Final Flashcards

1
Q

Why does water accumulate inside the cell during hypoxia?

A

Sodium accumulates inside the cell

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2
Q

What is the product of the enzyme superoxide dismutase?

A

Hydrogen Peroxide

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3
Q

What four sources of Free Radical production?

A

Normal metabolic processes
Pollutants
Radiation
Smoking

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4
Q

What is expected result of hypoxia?

A

Increased intracellular calcium

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5
Q

Free radicals have unpaired?

A

Electrons

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6
Q

Superoxide is un example ox which type of molecule?

A

Free radical

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7
Q

During hypoxia where does potassium accumulate if ATP is not available to power the sodium-potassium pump

A

Outside the cell

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8
Q

When carbon monoxide interferes with the delivery of oxygen this is considered?

A

Chemical asphyxia

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9
Q

What is a collection of blood in soft tissue such as under the dura mater?

A

Hematoma

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10
Q

Dunns hypothermic injuries what five things can occur?

A

Infarction
Ischemia
Increased intracellular sodium
Vasoconstriction
Viscosity of blood increases

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11
Q

Suffocation, strangulation, and drowning are considered;

A

Asphyxia injures

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12
Q

Suffocation, strangulation, and drowning are considered;

A

Asphyxia injures

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13
Q

Injures from noise, radiation, and temperature are considered what type of injury?

A

Physical injuries

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14
Q

Fractures, asphyxia, and temperature injuries are considered what type of injury?

A

Physical injures

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15
Q

Hypothermic and hyperthermic injuries are considered what type of injury?

A

Temperature injuries

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16
Q

When alcohol binds to GABA receptors it has what type of impact?

A

Inhibitory

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17
Q

Direct damage due to on-target toxicity describes a mechanism for which type of injury?

A

Chemical injury

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18
Q

The primary site for acute ethanol toxicity is the?

A

Central Nervous System

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19
Q

Due to paint or occupation exposure to which chemical Dunns the 19th century?

A

Lead

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20
Q

Injury due to pesticides or mercury are considered?

A

Chemical injuries

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21
Q

Respiratory acidosis could be suspected in what condition?

A

Asthma

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22
Q

During a respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation the kidneys compensate with retention of?

A

H+ (Hydrogen)

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23
Q

During a respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation the kidneys compensate with excretion of?

A

HCO3- ( Bicarbonate)

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24
Q

What can cause acidosis?

A

Elevation of CO2

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25
Q

What can cause respiratory alkalosis?

A

Depression of CO2

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26
Q

What can cause metabolic alkalosis?

A

Elevation of HCO3-

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27
Q

What effects of aging have at the cellular level?
(Two)

A

Apoptotic Resistance
Telomeres shorten

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28
Q

What is a neurological disease associated with aging?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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29
Q

What is a cardiovascular disease associated with aging?

A

Hypertension

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30
Q

Part of cell death process, a cell is shrinking and broken into several bodies. What is the death process called?

A

Apoptosis

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31
Q

Wet gangrene is a clinical term for what type of necrosis?

A

Liquefactive

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32
Q

TNF-R2 is considered a?

A

Receptor

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33
Q

What type of necrosis is a likely suspect of breast cancer?

A

Fat

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34
Q

What type of necrosis is described is a harding process where tissues become solid from a liquid state due to cell death caused by ischemia?

A

Coagulative

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35
Q

What type of necrosis can be described as wet or dry?

A

Gangrenous

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36
Q

What type necrosis occurs due to lipases?

A

Fat

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37
Q

What type of necrosis is described us “cheese-like” and occurs commonly in tuberculosis?

A

Caseous

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38
Q

When does rigor mortis give way due to the decomposition of muscle tissue after somatic death?

A

36 hours

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39
Q

What increases intracellulary after somatie death and causes muscle stiffness?

A

Calcium

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40
Q

When does rigor mortis fully form after somatic death?

A

12 hours

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41
Q

Which term mans the “bruise of death”?

A

Liver mortis

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42
Q

Liver mortis refers to what expected feature of somatic death?

A

Discoloration occurs in gravity-dependent area

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43
Q

Death of the whole organism refers to?

A

Somatic death

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44
Q

Rigor mortis refers to what expected features of somatic death?

A

Muscle contraction and stiffness

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45
Q

A predisposition for the disease tends to move the risk_ the disease threshold

A

Closer to

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46
Q

A predisposition for the disease tends to move the risk_ the disease threshold

A

Closer to

47
Q

What causes a permanent epigenetic modification in DNA?

A

Methylation of DNA

48
Q

What four mechanisms might result in epigenetic modifications to DNA?

A

Aging
Diet
Environmental chemicals
Illicit drugs or pharmaceuticals

49
Q

What four mechanisms might result in epigenetic modifications to DNA?

A

Aging
Diet
Environmental chemicals
Illicit drugs or pharmaceuticals

50
Q

The poly A tail is part of the?

A

3’ regulatory sequence

51
Q

Introns and exons are found in which part of a gene?

A

Open reading frame

52
Q

Promoters and receptors are collectively called?

A

Transcription factors

53
Q

A gene is read from 5 to 3. The up stream region is the part that transcribed earlier while the downstream region is transcribed late. What is the upstream of the open reading frame.

A

5 unstranslated region

54
Q

Many chromosome translocations result in?

A

Leukemias & lymphomas

55
Q

What is the most common outcome of a Chromosome inversion?

A

No discernible abnormalies

56
Q

What is the pattern recognition receptor for lipopolysaccharide?

A

Toll-like receptor 4(TL1R4)

57
Q

A bacterial cell becomes coated with complement C3b antibody can try to become easy prey for a Macrophage.This process is called?

A

Opsonization

58
Q

The cell is most likely to carry a pattern recognition receptor?

A

Macrophage

59
Q

Mast cells are abnormally and strongly. Activated in a life-threating innate immune reaction called?

A

Anaphylaxis

60
Q

Nuclear factor B (NF-kB) is an importers element of the immune response. What is the most complete description of the role of u(NF-kB)

A

Transcription factor

61
Q

A dendrite cell presents an antigen which is specific to a T helper cell. What proteins are involved in the complex that is formed?

A

CD3 (cell receptor specific to the antigen
CD4
MHC class II Molecule

62
Q

An activated B cell presents an antigen which is specific to a T helper cell. What proteins are involved in the complex that is formed?

A

CD3(T cell receptor specific to the antigen)
CD4
MHC class II molecule

63
Q

Which antibody class is the first to appear in the blood in the first week after exposure to a pathogen?

A

IgM

64
Q

Which antibody class is made by B memory cells?

A

IgG

65
Q

Which antibody class is found in the blood for weeks, months, or years after exposure to a pathogen?

A

IgG

66
Q

The second immune response is much stronger than the first because of the existence of a clinal population of?

A

Memory B and memory T cells

67
Q

What disease is thought to be triggered in part, by a combination of type 2 (ILC2) and type 3(IL3) bridges between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Asthma-induced obesity

68
Q

What innate immune cell responds to infection by engulfing and dropping chemical “bombs” on the invader?

A

Neutrophil

69
Q

The response to worms or the abnormal response all allergens or asthma, are triggered by the —— that releases histamine and other chemicals to destroy pathogens: which cell Tyre responds to IgE?

A

Mast cells

70
Q

What immune response to the invader round worms involves which key cell type? It also is involved with allergies and asthma?

A

Mast cell

71
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is involved in anaphylaxis and allergy?

A

IgE

72
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is involved in anaphylaxis and allergy?

A

IgE

73
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is involved in immune hypersensitivity to free soluble antigens in blood?

A

IgG

74
Q

Contact dermatitis ( such as a rush from poison ivy) is primarily mediated by?

A

T helper 1 (Th1) cells

75
Q

Activated must cells release?

A

Histamine

76
Q

Activated ———- (plasma cells) release IgE, which may lead to allergy or anaphylaxis?

A

B-cells

77
Q

Inflammation causes cancer, as the tumoricidal effector response decreases——- increases.

A

Immure tolerance

78
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for the tumoricidal effector response?

A
79
Q

How is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmitted?

A

Penetration of the rectal or vagina mucosa

80
Q

Match the retroviral gene name to its function

Env
Gag
Pol

A

Env - envelope proteins
Gag- matrix, capsid, and nucleoid
Pol-reverse transcriptase (RNA)

81
Q

The main diagnostic feature of systemic lupus erythematosus is?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies

82
Q

Scientists believe the root cause of systemic lupus erythematosus is?

A

Failure to clear dying cells

83
Q

DQ2 and DQ8 are MHC markers which predispose patients to celiac disease which are the MHC markers found?

A

On the surface of antigen-presenting cells

84
Q

The main organ attacked in type 1 diabetes is?

A

Pancreas

85
Q

What immune cells uses tumor necrosis factor alpha an extracellular signal? ( There are multiple)

A
86
Q

Which gender is much likely to get systemic lupus erythematosus and by how much?

A

Women by 9x

87
Q

What is an effective treatment for celiac disease:

A

Hookworm infestation

88
Q

What diagnostic test is used to determine if a patient has cellae disease?

A

IgG antibodies against transglutaminase 2

89
Q

What is the main interleukin type involved in plaque psoriasis

A

IL-17

90
Q

In immune hypersensitivity to free, soluble antigens in blood, complexes are former by antigen bound to?

A
91
Q

Mast cells are abnormally and strongly actuated in a life treating innate immune reaction called?

A

Anaphylaxis

92
Q

The second immure response is much stronger than the first because of the existence of a clonal population of?

A

Memory B and memory T cells

93
Q

What diseases are thought to be triggered in part , by type 1 (natural killer ILC1) “bridge” between innate and adaptive immunity? (There are multiple)

A
94
Q

In the cytokine storm that results from SARS-CoV 2 infection resting macrophages are activated by what inflammatory cytokines? (There are multiple)

A
95
Q

What cytokines make up the proposed cytokine storm in COVID-19? There are five

A

CXCL-10
Granulocyte/monocyte colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
Interferon-gamma (IFN-y)
IL-6
IL-8
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

96
Q

SARS CoV-2 is the virus that triggers the disease COVID-19. Virus-infected cells (including alveolar cells of the lung) release chemical signals that say: “ I’m a virus infected cell” save yourself. What is this chemical signal called?

A

Interferon-alpha and beta (IFN-a, IFN-B)

97
Q

An important part of wound healing is carried out by cells that engulf and chop up invaders into pieces that are displayed on the cell surface. This process is called?

A

Phagocytosis

98
Q

SARS-Cov 2 infects monocytes via DAMPs and PAMPs. The monocyte then release ______ promoting clotting through the intrinsic pathway.

A

Tissue factor

99
Q

In order to deliver white blood cells to damaged tissues, blood vessels become “leaky”. this produces _________one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.

A

Swelling

100
Q

Which part of the immune system is responsible for the characteristic signs of inflammation?

A

Innate

101
Q

The enzyme that breaks down collagen in wound debridement is?

A

collagenase

102
Q

What drugs can be used to counteract anaphylaxis? (There are four)

A

Antihistamines
Bronchodilators
Corticosteroids
Epinephrine

103
Q

What is gene shuffling?

A
104
Q

What is related o overexpression of oncogenes and inhibition of tumor suppressor genes?

A

Oral Cancer

105
Q

What is the term used for microorganisms that can grow in an acidic enviorment?

A

Aciduric

105
Q

What is gingivitis?

A

An inflammatory condition of the gum tissue

106
Q

What can often be associated with plaque development?

A

Overcrowding or misalignment of teeth?

107
Q

What can help with remineralization of tooth’s surface?

A

Calcium, phosphate and fluoride

108
Q

What type of dysphagia would be associated with ALS or Parkinson disease>

A

Neurological

109
Q

What is a type of esophageal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

110
Q

What mechanism is commonly involved in GERD?

A

Hiatal hernia

111
Q

Results in a loss of peristatic function can be caused by?

A

Achalasia

112
Q

What is a common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis?

A
113
Q
A