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Anatomy 2 > Chapter 18- Blood > Flashcards

Chapter 18- Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of blood

A

Transportation (O2/CO2)
Protection (blood clotting elements and WBCs)
Regulation (of temperature)

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2
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45
Slightly basic

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3
Q

Blood is composed of a fluid portion called _____ and solid portion called _____ _______. These include ______, ______, and ______.

A

Plasma

Formed elements

RBCs, WBCs, and platelets

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4
Q

Plasma

A

Consists of mostly water (91%)
Electrolytes, proteins, wastes (urea), nutrients (glucose), and respiratory gases (O2, CO2)

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5
Q

Plasma

A

Consists of mostly water (91%)
Electrolytes (Na/K/Cl), proteins, wastes (urea), nutrients (glucose), and respiratory gases (O2, CO2)

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6
Q

Plasma proteins

A

Albumin
Globulin
Fibrinogen

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7
Q

Plasma composes ___% of whole blood

A

55

(majority)

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8
Q

Plasma vs Serum

A

Serum = Plasma minus the fibrinogens, which is what makes blood clot

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9
Q

Which is the majority of formed elements? RBCs, WBCs, or platelets?

A

RBCs

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10
Q

Official names of formed elements

A

Red blood cells = erythrocytes
White blood cells = leukocytes
Platelets = thrombocytes

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11
Q

Hematocrit is the

A

Percentage of RBC’s over volume

RBC% / volume

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12
Q

Hematocrit measures the

A

percentage of RBC’s in the blood

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13
Q

Average hematocrit for a person at sea level

A

40

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14
Q

Alternate name for hematocrit

A

Packed cell volume

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15
Q

Blood cells are formed by a process called ______. Within the red bone marrow, there are undifferentiated stem cells called __________, which will give rise to either RBCs. WBCs and platelets.

A

Blood cells are formed by a process called HEMOPOIESIS. Within the red bone marrow, there are undifferentiated stem cells called HEMOCYTOBLASTS, which will give rise to either RBCs. WBCs and platelets.

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16
Q

Compare hemopoiesis in a fetus, adult, and child

A

Adult- red bone marrow in SELECT bones
Child- red bone marrow in ALL bones
Fetus- yolksac

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17
Q

Erythrocytes
-shape
-composed of ____ = an _____
- adult vs early stages?

A

-Biconcave discs

-Composed of hemoglobin= an oxygen-carrying pigment

-As an adult, they lack a nucleus and mitochondria, but they had them during the early stages of an erythrocyte

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18
Q

Hemoglobin contains

A

4 polypeptides, heme, and iron

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19
Q

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry ___ molecules

A

4

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20
Q

Benefits of the biconcave shape of erythrocytes

A

increased surface area and gives cell more flexibility to squeeze through small vessels

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21
Q

Lack of a nucleus in a mature erythrocyte allows for hemoglobin to fit in, therefore ___ ___ _ __ ___. Since there is no nucleus, ___ ____ can occur. The RBC becomes _____ and either breaks or is ______ by the _____, _____, and ______.

A

more O2 can be carried
no repair
fragile
phagocytized by the liver, spleen, and red bone marrow

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22
Q

The absence of mitochondria in an erythrocyte causes 3 things:

A

1) more hemoglobin
2) shorted erythrocyte lifespan
3) unused oxygen (the sole purpose of erythrocytes is to carry oxygen to others)

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23
Q

The process of RBC production is called _______. It occurs in the _____ beginning with as all formed elements do, _______

A

Erythropoiesis
Red bone marrow
Hemocytoblasts

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24
Q

Cells stages present in erythropoiesis:

A

Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast —-> Reticulocyte —> RBC

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25
Q

Which section has a nucleus, and where is each section found
Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast —-> Reticulocyte —> RBC

A

Hemocytoblast —> Proerythroblast —> early, intermediate, late erythroblast } all have a nucleus and are only found in the red bone marrow. takes 3-4 days.

Reticulocyte —> RBC } no nucleus and is only found in the blood. takes 1-2 days.

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26
Q

How long does it take for a hemocytoblast to become a mature RBC?

A

1 week

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27
Q

Reticulocyte count: in a blood sample, reticulocytes account for -% of all RBCs in the blood sample. Approximately __% of our RBCs are lost every day and need to be replaced.

A

.5-1.5%

1%

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28
Q

A low reticulocyte count may indicate ___ or ___. A high reticulocyte count may indicate a ____ ____ ____.

A

anemia or leukemia

recent blood loss

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29
Q

Regenerative anemia

A

5% reticulocyte count

over-generating reticulocytes, possible recent blood loss

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30
Q

Nonregenerative anemia

A

0% reticulocyte count

Under-generating reticulocytes may indicate anemia or leukemia. 0% might make sense if they just lost a lot of blood.

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31
Q

The number of RBCs must be kept constant. The body maintains this level by ______, a hormone that controls ______. It’s released by the _____ which stimulated the red bone marrow to increase RBC production. The direct stimulus is _____, which means __________.

A

The number of RBCs must be kept constant. The body maintains this level by ERYTHROPOIETIN, a hormone that controls ERYTHROPOIESIS. It’s released by the KIDNEYS which stimulated the red bone marrow to increase RBC production. The direct stimulus is HYPOXIA, which means LACK OF ADEQUATE O2 AT TISSUE LEVEL.

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32
Q

_________ erythropoietin can be given for certain hypoxic state situations like hemorrhages (decrease in RBCs) or respiratory illness

A

Recombinant

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33
Q

_____ have a higher % of RBC (higher hct) due to the presence of __________

A

Males
Testosterone

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34
Q

Effect on hematocrit levels:

living vs visiting the mountains.

A

Living: Permanent increase to 50%
Visiting: Temporary increase to 50%

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35
Q

_____ cells in the liver and _____ in the spleen phagocytize old RBCs

A

Kupfer

Macrophages

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36
Q

RBCs only live for ___-___ days due to the lack of _____. Breakdown products ( ___ and ___ )are recycled. Macrophages in the ___, ___, and other tissues phagocytize the old red blood cells.

A

100-120 days
a nucleus
iron and amino acids
liver, spleen

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37
Q

Pathway of an erythrocyte life span

A

Heme –> biliverdin –> bilirubin –> bile –> urobilogen –> stercoblin

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38
Q

Icterus/jaundice

A

Yellow tint to skin because of yellow blood.

Jaundice happens when there’s too much bilirubin, a yellow-orange substance, in your blood.

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39
Q

Anemia
-what is it
-symptoms
-3 main causes

A

Reduced oxygen-carrying ability in the blood due to a decrease in RBCs/hemoglobin level

Fatigue, pale, cold

Not produced, lost, destroyed

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40
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia

A

Lost

blood loss–> decrease # of RBCs

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41
Q

Hemolytic anemia

A

Destroyed

RBCs rupture permanetly

Cause? parasites, tranfusion of mismatched blood

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42
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Not produced

Pathology of red bone marrow leads to a low count or malformed RBC

Cause? cancer, radiation, drugs

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43
Q

Dietary anemia

A

Not produced
Not enough iron in blood (to carry O2)

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44
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

Not produced- deficiency in vitamin B12

Due to lack of INTRINSIC FACTOR in the stomach. I.F is needed to absorb B12 in small intestine, and B12 is needed for RBM to produce erythrocytes

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45
Q

Pernicious anemia (cont.)
Decrease in intrinsic factor –> decrease in ____ –> decrease in amount of _____

A

of RBCs

O2 to tissues

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46
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Destroyed
RBC loses round shapes and sickles

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47
Q

Abnormal increase of RBCs/too many RBCs is called _____

A

Polycythemia

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48
Q

Polycythemia occurs when hematocrit is ___ and above. Too many red blood cells is bad because it increases ___ of blood, which ___ ___ the flow and ___ the rate of oxygen getting to tissues

A

65%

viscosity

slows down

decreases

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49
Q

Primary polycythemia (absolute) vs Secondary polycythemia (relative)

A

In both cases, the blood is too thick. The result is the same but the cause is different.

Primary/Absolute: red bone marrow is overactive so it can’t get oxygen around fast enough

Secondary/Relative: due to dehydration

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50
Q

What factors cause a higher hematocrit level?

A

Males

Training

Dehydration

Recombinant erythropoietin

Blood Doping

51
Q

Blood Doping meaning

A

Individual’s already-high-hematocrit blood is drawn and stored, and the RBCs are later transfused into the person right before a competition

results in an increase of O2 to tissues

Athletes typically do this- seen esp. in biking

52
Q

Leukocytes

A

Nucleated cells

Important in body’s defense against invaders

Formed within red bone marrow from hemocytoblasts

53
Q

2 types of WBCs and a description/ex.

A

granular WBCs- 1 lobed nucleus, granules in cytoplasm. ex: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

agranular WBCs- 1 nucleus (not lobed), no granules in cytoplasm. ex: lymphocytes and monocytes

54
Q

Pathways for different WBCs (3)

A

Hemocytoblast –> Myeloblast –> neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils

Hemocytoblast –> Monoblast –> Monocyte

Hemocytoblast –> Lymphoblast –> Lymphocyte

55
Q

Stimulus for WBC production

A

Infection

56
Q

WBCs only survive for a few ____, with one exception: ______

A

days

lymphocytes

57
Q

Leukocytosis

A

When the number of WBCs increase due to an infection. This is a NORMAL PROCESS.

58
Q

Diapedesis

A

The movement of WBCs from the blood into tissues

59
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Attraction of phagocytes to microbes by a chemical stimulus

60
Q

% of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils in the blood

A

60-70% neutrophils (majority)

2-4% eosinophils

.5-1% basophils

61
Q

Neutrophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow

lobed nucleus, granules

function: phagocytosis

62
Q

Eosinophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow

lobed nucleus, red granules

function: allergy + parasites

63
Q

Basophils

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow

lobed nucleus, blue granules

function: histamine + heparin

64
Q

Lymphocytes

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

compact nucleus, no granules

function: antibodies

20-25% in blood

65
Q

Monocytes

A

tissue developed in red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

large nucleus, no granules

function: phagocytosis

66
Q

Terminology (suffix meanings)

A

-cytosis and -philia = increase #

-penia = decreased #

67
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

A

Infects lymphocytes

Symptoms include sore throat, tiredness, and fever

Can last weeks-months

68
Q

Leukemia

A

Leads to leukocytosis

uncontrolled production of WBCs, which can decrease RBC and thrombocyte (platelet) production

69
Q

Thrombocytes
-percent of blood
-fragments of _____
-survives for _____
-produced from
-functions to

A

1% of blood

Fragments of megakaryocytes

Survives for 5 days

Produced from hemocytoblasts

Functions to prevent blood loss (clotting)

70
Q

Hemostasis

A

A hemostatic process that will stop the loss of blood (balance of the blood)

71
Q

3 phases of hemostasis

A

Vascular Spasms

Platelet Plug

Coagulation (blood clotting)

72
Q

Vascular spasms

A

constriction of the smooth muscle of the vessel that’s been injured

lasts a few mins to a few hours

localized

73
Q

Platelet plug formation forms a plug within ______ which temporarily seals the ________

A

Forms a plug within 1-2 minutes which temporarily seals the break in the vessel’s wall

74
Q

3 steps to platelet plug formation

A
  1. Platelet adhesion
  2. Platelet activation
  3. Platelet aggregation
75
Q

Describe the three steps to platelet plug formation

A

First comes platelet adhesion, which is where the thrombocytes stick to exposed collagen with the assistance of von wilebrand factor.

Second is the platelet activation, which releases prostaglandin to attract additional thrombocytes to the area

Lastly is platelet aggregation, where new thrombocytes stick to existing ones with the assistance of fibrinogen, creating a plug

76
Q

Explain the effects of aspirin

A

Antiprostaglandin prevents prostaglandin from woking, preventing the plug from forming

77
Q

Coagulation

A

During coagulation, a clot is formed in the injured area

-Procoagulants
-Anticoagulants

78
Q

Procoagulants

A

Substances that enhances the clot formation: (called clotting factors)

Most are made by the liver and requires vitamin K

79
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Substances that inhibit the formation of a clot

Endogenous anticoagulants: Heparin, Antithrombin
Exogenous anticoagulants: Heparin, Coumadin, EDTA

80
Q

Normally, _____ dominated and clotting is prevented. But, when a vessel is ruptured, the _______ activity in that area will increase and a clot forms,

A

Anticoagulants

Procoagulants/clotting factors

81
Q

Most procoagulants/clotting factors are plasma proteins the ___ makes that circulate in ____ form until mobilized

A

liver

inactive

82
Q

2 pathways that are involved in forming a blood clot:

What does each release? What do they both need?

A

Extrinsic Pathway and Intrinsic Pathway

The extrinsic pathway releases factor 3

The intrinsic pathway release factor 12

They both release factor 10 –> prothrombinase –> thrombin

Both needs calcium

83
Q

The extrinsic pathway releases factor ___, while the intrinsic pathway releases factor ___. They both need _____ for each pathway. They both release factor __ –> prothrombinase –> thrombin. Describe what the last two do (converts_____).

A

Factor 3

Factor 12

Calcium

Factor 10

Prothrombinase: converts prothrombin into thrombin
Thrombin: converts fibrinogen to fibrin (forms clot, end result)

84
Q

Clot Retraction

A

Formed within 30-60 minutes
The clot contracts and brings the ruptured edges of the vessel closer together

85
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Removes the unneeded clot when healing occurs
Begins within 2 days (and continues over several days until the clot is dissolved)

86
Q

Plasminogen

A

an inactive blood protein that needs to be activated by t-PA to become plasmin, an active enzyme

87
Q

In emergency situations, when a person has formed an abnormal clot that is blocking circulation (like a heart attack), ____ or _____ can be _____ into the blood or introduced at the clot site

A

t-PA or Streptokinase (a bacterial enzyme)

injected

88
Q

What actually breaks down the clot?

A

Plasmin.

t-PA just converts plasminogen to plasmin, which is the one to break it down

89
Q

Hemophilia

A

hereditary deficiencies in clotting factors

may cause spontaneous bleeding

absence of factors

90
Q

Vitamin K deficency

A

Vitamin K is needed to produce 4 of the factors in the clotting process

91
Q

Imapired liver function

A

Unable to synthesize the procoagulants, even if Vitamin K is present
ex: hepatitis, cirrhosis

92
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

The number of platelets is reduced leading to spontaneous bleeding

93
Q

Von Willebrands Disease

A

Absence on Von Willebrand Factor

94
Q

What’s the result of something impacting platelet/thrombocyte formation

A

Bleeding

95
Q

Thrombosis

If the thrombus (the actual clot) is large enough, ______________

A

A clot that develops and persists on a wall of an unbroken vessel

If the thrombus (the actual clot) is large enough, it may block circulation leading to the death of a tissue

96
Q

Embolus

A

When the thrombus breaks away from the vessel wall and floats freely in the blood

97
Q

A thrombus is commonly formed in the

A

legs

98
Q

Treatments of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)

A

Aspirin
Vasodilator
TPA

99
Q

Heparin

A

anticoagulant, prevents clots

100
Q

DIC stands for
and means..

A

Disseminated
Intravascular
Coagulation

Clots are forming everywhere at the same time

101
Q

_________ are present shortly ___ ___

A

Antibodies are present shortly after birth

102
Q

Main reaction to compare in transfusions is ____ ____ and _____ ____

A

donor antigen

recipient antibody

103
Q

Antigen

A

On the surface of RBCs

104
Q

Those who have antigen A of the surface of their RBC have type __ blood

A

A

105
Q

Those without antigen A or B have type ___ blood. Those with both antigen A and B have type ___ blood.

A

O

AB

106
Q

O is _____ and A and B are _______

A

Recessive
Codominant

107
Q

Antibodies

A

Located in the plasma and react with the antigens of other blood types

108
Q

When incompatible bloods are mized together, the most dangerous reaction occurs between the ____ of the donor and the _____ of the recipient

A

antigens

antibodies

109
Q

In a ______ ____, the RBCs burst, releasing _______ into the blood

A

transfusion reaction

hemoglobin

110
Q

Hemolysis

A

The bursting of red blood cells

111
Q

List each blood type and its antigens and antibodies

Type A:
Type B:
Type AB:
Type O:

A

Type A:
A antigen and anti-B antibodies

Type B:
B antigen and anti-A antibodies

Type AB:
A and B antigens and no antibodies

Type O:
No antigens and anti-A and anti-B antibodies

112
Q

Universital Recipient and why

A

AB, no antibodies so the blood won’t attack any blood its given

113
Q

Universal Donor and why

A

Type O, no antigens, won’t attack any blood that it gives

114
Q

Humans are born with the ____ ____ and will develop appropriate antibodies shortly ____ ____ (generally by ______)

A

ABO antigens

after birth

2 months

115
Q

Those who have Rh antigens on their RBCs are

Those who don’t are

A

Rh positive

Rh negative

116
Q

Normally there are no __________ in the blood of Rh- people. However, they develop ___ exposure to Rh+ blood. This differs from ABO antibodies that are always there in the plasma starting from birth.

A

anti-Rh antibodies

after

117
Q

Problems can occur in a pregnancy if the mom is Rh ___ and the child is Rh ___. If this happens, _____ ___ __ __ ____ may occur which may be treatable, but is preventable

A

negative
positive
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

118
Q

B- has no ___ ______, unless it is mentioned that B- has received a previous blood tranfusion by someone with B+ blood, in which it ________

A

Rh antibodies

does have Rh antibodies

119
Q

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn: 2 points

A

Normally, there won’t be problems with the first pregnancy, but the formation of Rh antibodies will cause problems in later pregnncies

The mixing of blood occurs during labor. The blood of the newborn and the mother are separate during the pregnancy

120
Q

What is given to Rh- mothers during pregnancy (and within 72 hrs after delivery)?

A

An injection of Rhogam (doesn’t allow anti-Rh antibodies to form)

121
Q

Tranfusion Reactions occur when the blood of the __________________. Symptoms of this are:

A

donor is not the same as the recipient

fever, vomiting, and hemoglobin deposition in kidney tubules

122
Q

What’s different about hemoglobin a fetus vs an adult?

A

Adult: 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains

Fetus: 2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains, binds oxygen more tightly that adults do, which allows the fetus to extract oxygen from the mother’s bloodstream

123
Q

What’s the stimulus for Erythropoietin?

A

Hypoxia

Anatomy 2 (14 decks)

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