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Anatomy > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Electron

A

atomic particle with a negative charge

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2
Q

free radical

A

particle with an unnatural number of electrons

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3
Q

dimer

A

molecule composed of two monomers

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4
Q

rough er

A

synthesizes lipids

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5
Q

covalent bond

A

sharing of electrons between atoms

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6
Q

(CH2O)n

A

molecular formula of a carbohydrate

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7
Q

Cilia

A

moves material over surface of a cell

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8
Q

Mitochondrion

A

ATP-producing organelle

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9
Q

catalyst

A

speeds up chemical reactions

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10
Q

amino acid

A

has a carbocyl, amino, and r-group

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11
Q

solute

A

particles disolved in solvent

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12
Q

ribosome

A

binds to RNA and synthesizes proteins

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13
Q

isotonic

A

equal osmotic pressure on both sides

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14
Q

matrix

A

material between cells in a tissue

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15
Q

lysosome

A

vesicle containing digestive enzymes

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16
Q

How many electrons are found in only the second shell of an atom? a. one b. two c. eight d. eighteen

A

c. eight

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17
Q

What tissue type has superficial cells connected to a basement membrane? a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous

A

a. epithelial

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18
Q

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of ATP molecules? a. mitochondria b. golgi apparatus c. smooth er d. rough er

A

a. mitochondria

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19
Q

Which atomic bond involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another? a. ionic bond b. covalent bond c. hydrogen bond d. James Bond

A

a. ionic bond

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20
Q

Which molecule is organic? a. H2O b. CO2 c. NH3 d. CH4

A

d. CH4

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21
Q

Which type of tissue has the ability to contract? a. epithelium b. connective c. muscle d. nervous

A

c. muscle

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22
Q

Which concept is part of cell theory? a. all cells came from pre-existing cells b. cells were derived from non-living molecules billions of years ago c. all cells possess a nucleus with genetic material d. all cells perform photosynthesis

A

a. all cells came from pre-existing cells

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23
Q

What is the function of cholesterol in the body? a. energy source b. main component of steroid hormones c. membrane transport d. thermal insulation

A

b. main component of steroid hormones

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24
Q

Which cell transport method does not need ATP? a. active transport b. exocytosis c. receptor mediated endocytosis d. osmosis

A

d. osmosis

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25
Q

WHich of the following substances is a charbohydrate? a. sucrose b. maltase c. keratin d. cholesterol

A

a. sucrose

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26
Q

Which molecule is made of a large lipid and a small protein? a. Lipoglycan. b. Proteolipid. c. Lipoprotein. d. Glycolipid.

A

b. proteolipid

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27
Q

Which of these organelles has a double phospholipid bilayer? a. Rough ER. b. Nucleus. c. Golgi apparatus. d. Flagella.

A

b. nucleus

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28
Q

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of cellular carbohydrates? a. Endoplasmic reticulum. b. Ribosomes. c. Golgi Apparatus. d. Lysosomes.

A

c. golgi apparatus

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29
Q

Which property of water allows humans to lose large quantities of heat through the evaporation of sweat? a. Solvency. b. Thermal stability. c. Chemical reactivity. d. Adhesion.

A

b. thermal stability

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30
Q

What is the name of the organelle that organizes the shape of the cytoskeleton? a. Cristae. b. Cisternae. c. Centrioles. d. Cytoskeleton.

A

c. centrioles

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31
Q

True or False: Stratified squamous epithelial tissue is often used for secretion

A

false

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32
Q

True or False: Substances that dissolve in water are hydrophobic

A

false

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33
Q

True or False: A cell that grows to twice its former volume has twice its former surface area

A

false

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34
Q

True or False: A mole is a number equal to 5.02x 10^23

A

false

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35
Q

True or False: Cytosol is the gelatinous fluid component of cytoplasm

A

true

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36
Q

True or false: Proteins are responsible for cellular movement

A

true

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37
Q

True or False: RNA molecules are smaller than DNA molecules

A

true

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38
Q

True or false: for a triglyceride to be saturated, all three fatty acids in it have to be saturated

A

true

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39
Q

True or false: in osmosis, solute particles move from lw to high concentrations

A

false

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40
Q

true or false: particles in a colloidal mixture are less than 1 nm in size

A

false

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41
Q

Carbon has an atomic number of 6, oxygen has number 8, and hydrogen has number 1. Calculate the weight of one mole of the triglyceride C55 H101 O6.

A

857 grams

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42
Q

What are the three types of subatomic particles and what charges do they have

A

proton- positive
neutron- no charge
electron - negative

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43
Q

Draw an atom with atomic number 12 and atomic weigt 24. Fill in the electron shells and label the number of protons and neutrons. (2n^2)

A

12 protons

12 neutrons

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44
Q

What is the matrix of a tissue and what is it composed of?

A

a

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45
Q

What is the fluid mosaic theory of cell membranes?

A

a

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46
Q

Name and describe the three shapes of cells found in epithelial tissue.

A

simple- flat cells with a nucleus. can be found in simple or stratified. found mostly in skin cells.
cuboidal - usually found in cubed shapes but always have equal height, width, and depth. found in the kidneys
columnar- cells that are taller than they are wide with a nucleus

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47
Q

Define the conformation of a protein and denaturation of a protein

A

a

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48
Q

What is the name of the structure that anchors cilia and flagella to a cell?

A

basal body

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49
Q

What are the 3 most common elements in the body?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

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50
Q

What are the three types of cartilage and how tough or elastic are they?

A

elastic- elastic
hyaline- mid-grade
fibro- tough

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51
Q

What is the difference between intergral and peripheral proteins?

A

a

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52
Q

Define hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphiphilic

A

hydrophilic- binds to water
hydrophobic- does not bind to water
amphiphilic- both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

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53
Q

What are the 3 protein filaments that make up the cytoskeleton and which is the thickest?

A

intermediate filaments
microfilaments
microtubules- are the thickest

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54
Q

What do the prefixes mono-, poly-, and oligo- mean?

A

mono- one
poly- many
oligo- fewer than 15

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55
Q

Why are saturated fats solid and unsaturated fats liquid at room temperature?

A

a

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56
Q

Explain why a large surface are-to-volume ratio is good for a cell and how that limits cell size. (3)

A

a

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57
Q

How many amino acid types are found in human proteins and how many amino acids in a chain make up a protein (3)

A

There are 20 amino acid types found in human proteins. There needs to be 50 or more amino acids in a chain to make up a protein

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58
Q

What are the differences between symports, antiports, and uniports? (3)

A

a

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59
Q

What is a hydration sphere and how is it formed? (3)

A

A hydration shere is when water binds to a compound breaking it appart. The hydrogen in water is attracted to the negative element in the compound and the oxygen is attracted to the positive element in the compound.

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60
Q

What is the difference between synthesis, decomposition, and exchange reactions? (3)

A

In synthesis, two reations combine to form a new product. A+B –> AB.
In decomposition, a reactant breaks down into two or more products. AB –> A+B
In exchange reations, two or more elements are “exchanged” to form two new compounds. AB+CD –> AD+BC

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61
Q

Describe the cell actions during pinocytosis, phagocytosis, and excocytosis. (5 points)

A

a

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62
Q

List the 6 physical properties of water. (5 points)

A 
solvency
cohesion
adhesion
temperature stability
chemical reactivity
polarity
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63
Q

Explain the differences in shape and function of microvilli, cilia, and flagella. (5 points)

A

a

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64
Q

List the 7 functions of proteins in the body (5 points)

A

a

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65
Q

Compare and contrast diffusion and osmosis, describe how particles flow in each, why they move the way they do, and under what conditions they both reach equalibrium (10 points)

A

a

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66
Q

Describe the 4 levels of protein structure including what bonds are formed in each and why it makes those bonds (10 points)

A

a

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67
Q

hematoma

A

j. a blood clot

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68
Q

stratum corneum

A

s. epidermal layer of dead keratinized cells

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69
Q

endosteum

A

l. lines the medullary cavity of long bones

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70
Q

tendon

A

w. connects muscle to bone

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71
Q

excrine

A

q. gland that secretes through a duct

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72
Q

hair shaft

A

i. portion of the hair outside the epidermis

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73
Q

haversian canal

A

b. carries blood vessels and nerves through compact bone

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74
Q

hyperplasia

A

a. tissue growth through cell multiplication

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75
Q

hypodermis

A

o. mostly composed of adipose tissue

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76
Q

synarthrosis

A

c. a non-movable joint

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77
Q

gomphosis

A

f. tooth socket joint

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78
Q

multiaxial

A

m. allows movement in 3 planes

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79
Q

solubility product

A

y. necessary for calcium deposition

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80
Q

bursae

A

z. contains synovial fluid and cushions outside of joints

81
Q

fibrosis

A

d. replacement of damaged cells with FCT

82
Q
  1. Which bone shape do the vertebrae have? a. Flat. b. Short. c. Long. d. Irregular.
A

d. irregular

83
Q
  1. Which layer of the epidermis is only found in thick skin? a. Stratum corneum. b. Stratum lucidum. c. Stratum granulosum. d. Stratum basale.
A

b. stratum lucidum

84
Q
  1. What are fibers of collagen that extend into bone matrix from the periosteum called? a. Perforating fibers. b. Chondroblasts. c. Osteoid tissue. d. Trabeculae.
A

b. chondroblasts

85
Q
  1. What type of tissue change involves sudden death due to loss of blood supply? a. Apoptosis. b. Atrophy. c. Hypertrophy. d. Infarction.
A

d. infarction

86
Q
  1. What type of movement can be performed with a ball-and-socket joint? a. Inversion. b. Pronation. c. Circumduction. d. Retraction.
A

c. Circumduction

87
Q
  1. Which cell does NOT come from an osteogenic cell? a. Osetoblasts. b. Osteoclasts. c. Fibroblasts. d. Chondroblasts.
A

b. Osteoclasts

88
Q
  1. Which is NOT a pigment found in the integument? a. Hemoglobin. b. Carotene. c. Melanin. d. Myoglobin.
A

d. myoglobin

89
Q
  1. In bone tissue, what is the name of the chambers the osteocytes sit in? a. Haversian canal. b. Lacunae. c. Canaliculi. d. Osteon.
A

b. lacunae

90
Q
  1. Which is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

a. Skull sutures b. Hip socket and femur. c. Between vertebral bodies. d. Finger joints.

A

c. between vertebral bodies

91
Q
  1. Where will you find the Zone of Hypertrophy?

a. In the epiphysis. b. In the metaphysis. c. In the diaphysis. d. In California.

A

b. in the metaphysis

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? a. Adipocytes. b. Erythrocytes. c. Leukocytes. d. Platelets.
A

a. adipocytes

93
Q
  1. Which gland type produces earwax? a. Ceruminous. b. Sudoriferous. c. Endocrine. d. Sebacious.
A

a. ceruminous

94
Q
  1. Which hormone reduces blood calcium by stimulating osteoblasts? a. Parathyroid hormone. b. Calcitonin. c. Calcitriol. d. Oxytocin.
A

b. calcitonin

95
Q
  1. Which is NOT a feature of a synovial joint?

a. Synarthrosis. b. Meniscus. c. Joint capsule. d. Synovial fluid.

A

a. synarthrosis

96
Q
  1. What is the smooth muscle bundle that causes hairs to stand on end? a. Follicle. b. Arrector pili. c. Cuticle. d. Cerumen.
A

b. arrector pili

97
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Skin and bones are constantly growing new tissue.
A

true

98
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE The periosteum of a bone and the tendon of a muscle are made of the same tissue.
A

true

99
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE In thin skin there are no sweat glands.
A

false

100
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Eumelanin produces red/blond colored hair.
A

false

101
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Third class levers have a high mechanical advantage.
A

false

102
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Inversion and eversion are motions of the hands.
A

false

103
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE All synovial joints are diarthroses.
A

false

104
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Lanugo hair is found on fetuses.
A

true

105
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Yellow marrow is found only in the epiphyses of bones.
A

false

106
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE All diarthroses are synovial joints.
A

true

107
Q
  1. Put the following in chronological order: osteoblast, spongy bone, osteogenic cell, osteoid tissue, compact bone. (3 points)
A

osteogenic cells, osteoblast, osteoid tissue, spongy bone, compact bone

108
Q
  1. Draw a hair in lateral view and in cross-section and label the following parts: shaft, root, and bulb on the first; medulla, cortex, and cuticle on the second. (3 points)
A

see test

109
Q
  1. Define abduction, adduction, flexion, and extension. (3 points)
A

abduction- movement of a body part in the frontal plane away from the middle of the body
adduction- movement in the frontal plane back to midline
flexion- a movement that decreases a joint angle
extension- straightens a joint and generally returns a body part to the zero position

110
Q
  1. Name the 3 stages of hair growth and what occurs in each stage. (3 points)
A

conagen - stem cells form the bulge in follicle and multiply and travel downwards
catagen - mitosis in the hair matrix ceases and sheath cells below the bulge die
telogen - when the papillae reaches the bulge

111
Q
  1. Name the 4 cutaneous glands and what they secrete. (3 points)
A

mammory- milk
ceruminous - ear wax
sudoriferous - sweat
sebacious - oil

112
Q
  1. In what organs are calcitriol, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone made? (3 points)
A

m

113
Q
  1. Name the three cell types found in the stratum basale of the epidermis and what their functions are. (3 points)
A

m

114
Q
  1. What are the three types of cartilage and the three types of muscle tissue? (3 points)
A

cartilage - hyaline, fibro, elastic

muscle - smooth, skeletal, cardiac

115
Q
  1. What are the organic and inorganic components of bone matrix? (3 points)
A

m

116
Q
  1. What is the difference between amphiarthroses, diarthroses, and synarthroses? (3 points)
A

synarthroses - little to no movement
amphiarthrosis - some movement
diarthrosis - much movement occurs

117
Q
  1. Describe or draw and label the 3 lever types. (3 points)
A

lever 1 - has fulcrum in the middle between effort and resistance
lever 2 - has resistence between fulcrum and effort
lever 3 - effort is between resistance and fulcrum

118
Q
  1. What is the difference between serous, mucous, and cytogenic glands? (3 points)
A

serous- watery, low-protein fluid

mucous- composed of epithelium, CT and often smooth muscle

119
Q
  1. What is the difference between appositional and interstitial growth? (3 points)
A

appositional - bones continue to grow throughout life in diameter and thickness
interstitial - growth of cartilage from within the metaphyses

120
Q
  1. Name the pairs of bones that form a condyloid joint, a hinge joint and a pivot joint. (3 points)
A

condyloid- ankles and wrists
hinge joint - ulna/ hummerus and tibia/femer
pivot joints - ball and socket

121
Q
  1. Define pronation, supination, opposition, and reposition. (3 points)
A

pronation- a rotational movement of the forearm that turns the palm downwards or upward
supination- rotational movement of the forearm
opposition- a movement of the thumb in which it touches any finger tip of the same hand
reposition- returning to the zero position

122
Q
  1. What do the prefixes chondro-, osteo- and fibro- refer to? (3 points)
A

chondro - cartilage
osteo - bone
fibro - fibers

123
Q
  1. What is the difference between endocrine, exocrine, holocrine and merocrine glands? (3 points)
A

endocrine- glands secrete into the blood
exocrine- glands secrete into a duct leading to an organ surface
halocrine- cell death
merocrine- perspiration

124
Q
  1. Draw and label the following parts of an osteon: Haversian canal, lamellae, osteocytes, canaliculi. (3 points)
A

see test

125
Q
  1. Where are the primary and secondary ossification centers found? (3 points)
A

a

126
Q
  1. Define atrophy, apoptosis, and necrosis. (3 points)
A

atrophy- shrinkage of tissue due to age, disuse, or disease
apoptosis- programmed cell death
necrosis- premature cell death

127
Q
  1. (5 pts.) List the 6 functions of the skeletal system.
A
  1. support
  2. protection (from)
  3. movement
  4. electrolyte balance
  5. acid base balance
  6. blood formation
128
Q
  1. (5 pts) List the 6 functions of the integumentary system.
A
  1. protection
  2. body temperature regulation
  3. excretion
  4. blood reservoir
  5. metabolic functions
  6. cutaneous functions
129
Q
  1. (5 pts.) List in order of depth all the strata and layers of tissue in the epidermis and dermis.
A
  1. stratum corneum
  2. stratum lucidum
  3. stratum granulosum
  4. stratum spinosum
  5. stratum basale
  6. papillary layer
  7. reticular layer
130
Q
  1. (5 pts.) List the 3 types of fibrous joints, the two types of cartilaginous joints, and the 6 types of synovial joints.
A

k

131
Q
  1. (10 pts.) Name all the zones of the metaphysis and describe in detail what is happening in each of the zones, until osteons are formed.
A
  1. Reserve Cartilage - hyaline has not yet begun to transform into bone.
  2. Cell Perilification - chondrocytes multiply and arrange themselves into longitudinal columns of flattened lacunae
  3. Cell Hypertrophy - the chondrocytes cease diving and enlarge
  4. Calcification - Ca^2+ minerals are deposited in the matrix and calcify the cartilage
  5. Zone deposition - walls between lacunae break down and chondrocytes die; osteoblasts line up along the walls of the channels and begin depositing concentric lamallae
132
Q
  1. (10 pts.) Describe in detail how a fractured bone is repaired. Include the types of tissue formed, where they are formed, what cells formed them, and in what order.
    (not as important)
A
  • clot
  • invaded by osteogenic cells
  • then cartilage
  • hard cartilage?

osteoclast - remove excess one also are done top sheath

133
Q
  1. action potential
A

z. voltage change on the axon

134
Q
  1. fusiform
A

q. spindle-like muscle shape

135
Q
  1. trigger zone
A

n. dominated by voltage gated ion channels

136
Q
  1. Actin
A

c. thin filament in a sarcomere

137
Q
  1. lactic acid
A

j. byproduct of anaerobic fermentation

138
Q
  1. IPSP
A

r. makes a neuron less likely to fire

139
Q
  1. endoneurium
A

e. sheath surrounding each axon in PNS

140
Q
  1. motor unit
A

u. motor neuron and its muscle fibers

141
Q
  1. Reverberating
A

l. neuronal circuit that stimulates itself

142
Q
  1. tetanus
A

w. smooth prolonged contraction of muscle

143
Q
  1. synapse
A

s. junction of a neuron and a target cell

144
Q
  1. Treppe
A

b. muscle cells go to full relaxation but next twitch has higher tension

145
Q
  1. Isometric
A

a. change in tension but no change in length

146
Q
  1. ganglion
A

t. cluster of neuron cell bodies outside the CNS

147
Q
  1. Calcium
A

g. ion pumped outside of smooth muscle

148
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the muscular system? a. Integration. b. Heat production. c. Conduction. d. Electrolyte balance.
A

b. heat production

149
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the muscular system? a. Integration. b. Heat production. c. Conduction. d. Electrolyte balance.
A

b. heat production

150
Q
  1. Which muscle action opposes the prime mover? a. Fixator. b. Synergist. c. Agonist. d. Antagonist.
A

d. antagonist

151
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter type is made of modified amino acids? a. Neuropeptides. b. Acetylcholine. c. Monoamines. d. Amino acid neurotransmitters.
A

c. monoamines

152
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cuff of connective tissue that holds tendons in place? a. Aponeurosis. b. Retinaculum. c. Insertion. d. Origin.
A

b. retinaculum

153
Q
  1. What type of conduction is permitted by myelinated neurons?
    a. Anterograde. b. Saltatory. c. Retrograde. d. Metabotropic.
A

b. saltatory

154
Q
  1. Which type of conduction brings impulses from the body to the CNS? a. Sensory. b. Retrograde. c. Anterograde. d. Motor.
A

a. sensory

155
Q
  1. Which type of neuroglial cell creates a supportive framework in the CNS? a. Oligodendrocytes. b. Astrocytes. c. Microglia. d. Satellite cells.
A

b. astrocytes

156
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the meninges? a. Fara mater. b. Arachnoid mater. c. Pia mater. d. Dura mater.
A

a. fara mater

157
Q
  1. What is a full cycle of contraction and relaxation of a muscle? a. Tetanus. b. Recruitment. c. Muscle twitch. d. Vacation.
A

c. muscle twitch

158
Q
  1. What type of neuron has only one dendrite and one axon attached to the soma? a. Anaxonic. b. Bipolar. c. Multipolar. d. Unipolar.
A

b. bipolar

159
Q
  1. Which characteristic is common to both nervous tissue and muscular tissue? a. Contractility. b. Elasticity. c. Excitability. d. Extensibility.
A

c. excitability

160
Q
  1. Which method of ATP production does not use oxygen but does use glucose? a. Phosphagen system. b. Anaerobic fermentation. c. Excitation-contraction coupling. d. Aerobic respiration.
A

b. anaerobic fermentation

161
Q
  1. What is the name of the contractile unit of a muscle cell?a. Sarcolemma. b. Sarcoplasm. c. Sarcomere. d. Sarcophagus.
A

c. sarcomere

162
Q
  1. Which part of the muscle cell contains ligand-gated ion channels? a. T-tubule. b. Terminal cisternae. c. Motor end plate. d. Synaptic knob.
A

c. motor end plate

163
Q
  1. Which muscle shape has the weakest of contraction strength? a. Fusiform. b. Circular. c. Parallel. d. Convergent.
A

b. circular

164
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Qualitative encoding is based on how many neurons fire and how often they fire.
A

false

165
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Ependymal cells filter blood to make cerebrospinal fluid.
A

true

166
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Sodium is kept at a high concentration inside neuron membranes.
A

false

167
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE The time during which a cell cannot be stimulated again is the latent period.
A

false

168
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Interneurons communicate between sensory and motor neurons.
A

true

169
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Myosin heads bind to actin active sites when exposed.
A

true

170
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Superficial fascia lies between muscle surface and skin.
A

true

171
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Myofibrils are made up of many sarcomeres.
A

true

172
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Actin filaments are connected to dense bodies in smooth muscle.
A

true

173
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE Sodium gates are slow to open compared to potassium gates
A

false

174
Q
  1. What are all the benefits and disadvantages to aerobic respiration and anaerobic fermentation?
A

aerobic- produces more ATP and less toxic end products, but requires a continual supply of oxygen
anaerobic- allows the cell to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen, but produces lactic acid, a toxic end product which is a major factor in muscle fatigue

175
Q
  1. What are the three characteristics of nervous tissue AND the five characteristics of muscle tissue?
A

nervous- sensation, communication, integration

muscle- excitability, contractility, extensibility, conductivity

176
Q
  1. Name three of the six neuroglial cell types, and give one function of each.
A

microglia- clean up cellular debris via phagocytosis
oligodendrocytes- myelinates axons of the neurons in the CNS
schwann cells- myelinates axons of the neurons in the PNS

177
Q
  1. What is the difference between a neuron, a nerve and a ganglion?
A

neuron- a nerve cell
nerve- a card like organ of the peripheral nervous system composed of multiple nerve fibers
ganglion- a cluster of cell bodies in the PNS

178
Q
  1. List three ways to increase the strength of a muscle twitch and/or prevent twitch weakness.
A
  1. increase temperature
  2. varies cell concentration of Ca ^2+
  3. weaker when pH is too low
179
Q
  1. Explain how smooth muscle cells are stimulated in a single-unit format.
A

a

180
Q
  1. What is the difference between the CNS and the PNS and what do those acronyms stand for?
A

CNS- central nervous system, has to do with the brain and spinal cord and their functions
PNS- peripheral nervous system, has to do with all other functions of the body excluding the brain and spinal cord

181
Q
  1. What cells create the myelin sheath in the CNS and PNS and what are the two functions of the sheath?
A

a

182
Q
  1. What is the difference in location between endomysium, perimysium and epimysium?
A

endomysium- surrounds each muscle fiber
perimysium- wraps muscle fibers together in bundles
epimysium- surrounds the muscle

183
Q
  1. What are the three ways to remove neurotransmitters from a synaptic cleft?
A

diffusion, reuptake, degradation

184
Q
  1. What is the difference between the somatic and visceral divisions of the PNS?
A

somatic- pertaining to cells other than germ cells

visceral- pertaining to the viscera

185
Q
  1. What is the function of the troponin/tropomyosin complex?
A

a

186
Q
  1. Draw a multipolar neuron and label the dendrite, soma, axon, terminal arborization, and synaptic knobs.
A

see laur’s test

187
Q
  1. Explain the action of an IPSP. (Not just what it is, but how one is formed.)
A

a

188
Q
  1. Name three things that return a muscle cell to its resting size during relaxation.
A

a

189
Q
  1. List the physical differences between a smooth muscle cell and a skeletal muscle cell.
A

smooth- tapered cells with single nucleus

skeletal- elongated cells with multiple nuclei

190
Q
  1. Explain why the brain is perfused with CSF and not blood.
A

blood is toxic to the brain

191
Q
  1. What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative neural coding?
A

a

192
Q
  1. What is the difference between temporal summation and spatial summation?
A

a

193
Q
  1. Draw a simple sarcomere and label the actin, myosin, z-disc, titin, A-band, and I-band.
A

see lauren’s test

194
Q
  1. (5 pts.) Describe the process of regeneration of a severed axon in the PNS.
A

When a nerve fiber is cut, the part distal to the cut cannot survive. Schwann cells degenerate. Macrophages clean it up. Soma swells. Nissl bodies dispense. Nucleus moves off center. Growth processes grow from axon. Regeneration tube created by Schwann cells. One axon growth process finds tube and grows rapidly. Regeneration tube guides back to target cell. Soma shrinks.

195
Q
  1. (5 pts) List the differences in form and function of local and action potentials.
A

local- dendrite/soma, decremental, graded, reversible, ligand gates
action- axon, all or none, nondecremental, not graded, irreversible, voltage gates

196
Q
  1. (5 pts.) List the differences in anatomy and function between slow and fast twitch fibers.
A

slow- red, aerobic, type I, more mitochondria, more capillaries, more myoglobin, high stamina, low fatigue
fast- white, type II, less mitochondria, less capillaries, less myoglobin, low stamina, high fatigue

197
Q
  1. (5 pts.) List the physiological causes of fatigue in muscle cells.
A
  1. Accumulation of K+ in ECF
  2. ADP/pi accumulation
  3. Lactic acid lowers pH
  4. Fuel depletion
  5. Electrolyte loss
  6. CNS fatigues
198
Q
  1. (10 pts.) Describe in detail ONE of the following processes: excitation, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, relaxation.
A

Contraction is the step in which the muscle fiber develops tension and may shorten. Myosin ATPase enzyme in myosin head hydrolyzes on ATP molecule. It activates the head “cocking” it in an extended position. ADP + Pi remain attached. Head binds to actin active site forming a myosin-actin cross bridge. Then the myosin head releases ATP and Pi, flexes pulling thin filaments past thick. This is called the power stroke. Upon binding more ATP, myosin releases actin and process is repeated.

199
Q
  1. (10 pts.) Describe the transmission of an action potential down an axon in detail, starting from the trigger zone. Describe the motion of sodium and potassium and the change in membrane voltage during the action potential, plus its effects on the next section of the axolemma.
A

Na+ arrives at the axon hillock and depolarizes membrane as a local potential. Threshold must be reached -55 mV to open voltage gates. Action potential is reached Na+ gates open quickly K+ gates open slower. As it goes past 0 mV, Na+ gates start to shut when they are closed. Voltage is about 35 mV, K+ gates are fully open at this time. K+ leaves and repolarizes membrane more K+ leaves then Na+ enter. mV drops to 1 or 2 mV more negative than RMP therefore hyperpolarizing membrane.

Anatomy (11 decks)

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