After glucose tubular reabsorption, absorption occurs in the _____ _____ _____ and _____ ____. This reabsorption is the only one to be under the control of _____, and is called _____ ___ ________

A

After glucose tubular reabsorption, absorption occurs in the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Duct. This reabsorption is the only one to be under the control of hormones, and is called Falculative water reabsorption.

283
Q

Hormones involved with reabsorption from the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Duct:

A

antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone

284
Q

The stimulus for release in both ADH and Aldosterone is

A

Hypotension

285
Q

Result of ADH

A

increases the permeability of water

286
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Hyposecretion of ADH
Massive amount of urination leading to dehydration/thirst

287
Q

Aldosterone result

A

increases the permeability for sodium

288
Q

Pathway involved for Aldosterone

A

Renin -> Angiotensinogen -> Angiotensin 1 -> Angiotensin 2 -> Aldosterone

289
Q

Tubular Secretion
1. ______ ______on basal surface
2. ________ instead of _____. This gets rid of the ___, putting it into the filtrate

A
  1. Active transport
  2. Countertransport instead of cotransport. This gets rid of the H+, putting it into the filtrate
290
Q

What are the requirements for glomerular filtration to occur and be successful?

A

Hydrostatic pressure and the size of the efferent arteriole

291
Q

How does the glucose in tubular reabsorption contribute to the symptoms observed in a diabetic patient?

A

Symptoms: PU (peeing a lot) PD (drinking a lot)

  • Where solute (glucose) goes, water goes with it
292
Q

Anatomy/pathway of the respiratory system:

A

nose -> pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> bronchial tree -> lungs

293
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

nose, pharynx

294
Q

Lower respiratory tract

A

larynx, trachea, bronchial tree, lungs

295
Q

Conducting:

A

nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and upper half of bronchial tree

296
Q

Respiratory:

A

Lower half of bronchial tree and lungs

297
Q

Trachea is

A

lower and conducting

298
Q

Pharynx is

A

upper and conducting

299
Q

Alveolus is

A

lower and respiratory

300
Q

Cells within the alveolus and function of each

A

Alveolar Macrophages- Cells that wander and remove dust particles an debris (filters)

Type I pneumocytes- cells where actual gas exchange occurs

Type II pneumocytes- produce a slippery substance called SURFACTANT which prohibits the internal lung surfaces from sticking to each other.

301
Q

The surfactant that’s produced by type 2 pneumocytes:

A

provides surface tension and keeps alveoli from collapsing

302
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation - Inspiration/Inhalation

A
  • Diaphragm contracts
  • External intercostals contract
  • Parietal pleura pulls on visceral pleura
    Volume increases, pressure decreases
303
Q

Boyle’s law

A

Volume and pressure are inversely proportional.

304
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation - Expiration/Exhalation

A
  • Diaphragm relaxes
  • External intercostals relax
  • Visceral pleura pulls on parietal pleura
  • Elastic fibers recoil
    Volume decreases, pressure increase
305
Q

During exertion, ______ ______ occurs, allowing more air into the lungs. This is not _____, and the ______ _______ contract, pulling the ribs downward. ______ ________ are also contracting.

A

During exertion, ACTIVE BREATHING occurs, allowing more air into the lungs. This is not passive, and the INTERNAL INTERCOSTALS contract, pulling the ribs downward. Abdominal muscles are also contracting.

306
Q

What allows air to move?

A

Boyle’s law

307
Q

Code to remember where O2 and CO2 are lowest/highest in external and internal respiration.

A

EPC BA
EPO AB
EFC AB
EFO BA

IPC TB
IPO BT
IFC BT
IFO TB

308
Q

Carbon Monoxide

A

The CO2 competes for oxygen spots on hemoglobin which can lead to death

309
Q

CO2 TRANSPORT:
CO2 is carried in 3 different ways:
1. _________ CO2: 7% is ________ in _____. When it reaches the lungs, it diffuses into the alveoli.
2. 23% _______ with the _______ in Hb. Since this occurs on a different binding site than oxygen, there is no competition, as seen with CO.
3. 70% of CO2 from the cells is transferred as a _________ ______ in the plasma. Most CO2 entering the plasma (internal respiration) will quickly enter the RBC’s. Chemical reactions occur that will allow the CO2 to be transported as a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in the plasma.

A

CO2 TRANSPORT:
CO2 is carried in 3 different ways:
1. Dissolved CO2: 7% is dissolved in plasma. When it reaches the lungs, it diffuses into the alveoli.
2. 23% combines with the globin in Hb. Since this occurs on a different binding site than oxygen, there is no competition, as seen with CO.
3. 70% of CO2 from the cells is transferred as a BICARBONATE ION in the plasma. Most CO2 entering the plasma (internal respiration) will quickly enter the RBC’s. Chemical reactions occur that will allow the CO2 to be transported as a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in the plasma.

310
Q

How is the majority of Co2 carried?

A

Transferred as a bicarbonate ion

311
Q

What is the main stimulus that tells the body to breathe?

A

CO2

312
Q

Oxygen does not dissolve well in water, therefore only 1.5% of O2 is _______ in the _______. 98.5% is ______ on _________ of the RBCs. It is transported as _________

A

Oxygen does not dissolve well in water, therefore only 1.5% of O2 is dissolved in the plasma. 98.5% is carried on HEMOGLOBIN (Hb) of the RBCs. It is transported as OXYHEMOGLOBIN.

313
Q

The larynx is the

A

voice box

314
Q

List and describe the structures of the larynx

A
  • Thyroid cartilage: adams apple
  • Cricoid cartilage: landmark, trachea right below
  • Arytenoid cartilage: location of vocal folds, protective over airway
  • Epiglottis:
  • Vocal cords
315
Q

Superior vocal fold (AKA _______ _____ _____) is responsible for

A

False vocal cords- protection

316
Q

Inferior vocal fold (AKA ______ _____ ____) is responsible for

A

True vocal cords- voice

317
Q

Bronchi pathway

A

primary bronchi -> secondary bronchi -> tertiary bronchi -> bronchioles -> terminal bronchioles -> respiratory bronchioles

318
Q

As the bronchial tree divides more and more, the hyaline cartilage that is found at the beginning of the structure is replaced by ______ ______.

A

smooth muscle

319
Q

Terminal bronchioles represent the

A

end of the cartilage

320
Q

Lungs: from the respiratory bronchioles, it goes into the

A

alveolar duct -> alveolar sac -> alveolus

321
Q

Tidal volume

A

one inhalation, one exhalation

322
Q

This movement of 2 different respiratory gases follows _____ _____: Each gas in a mixture exerts its own pressure as if all other gases were not present.
The pressure of a specific gas in a mixture is called its ______ _____ and is noted by
pO2 and pCO2.

These partial pressure differences are important in understanding what occurs during ________ _______ and ________ ______, the second and third steps in respiration.

A

This movement of 2 different respiratory gases follows DALTON’s LAW: Each gas in a mixture exerts its own pressure as if all other gases were not present.
The pressure of a specific gas in a mixture is called its PARTIAL PRESSURE and is noted by
pO2 and pCO2.

These partial pressure differences are important in understanding what occurs during EXTERNAL RESPIRATION and INTERNAL RESPIRATION, the second and third steps in respiration.

323
Q

External Respiration: exchange of O2 and CO2 between air in the

A

alveoli and blood (in the capillaries)

324
Q

Internal respiration: exchange of O2 and CO2 between the

A

blood and cells/tissue

325
Q

aspirin, t-PA, and nitroglycerin..

A

relax the blood vessels

326
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the mouth?

A

Carbs

327
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the stomach?

A

Protein

328
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the pancreas?

A

Carbs, proteins, nucleic acids, lipids

329
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the liver?

A

Lipids

330
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the small intestine?

A

Carbs, proteins, nucleic acids

331
Q

What organic molecules get digested in the large intestine?

A

Carbs, proteins

332
Q

Mouth: ______ ____ digests _____

A

Salivary amylase digests carbs

333
Q

Stomach: _____ digests _____

A

Pepsin digests proteins

334
Q

Pancreas:
- _____ _____ digests _____
- _____ _____ digests _____
- ____, _____, _______ digests _____
- ________ digest _____

A
  • Pancreatic amylase digests carbs
  • Pancreatic lipase digests lipids
  • Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase digests proteins
  • Nucleases digest nucleic acids
335
Q

Liver: ____ digests ____

A

Bile digests lipids

336
Q

Small intestines:
- ______ digests ________
- ______ digests _____
- ______ digest _____

A
  • Disaccharides digests carbs
  • Peptidase digests proteins
  • Nucleases digest nucleic acids
337
Q

Large intestines: ______ digests _____ and ____

A

E. coli digests carbs and proteins

338
Q

SCROTUM: Cutaneous outpouching of the abdomen that supports the testes. The outer layer of the scotum includes skin a layer of fascia and a layer of smooth muscle called the ______ _____. Internally, there is a septum that divides the scrotum into 2 areas. The production and survival of _______ require a temperature that is ______ than core body temp. This temp. is regulated by the ________MUSCLE, a skeletal muscle, which elevates the testes, bringing them closer to the body when it is cold and causes the to move away from the body when warm.

A

SCROTUM: Cutaneous outpouching of the abdomen that supports the testes. The outer layer of the scotum includes skin a layer of fascia and a layer of smooth muscle called the DARTOS MUSCLE. Internally, there is a septum that divides the scrotum into 2 areas. The production and survival of SPERMATOZOA require a temperature that is lower than core body temp. This temp. is regulated by the CREMASTER MUSCLE, a skeletal muscle, which elevates the testes, bringing them closer to the body when it is cold and causes the to move away from the body when warm.

339
Q

3 components of the scrotum which regulate the temp:

A
  • Tunica dartos
  • Cremaster muscle
  • Pampiniform plexus
340
Q

SEMINAL VESICLES: These paired glands lie posterior to the bladder. They secrete an ________, thick fluid that contains _______ and _________. This fluid helps to __________ the ________ _____ of the _____, which otherwise would kill the sperm.

The fructose is used by the sperm to produce ____, the energy molecule. Prostaglandins will increase sperm ______ as well as _____ _____within the female reproductive system.

A

SEMINAL VESICLES: These paired glands lie posterior to the bladder. They secrete an ALKALINE, thick fluid that contains fructose and prostaglandins. This fluid helps to neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina, which otherwise would kill the sperm.

The fructose is used by the sperm to produce ATP, the energy molecule. Prostaglandins will increase sperm mobility as well as muscle contraction within the female reproductive system.

341
Q

What secretes testosterone?

A

Interstitial endocrinocytes

342
Q

This process by which seminiferous tubules of the testes produce haploid sperm is called ________ It takes about 64 days.

A

spermatogenesis

343
Q

A shiny white membrane called the TUNICA ALBUGINEA covers the testes. It extends into the testicle and divides it internally into lobules. The SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES lie within these lobules and it is within these tubes that the sperm will develop and mature. Composed of 2 cell types:
1
2

A
  1. Spermatogonia
  2. Sustentocytes
344
Q

Sustentocytes have

A

46 chromosomes and do NOT become spermatozoa

345
Q

TESTES: Pair of oval shaped glands found in the scrotum. These are the male gonads. They develop high on the embryo’s posterior abdominal wall and descend into the scrotum through the _______ _____ during the 7th - 8th month of gestation.

A

TESTES: Pair of oval shaped glands found in the scrotum. These are the male gonads. They develop high on the embryo’s posterior abdominal wall and descend into the scrotum through the INGUINAL CANALS during the 7th - 8th month of gestation.

346
Q

SPERM: Sperm, the male gamete, will develop at about 300-400 million per day, and once ejaculated most will live in the female reproductive system for 48 hours. It has 3 regions:
the HEAD which contains the ______ ______ on the chromosomes as well as the ACROSOME that contains _____ _______, the MIDPIECE that contains many ________ (____ _____) and the FLAGELLUM,
or tail that is used to _____

A

SPERM: Sperm, the male gamete, will develop at about 300-400 million per day, and once ejaculated most will live in the female reproductive system for 48 hours. It has 3 regions:
the HEAD which contains the genetic material on the chromosomes as well as the ACROSOME that contains digestive enzymes, the MIDPIECE that contains many mitochondria (ATP source) and the FLAGELLUM, or tail that is used to move

347
Q

Spermatozoa

A
  • Develops from spermatogonia- takes 2 months
  • Has 23 chromosomes
348
Q

Movement of spermatozoa/ route of the sperm

A

seminiferous tubules -> epididymis -> vas deferens -> ejaculatory ducts -> prostatic urethra -> membranous urethra -> spongy urethra

349
Q

ACCESSORY SEX GLANDS (male): __________________
__________________________
These are the structures that secrete most of the liquid of the ______

A

ACCESSORY SEX GLANDS: seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands
These are the structures that secrete most of the liquid of the semen

350
Q

Fructose is found in the secretion of what gland?

A

Seminal vesicles

351
Q

The testis descends through this opening on its way to the scrotum

A

The inguinal canal

352
Q

Nitric oxide has what effect?

A

Activates guanylate cyclase

353
Q

The prostatic urethra makes up ___ of semen volume. It also has ________ which keeps the _____ ____, ultimately improving the success of _________

A

The prostatic urethra makes up 30% of semen volume. It also has agglutination which keeps the sperm together, ultimately improving the success of fertilization

354
Q

Function of the bulbourethral glands/cowper’s glands

A

lubrication

355
Q

Describe the events leading to an erection:
1. The brain sends an action potential down the ______ _____ 2 things happen:
2. _______ comes in, ________ gets released and attaches to receptors. This activates the *________ which relaxes the tunica media.
3. In addition, Nitric oxide is synthesized and crosses the synapse, activating _______ ______. This converts ______ into _____
4. cGMP also leads to a relaxation of the tunica media, which leads to a _____________________, allowing the corpus cavernosum and corpus spongiosum to be filled.

A
  1. The brain sends an action potential down the pudendal nerve 2 things happen:
  2. Calcium comes in, acetylcholine gets released and attaches to receptors. This activates the G protein which relaxes the tunica media.
  3. In addition, Nitric oxide is synthesized and crosses the synapse, activating guanylate cyclase. This converts GTP into cGMP.
  4. cGMP also leads to a relaxation of the tunica media, which leads to a vasodilation of the artery and compression of the vein, allowing the corpus cavernosum and corpus spongiosum to be filled.
356
Q

Overview of ovarian function (1)
1. Females are born with ______ _______ (___ chromosomes) already within the ovaries. Thes primordial follicles that are found in each ovary will not develop any further until puberty, when there is a large increase in female hormones, specifically ____.
2. Each month, several primordial follicles will develop into ______FOLLICLES. Most of these primary follicles will eventually undergo ______ (degeneration). However, a few primary follicles become SECONDARY FOLLICLES. Usually ____ secondary follicle develops into a GRAAFIAN (Antral) FOLLICLE. This Graafian follicle will rupture, releasing the secondary oocyte which will do final maturation once fertilized into the Fallopian tube. This is termed _______

  1. The ruptured follicle that remains within the ovary will collapse, secrete hormones (estrogens and progesterone) and will be called a CORPUS LUTEUM. The corpus luteum is functional due to the production of Progesterone.
  2. Finally, at the end of the monthly cycle, the corpus luteum will become scar tissue called a CORPUS ALBICANS. The surface of the ovaries of older women will not be smooth, but scarred and pitted.
A
  1. Females are born with PRIMORDIAL FOLLICLES (46 chromosomes) already within the ovaries. Thes primordial follicles that are found in each ovary will not develop any further until puberty, when there is a large increase in female hormones, specifically FSH.
  2. Each month, several primordial follicles will develop into PRIMARY FOLLICLES. Most of these primary follicles will eventually undergo ATRESIA (degeneration). However, a few primary follicles become SECONDARY FOLLICLES. Usually one secondary follicle develops into a GRAAFIAN (Antral) FOLLICLE. This Graafian follicle will rupture, releasing the secondary oocyte which will do final maturation once fertilized into the Fallopian tube. This is termed OVULATION.
357
Q

4 stages of the female reproductive cycle & how long each lasts:

A

Menstruation, days 1-5
Preovulatory phase, days 6-13
Ovulation, day 14
Post-Ovulatory Phase, day 15-28

358
Q

Menstruation:
- Uterus
- Ovary
- Hormones

A
  • Uterus: Stratum functionalis decreases in thickness
  • Ovary: Primordial follicles become primary follicles
  • Hormones: FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone are all at low levels
359
Q

Preovulatory phase:
- Uterus
- Ovary
- Hormones

A
  • Uterus: Stratum functionalis increases in thickness
  • Ovary: Primary follicles become secondary follicles which become a graafian follicle
  • Hormones: FSH and estrogen increase while LH and progesterone remain low
360
Q

Ovulation:
- Uterus
- Ovary
- Hormones

A
  • Uterus: Stratum functionalis continues to thicken
  • Ovary: Graafian follicle becomes corpus luteum
  • Hormones: FSH, LH, and estrogen are at their peak while progesterone remains low
361
Q

Post-Ovulatory Phase:
- Uterus
- Ovary
- Hormones

A
  • Uterus: Stratum functionalis continues to increase in thickness
  • Ovary: Corpus luteum present
  • Hormones: FSH, LH, and estrogen decrease while progesterone increases
362
Q

Mechanical and Behavioral categories of BC prevent..

A

fertilization

363
Q

Hormonal categories of BC prevent..

A

ovulation

364
Q

The fallopian tubes are the

A
  • site of fertilization
  • site of sterilization
  • location of ectopic (abnormal) pregnancy
365
Q

When is implantation?

A

day 23

366
Q

When is fertilization?

A

day 15

367
Q

Monozygotic twins:
This occurs when __ oocyte is fertilized by __ sperm, but during development 2 areas of the inner cell mass develop _______. Or there is a separation of _______ into 2 groups of cells. This results in 2 genetically identical individuals. Both must be either be male or female.

A

This occurs when 1 oocyte is fertilized by 1 sperm, but during development 2 areas of the inner cell mass develop individually. Or there is a separation of blastomeres into 2 groups of cells. This results in 2 genetically identical individuals. Both must be either be male or female.

368
Q

Dizygotic twins are

A

2 separate oocytes that both get fertilized from different spermatozoa

369
Q

What is each germ layer and what does each develop into in the fetus?

A

Ectoderm- skin, nervous system
Mesoderm- muscle, bone, CT
Endoderm- internal organs

370
Q

Most common lethal genetic disease

A

Cystic fibrosis

371
Q

What hormone begins the process of parturition/labor?

A

adrenal (cortisol)

372
Q

Capacitation

A

weakening of the sperm/acrosome membrane

373
Q

Acrosomal reaction: The sperm will surround the ovulated oocyte in the female and ______ _______from their acrosomes

A

release enzymes

374
Q

Name of the delivery/action of giving birth

A

Parturition

375
Q

Zygote –>

A

Zygote –> Morula –> Blastocyst –> Embryoblast –> Trophoblast –> Blastocoele

376
Q

What stage enters the uterus?

A

Blastocyst

377
Q

Embryoblast is where the

A

fetus comes from

378
Q

Trophoblast is where the

A

placenta comes from

379
Q

Color blindness: the ability to see color is dependent upon the

A

X

380
Q

Cretinism

A

T4

381
Q

The circumflex artery branches off the

A

left coronary artery

382
Q

T/F Left sided heart failure will lead to fluid in the lungs

A

True

383
Q

An embolus usually gets stuck where?

A

The brain and lungs

384
Q

The amount of blood leaving the left ventricle per minute is the

A

Cardiac Output

385
Q

Why does an imbalance in blood calcium affect cardiac muscle more than skeletal muscle?

A

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is smaller in cardiac muscle

386
Q

How long does it take for clot retraction to occur?

A

An hour

387
Q

Liver makes clotting factors with

A

vitamin K

388
Q

What is true of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Preload is good

389
Q

When blood drains from rib 2 on the right, which vessel will be immediately next after the intercostal vein?

A

Azygos vein

390
Q

What vessel is affected most by vasoconstriction?

A

arteriole

391
Q

The vessel used in heart bypass surgery treatment

A

great saphenous vein

392
Q

When traveling away from the heart on the descending aorta, what vessel will be encountered immediately after the superior mesenteric artery?

A

Renal artery

393
Q

T/F The umbilical artery contains deoxygenated blood

A

True

394
Q

A person in circulatory shock will have:

A

fever

395
Q

3 tunicas, slow velocity, no elastic fibers, and a large diameter best describes:

A

veins

396
Q

The median cubital vein connects

A

the cephalic with the basilic

397
Q

Which does not recieve blood from the celiac artery?
Jejunum
Stomach
Liver
Spleen

A

Jejunum

398
Q

Basal metabolic rate is the energy needed to

A

keep vital organs functioning

399
Q

Longest portion of the ailementary tract

A

small intestine

400
Q

Location of ADH effecr

A

Collecting duct

401
Q

Location of tubular secretion

A

PCT

402
Q

What method of transport occurs on the basal surface for glucose?

A

facilitated diffusion

403
Q

Method by which sodium crosses the apical surface of the PCT

A

cotransport

404
Q

Water absorption from the DCT enters the

A

vasa recta

405
Q

Gastrocolic reflex is an example of

A

mass movement

406
Q

What is true of ADH:

Increases Na permeability
Lowers blood glucose
Increases BP
Produced by atrium of the heart

A

Increases BP

407
Q

In tubular secretion, the method of transport for H+ on the apical surface is

A

countertransport

408
Q

If after a car accident, you had to have a kidney removed, what’d happen to your urine production in 2 months?

A

No change

409
Q

What gland is associated with the ejaculatory duct?

A

Seminal vesicle

410
Q

T/F Spermatogonia have a haploid # of chromosomes

A

False

411
Q

Is the pCO2 in the pulmonary vein high or low?

A

Low

Anatomy 2 (14 decks)

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