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OB/GYN II > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

At what time during embryonic development is there differentiation between male and female

A

9-12 weeks

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2
Q

When is the genetic sex of an embryo determined

A

fertilization/conception

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3
Q

When does the sonographer call the sex of a fetus

A

16 weeks male and 20 weeks female

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4
Q

_______ secrete estrogen and progesterone early in pregnancy, ______ secretes estrogen and progesterone later in pregnancy

A

corpus luteum, placenta

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5
Q

The aorta leaves the heart, loops posteriorly, and descends anterior to the spine, forming the _______ sign

A

candy cane

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6
Q

The major structures evaluated in the superior cut of the fetal cranium are the

A

midline falx, choroid plexus, lateral ventricle

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7
Q

The major structures evaluated in the inferior cut of the fetal cranium are the

A

circle of willis, cistern magna, cerebellum, cerebral peduncles

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8
Q

The major structures evaluated in the mid cut of the fetal cranium are the

A

thalamus, CSP, 3rd ventricle, midline falx

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9
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: falx cerebri

A

echogenic

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10
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: thalami

A

cystic/hypoechoic

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11
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: choroid plexus

A

echogenic

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12
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: lateral ventricles

A

cystic

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13
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: cerebellum

A

hyperechoic

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14
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: circle of willis

A

echogenic

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15
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: CSP

A

echogenic with cystic border

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16
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: cranial bones

A

echogenic

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17
Q

Label the following structures as echogenic, hypoechoic, cystic: lens of the eyes

A

echogenic

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18
Q

What is the normal measurement for the lateral ventricles

A

<10mm

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19
Q

What is the normal measurement for the cerebellum

A

follow GA up to 28 weeks

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20
Q

What is the normal measurement of the cistern magna

A

3-11 mm

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21
Q

What is the normal measurement of the nuchal fold and when to measure it

A

<6mm, 16-20 weeks

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22
Q

The ______ of the eye is seen as a small echogenic circle within the orbit

A

lens

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23
Q

The rooftop is seen in what plane of the spine

A

transverse

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24
Q

Why is it important to image the fetal diaphragm? What structures should be superior to the diaphragm? What structures should be inferior to the diaphragm

A

r/o diaphragmatic hernia, lungs and heart, stomach, liver, bowel and spleen

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25
Q

The foramen ovale should open into the

A

left atrium of the fetal heart

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26
Q

The ______ is a special connection for fetal circulation between the umbilical vein and the IVC

A

ductus venosus

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27
Q

The decreased abdominal circumference associated with IUGR is due to decreased size of the

A

liver

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28
Q

As the fetus matures, more and more _____ can be seen in the large bowel

A

meconium

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29
Q

What is meconium

A

fecal matter

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30
Q

If there is fluid in the renal pelvis that measures more than _____, it is considered hydronephrosis

A

10mm

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31
Q

What is the normal range for amniotic fluid volume

A

5-22cm

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32
Q

What is the most common type of ASD

A

patent foramen ovale

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33
Q

What grade of placenta is associated with placenta insufficiency and may be associated with IUGR if seen before 34 weeks

A

grade 3

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34
Q

A placenta that has calcifications along the maternal border and small hypoechoic areas within the placenta itself is a grade

A

2

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35
Q

A placenta that has calcifications along the maternal border and within the placenta itself, and has a “cumulous cloud” appearance is grade

A

3

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36
Q

A placenta that has small hypoechoic areas within it is grade

A

1

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37
Q

A placenta that is completely homogenous is grade

A

0

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38
Q

Cardiac activity should be seen when the CRL is greater than _____ and when the GSD is greater than _____

A

7mm, 16mm

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39
Q

The _______ is a ratio used to determine normalcy of head shape

A

CI

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40
Q

________ is a group of characteristics including spina bifida, hydrocephalus, banana sign, lemon sign, and obliteration of the cistern magna

A

arnold chiari II malformation

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41
Q

The _______ view is the best image plane to visualize cleft lip/palate

A

modified coronal

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42
Q

Frontonasal dysplasia is a median cleft face syndrome with midline defects involving the

A

eyes, nose and forehead

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43
Q

What structures should the sonographer evaluate when imaging the nose/lips

A

nostril symmetry, nasal septum integrity, continuity of upper lip

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44
Q

A ________ indicates bilateral cleft palate even when only unilateral is visualized sonographically

A

echogenic mass near nose

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45
Q

Fetal goiter suggest the mother is

A

hypothyroid

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46
Q

Cystic hygroma is associated with

A

turner’s syndrome

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47
Q

Fetuses with cystic hygroma often die from

A

heart failure

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48
Q

The developing heart is first located in the sacral region

A

False, cranial region

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49
Q

The early closures of the sagittal sutures will cause pfieffer syndrome

A

true

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50
Q

Amniotic fluid must be inhaled in order for the fetal lungs to develop

A

true

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51
Q

The fetal abdomen is slightly smaller than the fetal thorax

A

false

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52
Q

Small chest size is frequently associated with

A

diaphragmatic hernia

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53
Q

What is the normal ratio of the thoracic circumference to abdominal circumference

A

0.94

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54
Q

What sonographic appearance of the lungs should become more _____ as the fetus ages

55
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia is a reduction in lung volume that usually is a complication of

A

oligohydramnios

56
Q

What are the sonographic indications of a diaphragmatic hernia

A

visualization of stomach above diaphragm, spleen above diaphragm, displacement of the fetal heart is to the right

57
Q

What side does a diaphragmatic hernia usually occur

58
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney

59
Q

What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy

60
Q

HCG can be detected as early as

A

7 days, end of 2 weeks

61
Q

Describe spina bifida occulta

A

closed defect, skin covering, tuft of hair, birth mark

62
Q

Define spina bifida cystica

A

membrane bulges through defect, cystic/complex

63
Q

Define rachlschsis

A

open defect, spine exposed, lethal

64
Q

A mass that occurs due to abnormal lymph drainage is

A

cystic hygroma

65
Q

Removal of amniotic fluid from the uterus with a needle is

A

amniocentesis

66
Q

Anterior abdominal wall defect with herniation of bowel and possibly abdominal organs into base of umbilical cord is known as

A

omphalocele

67
Q

Term describing extra fingers is

A

polydactyly

68
Q

What is the clinical absence of cerebral hemispheres due to occlusion of the ICAs

A

hydrancephaly

69
Q

Enlargement of the fetal head is known as

A

macrocephaly

70
Q

_______ is when brain tissue and meninges are protruding through a defect in the skull

A

encephalocele

71
Q

Anencephaly is a neural tube defect

72
Q

Where do encephaloceles typically occur

A

back of skull/occipital area

73
Q

What does the cerebellum coordinate

A

motor skills, posture, movement

74
Q

_______ are strips of amniotic membrane that become detached from the chorion/uterus due to uterine scars and fetal movement

A

amniotic bands

75
Q

Early in pregnancy, what secretes HCG

A

trophoblast/chorion

76
Q

What abnormalities would you suspect with lower than expected serum HCG

A

incorrect dates, embryonic demise, missed abortion, ectopic pregnancy`

77
Q

The yolk sac is located between the chorion and the amnion

78
Q

What does the inner cell mass of the blastocyst develop into

A

embryonic disk, amnion, yolk sac

79
Q

Failure of fusion of the mullerian ducts can lead to a t-shaped uterus

80
Q

The yolk sac visualized sonographically is known as the

A

secondary yolk sac

81
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign for

A

placenta previa

82
Q

Posterior urethral valve obstruction will have kind of sonographic appearance

A

dilated bladder with keyhole

83
Q

Measurement of the yolk sac is done

A

inner to inner (6mm)

84
Q

Large for dates is indicative of IUGR

85
Q

The right lung occupies _____ of the chest, the heart occupies _____ of the chest, and the left lung occupies _____ of the chest

86
Q

Neural tube defect where cranium, cerebrum, and cerebellar hemispheres are absent is

A

anencephaly

87
Q

Which sonographic measurement is least accurate for determining gestation age

88
Q

What is the anechoic structure visualized between 8-11 weeks in the posterior portion of the embryonic cranium

A

rhombencephalon

89
Q

What is the term for a fetus with a hydatiform mole

A

partial molar pregnancy

90
Q

Label what trisomys go with: thickened nuchal fold

91
Q

Label what trisomys go with: rocker bottom foot

92
Q

Label what trisomys go with: duodenal atresia

93
Q

Label what trisomys go with: holoprosencephaly

A

13, triploidy

94
Q

Label what trisomys go with: omphalocele

95
Q

Label what trisomys go with: micrognathia

A

13, 18, triploidy

96
Q

Label what trisomys go with: probiscus

97
Q

Label what trisomys go with: cyclops

A

13, triploidy

98
Q

Label what trisomys go with: clenched hands

99
Q

Label what trisomys go with: cleft palate

100
Q

Label what trisomys go with: clinodactaly of 5th finger

101
Q

Label what trisomys go with: polydactyly

102
Q

Label what trisomys go with: hypotelorism

103
Q

Label what trisomys go with: echogenic bowel

104
Q

Label what trisomys go with: flattened nasal bridge

105
Q

Label what trisomys go with: ventricular septal defect

A

13, 18, 21, triploidy

106
Q

Label what trisomys go with: cystic hygroma

A

13, 18, 21

107
Q

Label what trisomys go with: diaphragmatic hernia

108
Q

Label what trisomys go with: cryptorchidism

109
Q

Label what trisomys go with: club foot

110
Q

Label what trisomys go with: syndactly

111
Q

Label what trisomys go with: polyhydramnios

112
Q

Label what trisomys go with: oligohydramnios

113
Q

Label what trisomys go with: meningomyelocele

A

13, triploidy

114
Q

Label what trisomys go with: cerebellar hypoplasia

115
Q

Label what trisomys go with: short femurs

116
Q

The tricuspid valve inserts superior to the mitral valve

A

false, inferior

117
Q

What are the factors associated with placenta abruption

A

maternal htn, maternal trauma, smoking, alcohol, drug use, short cord, maternal age

118
Q

What structures do the mullerian ducts form

A

female repoductive tract, oviduct, uterus, cervix, upper vagina, fallopian tube

119
Q

What are common causes of vaginal bleeding in the second trimester

A

subchorionic hematoma, placenta previa, retroplacental bleed, placental abruption

120
Q

What are the clinical findings for inectible abortions

A

bleeding more then 7 days, abd cramping, cervical dilation more than 3cm, ruptured membranes, moderate cervical effacement

121
Q

What are the clinical signs of an incomplete abortion

A

vaginal bleeding, cramping, slowly decreasing HCG, cervical dilation, incomplete passage of products of conception

122
Q

Where to the kidneys originate during embryonic development

A

lower pelvis

123
Q

______ is essential for fetal lung development

A

amniotic fluid

124
Q

What are some of the teratogens for a developing fetus

A

alcoholm, reubella, illicit drugs, diabetes, radiation

125
Q

With a multiple gestational pregnancy it is normal to have decrease MSAFP

126
Q

Echogenic foci in the pulmonary vessels and abdomen, presence of a gas shadow within the heart or the greater vessels associated with fetal demise is known as

A

roberts sign

127
Q

The umbilical vein is sampled during _____ procedure with real time ultrasound guidance

A

PUBS (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling)

128
Q

What are sonographic findings for holoprosencephaly

A

single midline ventricle (C-shaped), fused thalamus, hypotelorism, facial prob

129
Q

What does CCAM stand for

A

congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

130
Q

Oligohydramnios is highly suggestive of CCAM

131
Q

Polyhydramnios is associated with symmetrical IUGR

132
Q

What is the most common form of cyanotic heart disease

A

tetralogy of fallot

133
Q

Uterine artery resistance

A

low (constant perfusion)

OB/GYN II (13 decks)

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