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RT 472: pathology/ venipuncture > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

_____ the national certification organization for R.T.s

A

ARRT

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2
Q

what is ARRT

A

the national certification organization for R.T.s

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3
Q

_____ provided additional support for venipuncture in our scope of practice

A

ACR

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4
Q

____ state licensing agency for R.T.s

A

RHB

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5
Q

What is the CDPH -RHB

what does it do

A

Californial Department of Public Health- Radiologic Health Branch
It is the state licensing for RT

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6
Q

Define medical negligence

A

Failure do something that an ordinary person would do in a certain situation

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7
Q

What does HIPAA stand for

A

Health Insurance of Portability and Accountability act of 1996

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8
Q

Why is the standard of care used for

A

to measure the competence of an individual

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9
Q

How much does HIPAA compliance cost

A

$66 billion

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10
Q

What does ASRT stand for

and what does it do?

A

American Society of Radiologic Technologist

Professional organization for RTs

-It writes the scope of practice

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11
Q

What are the three important standards/documents the ASRT writes for our profession?

A
  1. Scope of practice
  2. Ethical standards
  3. Practice standards
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12
Q

What are the responsibilities of the CDPH-RHB?

A
  • Provides RT license to legally work in California,

- Enforces laws and regulation

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13
Q

What does JRCERT stand for?

What does it do ?

A

Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology

  • writes educational standards to radiology schools?
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14
Q

Who writes educational standards to radiology schools?

A

JRCERT

Joint Review Committee on Education and Radiologic Technology

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15
Q

Define scope of practice

A

Series of guidelines set forth what professionals should or should not do.

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16
Q

Which one of the 4 HIPAA primary objectives are we most concerned with?

A

4: Guarantee security & privacy of health information

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17
Q

Define liability

A

State of being susceptible, easily affected

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18
Q

____ is the term for the State of being susceptible, easily affected

A

Liability

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19
Q

Define pharmacology

A

Study of drugs in living things

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20
Q

___ is the study of drugs in living things

A

pharmacology

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21
Q

Define legend drugs

A

Medications that require prescriptions

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22
Q

Medications that require prescriptions are known as_____

A

Legend drugs

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23
Q

What are the items a valid prescription must contain?

A

*7 components:

  1. Pt. name
  2. Drug name
  3. Dosage
  4. Dosage form
  5. Route of administration
  6. Date of order
  7. Prescriber signature
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24
Q

Out of the 5 scheduled controlled substance classifications, which ones are illegal

A

Scheduled C-1

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25
Q

List the drug reference tools?

A
  1. Physician Drug Reference (PDR)
  2. American Hospital formulary service Drug information
  3. Drugs in pregnancy & lactation
  4. Facts & Comparisons
  5. Handbook on injectable drug
  6. Drug interaction facts / Hanstens drug interactions
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26
Q

What is the DEA?

What does it do?

A

Drug enforcement agency

It enforced controlled substance laws and regulations

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27
Q

____ is a legal medical record belonging to the hospital

A

Patients Chart

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28
Q

What are we responsible for when charting?

A
  • Radiologic procedures
  • Informed consents
  • Patient hx
  • Pt. assessment
  • Medications given
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29
Q

What is a brand name?

List some examples:

A

This name is given to the drug by the particular manufacturer

  1. Tylenol
  2. Motrin
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30
Q

Is contrast a legend drug?

A

Yes , because it requires a prescription

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31
Q

What are limitations of verbal orders?

A
  • They do not constitute a valid prescription
  • must be signed by prescriber or else it is not valid

*

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32
Q

____ controlled substance category are legal for prescription but have the highest potential for abuse

*list an example

A

Schedule C-II drugs

*Morphine

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33
Q

A double lock and key is required for which scheduled controlled substance?

A

Schedule C II and above

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34
Q

All drugs are regulated by the FDA except?

A

Herbal and dietary supplements

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35
Q

Name the drug reference that is helpful in determining whether a drug-drug interaction may occur when combination therapy is used

A

Drug Interaction Facts and Hansten’s Drug Interactions

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36
Q

____ reference tool is Recommended in any practice that deals with pregnant patients or women who breastfeed

A

Drugs in pregancy and lactation

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37
Q

What is Drugs in pregnancy and lactation reference tool

A

used with pregnant patients or woman who breastfeed

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38
Q

What is the chemical name for Gastroview

A

Diatrizoate Meglumine

and
Diatrizoate Sodium

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39
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

The process of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated from the body

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40
Q

The process of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated from the body

A

pharmacokinetics

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41
Q

What factors affect absorption?

A
  1. Surface area
  2. Blood flow
  3. Dosage form
  4. Concentration of drug
  5. Lipophulicity f drug
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42
Q

Which organ is primarily responsible for metabolism?

A

the liver

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43
Q

What occurs when drug metabolism is delayed?

A

Cumulative drug doses can lead to overdose effects

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44
Q

What are enteric coated tables

A
  • Tablets designed to pass through gastric area and release active ingredients into small intestine
  • prevents gastric upset
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45
Q

Define metabolism

A

Chemically changes a drug into a metabolite that can be excreted from the body

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46
Q

____ Chemically changes a drug into a metabolite that can be excreted from the body

A

metabolism

AKA: biotransformation

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47
Q

What is the term for the area of pharmacology that deals with drug administration?

A

Biopharmaceutics

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48
Q

Biopharmaceutics

A

area of pharmacology that deals with drug administration?

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49
Q

Define vehicle

A

a substance into which a drug is compounded for initial delivery into the body.

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50
Q

a substance into which a drug is compounded for initial delivery into the body.

A

vehicle

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51
Q

What are the dosage forms available for drugs `

A

Solid
Liquid
Gas

or any combo of 2 of them

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52
Q

____ consists of thin coating of material other than sugar; serves the same function as a sugar but is less expensive to manufacture

A

Film-coated tablets

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53
Q

What is a film coated tablet

A

thin coating of material other than sugar;

serves the same function as a sugar but is less expensive to manufacture

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54
Q

____ is drugs given by injection

List examples

A

Parenteral drug administration
*requires a drug prescription

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Intradermal
  3. Intramuscular
  4. IV
55
Q

The body has 2 barriers to distribution , what are they

A
  1. Blood brain barrier

2. Placental barrier

56
Q

Name 2 properties that affect drug absorption in the body

A
  1. Surface area

2. Blood flow to site

57
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

The study of how the effects of a drug are manifested

58
Q

The study of how the effects of a drug are manifested

A

pharmacodynamics

59
Q

____ enhances the response

A

agonist

60
Q

Define half-life

A

time required for current serum drug concentration to decline by 50% (1/2)

61
Q

time required for current serum drug concentration to decline by 50% (1/2)

A

half-life

62
Q

Define synergism

A

when two drugs act together to give a pharmacologic response that is greater than the additive response expected

63
Q

when two drugs act together to give a pharmacologic response that is greater than the additive response expected

A

synergism

64
Q

Define efficacy

A

degree to which a drug is able to produce the desired effect

65
Q

degree to which a drug is able to produce the desired effect

A

efficacy

66
Q

Define allergy reaction

A

an immune-mediated response by the body against the drug

67
Q

What do antagonists do?

A

inhibits or supress the body’s natural response to stimulation

68
Q

an immune-mediated response by the body against the drug

A

allergy reaction

69
Q

when do drug enzyme interaction occur

A

a drug resembles the substrate to which a enzyme usually attaches

70
Q

Nonspecific drug interactions

A

Interactions that does not meet the criteria of Drug enzyme interaction or Drug receptor interaction

71
Q

Define potency

A

the relative concentration required to produce the effect

72
Q

the relative concentration required to produce the effect

A

potency

73
Q

Therapeutic index consists of what two ratios

A

Lethal dose

& effective dose

74
Q

Side effects vs. adverse effects

A

side effect is a predictable action on body systems other than the action intended where as adverse effects are ANY unwanted effects

75
Q

True or false: you can over dose on water?

A

True

76
Q

____ Occurs when two or more drugs act in unison to produce additive agonist, synergistic, or antagonist responses

A

Drug-drug interactions

77
Q

_____ are lipid lowering medications

A

Statins

78
Q

What drug classification to water pills fall under

A

diuretics

79
Q

What does Fentanyl do?

A

It is a narcotic that decreases pain perception

80
Q

What symptoms do antipsychotic medications treat

A
  1. Delusions
  2. Mania
  3. Bipolar affective disorder
81
Q

Chemotherapy agents are toxic to cells in what stage?

A

growing stage

82
Q

Metformin and Glucophage- what drug classification are they?

A

Antiodiabetic medicaiton

83
Q

Aspirin is what drug classification?

A

Antiplatelet medications

84
Q

Name one antihypertensive medication

A

Lisinopril

85
Q

Name a diuretic medication

A

hydrochlorathazide

86
Q

Name a thrombolytic medication

A

Alteplase

87
Q

Name an antihistamine medication

A

benadryl

88
Q

Name 2 antiseizure (anticonvulsant) medications

A

Clonazapam
and
Diazepam

89
Q

Name one antibiotic medication

A

Penicillin

90
Q

Do antiviral medications kill the virus?

A

No they do not

91
Q

Name an antifungul medication

A

Clotrimazole

92
Q

Clotrimazole is an example of which drug classification

A

Antifungal

93
Q

What does ROCM stand for?

A

Radioopaque contrast media

94
Q

Define osmosis

A

movement of water across a semipermeable membrane

95
Q

Intravascular ROCM have ____ lipid solubility

A

poor

96
Q

Aqueous solutions, what are they and when do we use them?

A

They are enteral ROCM

Used for GI or cardiac shadow exams when barium sulfate is contraidicated

97
Q

Name the three types of paramagnetic contrast

A
  1. Iron
  2. Manganese
  3. Gadolinium
98
Q

Define osmolarity

A

of miliosmolers per liter of solution

  • Concentration of molecules per volume
99
Q

What are ferumoxides?

A

Compounds that contain iron particles

  • iron from paramagnetic)
100
Q

Name 2 low-contrast tissues that we used ROCM to visualize on x-ray

A

Kidneys

GI tract

101
Q

High kV vs. low kV techniques, which are used for certain anatomy?

A
  • Low kV techniques (<80 kVp) for vasculature and GU tract

* High kV techniques (>90 kVp) for GI tract, to see structures and walls

102
Q

Define osmolality

A

of miliosmoler per kg. of water

103
Q

_____ is highly osmotic

A

ROCM

104
Q

Name the manganese compound (brand name is ok) paramagnetic contrast

A

Gadolinium ( Omniscan)

105
Q

Serum iodine concentration must be ____ to show vascular lumen

A

280-370 mg/mL

106
Q

what is the only low osmolality ionic ROCM in book

A

Hexabrix

107
Q

Drug effects can be :

  1. ___
  2. ___
  3. ____
A
  1. Therapeutic
  2. Diagnostic
  3. Adverse
108
Q

IV ROCM must be injected at a rate ____than blood flow

A

higher

109
Q

Vasovagal reactions are caused by which nerve?

A

vagus

110
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

immediately life-threatening, systemic hypersensitivity reaction

111
Q

What is the name of the contrast that can cause fecaliths?

A

Barium Sulfate

112
Q

Define mast cells

A

Connective tissue cells that contain the chemical histamine

113
Q

Define oliguric

A

Oliguric- urine output less than or equal to 400 mL/day

114
Q

What are the reactions of hyperosmolar ROCM

A

causes osmotic shifts that activate chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, which can cause a vasovagal reaction

115
Q

High osmolality ROCM can cause the blood to ____, low osmolality ROCM does not appear to have this effect

A

Thin

116
Q

Half-normal saline is ____%

A

0.45 %

117
Q

What does ARF stand for?

A

Acute renal failure

118
Q

What is Combivir?

A

it is a chemoprophylaxis medication that must be administered within 24 hrs of contact if exposed to HIV

119
Q

Define claustrophobia

A

Psychological condition that consists of irrational fear, leading to avoidance

120
Q

What is the difference between general anesthia and conscious sedation

A

A higher dose is required for general anesthesia than for conscious sedation.
Therefor general anesthesia requires a mechanical ventilator because a high dose can cause a patient to stop breathing

121
Q

What is Flumazenil?

A

it is the reversal drug for antianxiety drugs

122
Q

What is the most widely used benzodiazepine for conscious sedation?

A

midazolam

123
Q

What is naloxone (what is it used for)?

A

it is the reversal drug for opiates

124
Q

Define conscious sedation

A

it is Drug-induced relaxation allowing patient to tolerate unpleasant procedures

125
Q

Define anxiety

A

Unpleasant state of inner turmoil, often accompanied by nervous behavior

126
Q

Unpleasant state of inner turmoil, tension, often accompanied by nervous behavior forwarning danger

A

anxiety

127
Q

Name 2 types of emergency life-saving equipment found in a crash cart

A
  1. IV equipment

2. Oygen & pulse oximeter

128
Q

what does GABA stand for

A

Gamm aminobutyric acid

129
Q

What are the three drugs that fall under barbiturates?

A

thiopental
methohexital
phenobarbital

130
Q

_____ Have conscious sedation action that is longer acting than barbiturates

A

benzodiazepine

131
Q

Name one of the three main opiate analgesics used to decrease pain perception

A

Morphine
Fentynal
Merpedine

132
Q

Name one adverse effect of opiates

A

Constipation

133
Q

Fentanyl is what kind of medication?

A

Opiate

RT 472: pathology/ venipuncture (15 decks)

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