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Anatomy 1 - BI214A > Final A&P > Flashcards

Final A&P Flashcards

1
Q

22) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.
a) frontal
b) midsagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) coronal

A

midsagittal

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2
Q

23) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
e) midsagittal

A

frontal

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3
Q

24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into
a) anterior and posterior portions.
b) left and right portions.
c) superior and inferior portions.
d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis.
e) unequal left and right portions.

A

superior and inferior portions.

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4
Q

25) This directional term means farther from the midline.
a) medial
b) anterior
c) proximal
d) deep
e) lateral

A

lateral

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5
Q 
26) This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from
the origination of a structure.
a) deep
b) contralateral
c) lateral
d) cephalic
e) distal
A

distal

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6
Q

27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal

A

superficial

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7
Q

27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial
b) superior
c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal

A

superficial

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8
Q

7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the body’s internal environment.
a) palpation
b) metabolism
c) homeostasis
d) autopsy
e) differentiation

A

homeostasis

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9
Q

30) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity?
a) stomach
b) spleen
c) liver
d) gallbladder
e) diaphragm

A

diaphragm

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10
Q

31) This serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the
abdominal wall and the inferior surface of the diaphragm.
a) pericardium
b) pleura
c) mediastinum
d) dura mater
e) peritoneum

A

peritoneum

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11
Q

70) What is the name of the serous membrane in closest proximity to the lungs?
a) parietal pleura
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum

A

b) visceral pleura

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12
Q

71) What is the name of the outer layer of the serous membrane that surrounds the heart?
a) diaphragm
b) visceral pleura
c) parietal pericardium
d) visceral pericardium
e) mediastinum

A

c) parietal pericardium

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13
Q 
92) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human
body?
a) epithelial tissue
b) connective tissue
c) muscular tissue
d) necrotic tissue
e) nervous tissue
A

necrotic tissue

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14
Q 
96) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of
medical imaging.
a) computed tomography
b) magnetic resonance imaging
c) ultrasound scanning
d) radionuclide scanning
e) low-dose radiography
A

e) low-dose radiography

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15
Q

5) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s
a) mass number.
b) atomic number.
c) atomic mass.
d) valence number.
e) None of these choices.

A

b) atomic number

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16
Q 
7) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of
an element.
a) mass number
b) atomic number
c) atomic mass
d) ionic mass
e) covalent mass
A

c) atomic mass

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17
Q

11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation

A

d) anion

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18
Q

13) This type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms.
a) covalent
b) ionic
c) hydrogen
d) atomic
e) electronic

A

covalent

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19
Q

molecules like proteins and DNA?

a) nonpolar covalent
b) polar covalent
c) hydrogen
d) ionic
e) atomic

A

hydrogen

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20
Q

21) An enzyme acts to
a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.
d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy.
e) stop a chemical reaction.

A

lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.

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21
Q

25) This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.
a) water
b) oxygen gas
c) carbon dioxide
d) glucose
e) DNA

A

water

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22
Q

29) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is
a) basic.
b) neutral.
c) acidic.
d) alkaline.
e) concentrated.

A

acidic

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23
Q 
30) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing
hydrogen ions is a(n)
a) electrolyte.
b) salt.
c) cation.
d) colloid.
e) buffer.
A

buffer

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24
Q

11) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) catalyst
d) anion
e) cation

A

anion

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25
Q

1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?
a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm
b) plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus
c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles
d) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
e) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles

A

plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus

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26
Q

6) This type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane
touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid.
a) complement protein
b) transmembrane protein
c) peripheral protein
d) lipoprotein
e) All of these choices are correct.

A

transmembrane protein

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27
Q

8) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the inner
or outer surface of their plasma membrane.
a) receptors
b) phospholipids
c) cholesterol
d) enzymes
e) ligands

A

enzymes

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28
Q 
9) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to
hormones and neurotransmitters?
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) enzymes
d) linkers
e) cell identification markers
A

receptors

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29
Q 
10) This type of membrane protein anchors cells to neighboring cells and to protein filaments found
outside or inside the cell.
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) ligands
d) ion channels
e) linkers
A

linkers

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30
Q

11) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move easily through
plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
a) selectively permeable
b) concentration graded
c) electrically graded
d) selectively soluble
e) electrical insulators

A

selectively permeable

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31
Q

15) This is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane.
a) osmosis
b) active transport
c) secondary active transport
d) simple diffusion
e) endocytosis

A

d) simple diffusion

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32
Q

17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across
the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) facilitated diffusion
d) passive diffusion
e) osmosis

A

a) primary active transport

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33
Q 
29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane
proteins and secretory proteins?
a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) nucleus
d) centrosome
e) Golgi complex
A

a) rough endoplasmic reticulum

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34
Q

destined for other regions of the cell?

a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) peroxisomes
d) nucleus
e) proteasome

A

b) Golgi complex

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35
Q

36) The major function of mitochondria is to
a) move the cell.
b) generate ATP.
c) produce proteins.
d) oxidize organelles.
e) synthesize glycolipids.

A

generate ATP

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36
Q 
96) This organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids, phospholipids and functions as a
reservoir for Ca2+?
a) mitochondrion
b) secretory vesicle
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) rough endoplasmic reticulum
e) lysosome
A

c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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37
Q

97) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?
a) Golgi complex
b) lysosome
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondrion
e) centrosome

A

mitochondrion

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38
Q

1) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
a) epithelial
b) connective
c) myocardial
d) muscle
e) nervous

A

myocardial

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39
Q

4) Epithelial tissue
a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.
b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.
c) is used to form glands.
d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.

A

e) All of these Answer choices are correct.

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40
Q

6) This type of epithelial tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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41
Q

7) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium

A

c) Stratified squamous epithelium

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42
Q

8) This type of epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and esophageal glands.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Transitional epithelium

A

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

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43
Q 
9) This type of epithelial tissue lines the fallopian tubes, uterus, and some bronchioles of the
respiratory tract.
a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
b) Simple columnar epithelium
c) Stratified columnar epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Transitional epithelium
A

b) Simple columnar epithelium

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44
Q

11) Which of the following types of glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched
or unbranched?
a) Unicellular exocrine glands
b) Multicellular exocrine glands
c) Unicellular endocrine glands
d) Multicellular endocrine glands
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.

A

Multicellular exocrine glands

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45
Q

12) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part attached to a
single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a) Simple coiled tubular gland
b) Compound tubular gland
c) Compound tuboloacinar gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
e) Simple branched tubular gland

A

d) Simple branched acinar gland

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46
Q

13) Simple tubular exocrine glands have
a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.
b) a coiled tubular secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
c) a rounded secretory attached to a single unbranched duct.
d) a branched rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct.
e) none of these choices

A

a) a straight tubular secretory portion attached to a single unbranched duct.

47
Q

14) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on
a) shape of the gland.
b) size of the gland.
c) how the gland release its secretory product.
d) how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.

A

c) how the gland release its secretory product.

48
Q

15) This type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until
the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product.
a) Apocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.

A

Holocrine

49
Q

17) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Cartilage
d) Tendons
e) Epidermis

A

Epidermis

50
Q

19) Which of the following is a polysaccharide commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Melatonin
c) Cholesterol
d) Glycogen
e) Starch

A

a) Hyaluronic acid

51
Q

20) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular matrix of
connective tissue?
a) Elastic
b) Reticular
c) Collagen
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
e) None of these Answer choices are correct.

A

d) All of these Answer choices are correct.

52
Q

22) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) Spongy bone
c) Areolar connective tissue
d) Elastic connective tissue
e) Hyaline cartilage

A

c) Areolar connective tissue

53
Q

23) Which of the following is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found?
a) Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
b) Lining the chambers of the heart
c) Surrounding the brain
d) Inside the ear canal
e) In the cartilage found in joints

A

Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin

54
Q

56) Which of the following types of tissues is made up of small spindle-shaped cells and is
commonly found in the walls of hollow organs?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
e) areolar tissue

A

smooth muscle

55
Q

55) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) intercalated cells
e) myoblasts

A

c) cardiac muscle

56
Q 
57) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are
under voluntary control?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
e) areolar tissue
A

a) skeletal muscle

57
Q

Chapter #5

1) This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
a) Dermis
b) Epidermis
c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum basale
e) Hypodermis

A

Hypodermis

58
Q

2) This layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous layer
e) Corpuscle

A

Epidermis

59
Q

6) This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum lucidum
e) Stratum corneum

A

a) Stratum basale

60
Q 
7) This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through
apoptosis.
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum lucidum
e) Stratum corneum
A

c) Stratum granulosum

61
Q

8) The stratum lucidum
a) contains lamellar granules.
b) lies just above the stratum basale.
c) is the layer used in a skin graft.
d) is present only in thick skin.
e) can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.

A

d) is present only in thick skin.

62
Q

9) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the
thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum lucidum
e) stratum corneum

A

e) stratum corneum

63
Q 
11) This layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing
collagen and elastic fibers.
a) Hypodermis
b) Basement membrane
c) Epidermis
d) Dermis
e) Subcutaneous (subQ) layer
A

Dermis

64
Q

14) Characteristics of thick skin include:
a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
b) Does not contain hair follicles.
c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
d) Contain epidermal ridges.
e) All of these choices are correct

A

e) All of these choices are correct

65
Q 
15) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in
thermoregulation?
a) Merkel cells
b) Sebaceous glands
c) Sweat glands
d) Nails
e) Fingerprints
A

c) Sweat glands

66
Q

16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit
bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
a) Arrector pili
b) Lunula
c) Sweat glands
d) Hair follicles
e) Oil glands

A

e) Oil glands

67
Q

19) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sudoriferous gland
c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
d) None of these answers are correct

A

Sebaceous gland

68
Q

21) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost
the entirety of the skin.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Eccrine sweat gland
c) Apocrine sweat gland
d) Ceruminous gland
e) None of these answer choices are correct.

A

Eccrine sweat gland

69
Q 
65) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed
adults?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) male-pattern baldness
e) erythema
A

male-pattern baldness

70
Q 
66) Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive body hair caused by tumors
in adrenal glands, testes or ovaries?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) androgenic alopecia
e) erythema
A

hirsutism

71
Q

76) “Goose bumps” are caused by
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
c) contraction of dermal papillae.
d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
e) secretions from the sebaceous gland.

A

a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.

72
Q

81) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?
a) Hairless.
b) Contains a stratum lucidum.
c) High density of sensory receptors.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
e) Contains epidermal ridges.

A

d) Presence of sebaceous glands.

73
Q

3) This is the shaft of a long bone.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow

A

diaphysis

74
Q

2) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) dmarrow

A

epiphysis

75
Q

1) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow

A

marrow

76
Q

6) This is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis.
a) epiphyseal plate
b) epiphyseal line
c) metaphysis
d) diaphyseal line
e) diaphyseal plate

A

metaphysis

77
Q

8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to
highly specialized mature bone cell?
a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
e) None of these choices.

A

b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes

78
Q

9) These are considered bone-building cells.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices

A

osteoblasts

79
Q

10) These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
a) osteogenic cells
b) osteoclast
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices

A

osteoclast

80
Q

11) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?
a) haversian canals
b) Volkmann’s canals
c) concentric lamellae
d) lacunae
e) canaliculi

A

lacunae

81
Q

13) Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned
a) horizontal to the metaphysis.
b) parallel to the epiphysis.
c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates.
e) parallel to the perforating canals.

A

parallel to the length of the diaphysis.

82
Q

14) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?
a) It occurs throughout your lifetime.
b) It involves bone resorption.
c) It involves bone deposition.
d) It occurs at different rates at different locations.
e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.

A

e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.

83
Q 
20) During adulthood, which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone
remodeling and growth?
a) parathyroid hormones
b) vitamin D
c) epinephrine
d) sex steroids
e) human growth hormone
A

epinephrine

84
Q

23) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?
a) calcitriol
b) calcitonin
c) human growth hormone
d) parathyroid hormone
e) insulin

A

d) parathyroid hormone

85
Q

73) Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased
rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?
a) osteogenic sarcoma
b) osteomyelitis
c) osteophytes
d) osteoarthritis
e) osteopenia

A

osteopenia

86
Q 
75) Which of the following conditions is observed in adults when new bone formed during bone
remodeling fails to calcify?
a) osteogenic sarcoma
b) osteoporosis
c) osteomalacia
d) osteoarthritis
e) osteopenia
A

osteomalacia

87
Q

83) The general process by which bones form is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
e) orthodontics.

A

ossification

88
Q

84) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during
intramembranous ossification?
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new
periosteum.
c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new
periosteum.
d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation
of trabeculae.
e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation
of trabeculae.

A

a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new

89
Q

85) During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model
surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the
a) periosteum.
b) endosteum.
c) perichondrium.
d) perimysium.
e) trabeculae.

A

perichondrium

90
Q

87) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system?
a) support
b) locomotion
c) hemopoiesis
d) energy storage
e) carcinogenesis

A

carcinogenesis

91
Q

3) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

A

e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

92
Q

4) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum

A

d) Carpals

93
Q

5) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle

A

Sphenoid

94
Q

7) Which of the following types of bone is the femur?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

A

a) Long bone

95
Q

8) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

A

c) Flat bone

96
Q

9) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists?
a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone

A

e) Short bone

97
Q

10) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be depressions or projections.

A

c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.

98
Q 
11) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is
called a
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.
A

foramen

99
Q

12) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a
a) foramen.
b) condyle.
c) tuberosity.
d) head.
e) trochanter.

A

head

100
Q

13) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a
a) crest.
b) trochanter.
c) sulcus.
d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

A

crest

101
Q

14) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the
eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.

A

meatus

102
Q

15) Bones in the following area protect the brain.
a) Cranium
b) Vertebral column
c) Sacrum
d) Face
e) Ribcage

A

Cranium

103
Q

16) Which of the following cranial bones are paired bones in the human skull?
a) temporal
b) parietal
c) sphenoid
d) ethmoid
e) more than one selection is correct

A

temporal

104
Q

17) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?
a) maxilla
b) nasal
c) lacrimal
d) mandible
e) zygomatic

A

d) mandible

105
Q

18) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine

A

a) Parietal

106
Q 
21) These cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial
floor.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
A

Temporal

107
Q 
22) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the
mandible.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
A

Temporal

108
Q 
25) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with
every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Nasal
e) Sphenoid
A

Sphenoid

109
Q

foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.

a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal

A

Ethmoid

110
Q

41) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the
a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves.
c) cervical and lumbar curves.
d) cervical and thoracic curves.
e) cervical and sacral curves.

A

e) cervical and sacral curves.

111
Q

43) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the
anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection
b) Occular process
c) Odontoid process
d) Cervical projection
e) Cervix

A

c) Odontoid process

112
Q 
45) The inferior articular processes of the fifth sacral vertebrae that are found on either side of
the sacral hiatus are called
a) sacral cornua.
b) coccygeal cornua.
c) lateral sacral crests.
d) anterior sacral foramina.
e) median sacral crests.
A

a) sacral cornua

113
Q

130) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.
a) Ethmoid
b) Sphenoid
c) Lacrimal
d) Temporal
e) Parietal

A

Sphenoid

Anatomy 1 - BI214A (16 decks)

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