Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB/GYN II > Ch. 54 Test > Flashcards

Ch. 54 Test Flashcards

1
Q

List 3 ways that sonography plays an important role in the management of obstetric patients

A

guide invasive procedures, placental location, determine gest age, fetal growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List two ways that sonography has improved patient care

A

needle guide for amniocentesis, chorionic villous sampling, intrauterine transfusion without radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are all multiple pregnancies considered high risk

A

3rd trimester bleeding, preeclampsia, premature delivery, prolapsed umbilical cord, congenital anomalies, 5 times more likely for fetal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must be seen on the 1st trimester sonogram to definitely diagnose multiple pregnancy

A

multiple fetal poles with heart beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are three clinical findings that would lead the attending physician to suspect multiple pregnancy

A

elevated AFP, elevated HCG, increased fundal height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A complication of pregnancy characterized by increasing hypertension, proteinuria, and edema is

A

toxemia and pre eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ is a type of monozygotic twinning that occurs when the egg divides into twins after 13 days

A

conjoined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______ refers to coma and seizures in the 2nd or 3rd trimester patient due to pregnancy induced HTN

A

eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

______ refers to excessive vomiting caused by pregnancy leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ is a lack of development of the lower limbs of the fetus

A

caudal regression syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ twins come from two ova

A

fraternal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____ times come from the same ovum

A

identical, monozygotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ is the result of an AV fistula in a multiple pregnancy with a single placenta. It results in one fetus being starved while the other goes into fluid overload

A

twin twin transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_______ MSAFP is associated with neural tube defects

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is the safest type of twinning

A

di, di

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is the most dangerous type of twinning

A

mono, mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is it so important to document the presence/absence of a membrane between fetuses in a multiple pregnancy

A

If there are 2 separate sacs, the risk goes down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_____ of pregnancies that begin as twins end up as singleton pregnancies

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does fetus papyraceous occur

A

fetus too large to be reabsorbed, when fetus dies, becomes compressed, dehydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In twin twin transfusion, the _____ twin develops oligohydramnios and the ______ twin develops polyhydramnios

A

donor, recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is stuck twin

A

donor pushed against uterine wall because it has oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If there is discordant growth between twins, does it definitely mean that twin twin transfusion is present

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must be included in the report of a multiple gestation sonogram

A

gest sacs, # and location of placentas, gender, fetal measurements, detailed anatomical survey, biometrical data, presence of anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can sonography determine whether or not twins are identical? How or why not?

A

yes/sometimes, gender and presence of membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If the sonographer fails to detect a membrane separating the fetuses in a multiple pregnancy, does it automatically mean that the pregnancy is monoamniotic

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What other parameters can be used to determine the chorionicity and amnioticity of a multiple pregnancy

A

gender/dizygotic, entwined cords/monozygotic, more than 3 vessels in umbilical cord/mono amnionicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is it important to determine the gender of the fetuses in a multiple pregnancy

A

rule out twin twin transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is hydrops fetalis

A

excessive accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal tissues/body cavities

29
Q

Immune hydrops is caused by _______ which is caused by

A

erythroblastosis fetalis, baby is Rh+ and mother is Rh- (isoimmunization)

30
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is prevented in sensitized women giving them ______ shots

A

RhoGAM

31
Q

Once a fetus develops erythroblastosis fetalis, how is the condition treated

A

intrauterine transfusion

32
Q

Name the 2 most current methods of detecting and assessing fetal anemia

A

portosynthesis, doppler MCA in fetus

33
Q

Describe the sonographic findings in fetal hydrops

A

ascites, pericardial effusions, edema, thickened placenta, polyhydramnios, pleural effusion, skin thickening

34
Q

Describe the two methods of performing fetal transfusion

A

intraperitoneal (old) needle to peritoneal cavity

intravascular (new) via umbilical vein

35
Q

__________ is a rare condition in which a mother becomes sensitized to fetal platelets, much like a Rh reaction, resulting in a fetus with an extremely low platelet count. What can happen to a fetus in this condition

A

alloimmune thrombocytopenia, fetal intracerebral hemorrhage (spontaneous bleeds in fetus)

36
Q

What is non-immune hydrops

A

hydrops is present in fetus but not a result of fetomaternal blood group incompatibility

37
Q

What are the most frequent/common causes on non-immune hydrops

A

cardiovascular lesions, hydrops due to any cause other than Rh sensitation

38
Q

List five other causes of non immune hydrops

A

chromosomal, twins, urinary problems, GI problems, placenta/limb problems, infetions

39
Q

Why is a pregnancy high risk if the mother is diabetic

A

liver controls serious infections, macrosomia, stillbirth, congenital anomalies, preterm labor, caudal regression syndrome

40
Q

______ is the primary fuel for fetal growth

A

glucose

41
Q

List three things that are associated with poor glucose control

A

macrosomia, 3rd trimester loss, respiratory distress, polyhydramnios, PROM

42
Q

List eight congenital anomalies that are associated with maternal diabetes

A

caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, duodenal atresia, renal agenesis, hydronephrosis, ventricular septal defect, microcephaly

43
Q

What fetal tests are done to determine lung maturity

A

LS ratio, PG levels, aminocentesis, lung surfacant

44
Q

What negative effects does maternal hypertension have on a pregnancy

A

oligohydramnios, preeclampsia, IUGR, placenta abruption, eclampsia, small placenta

45
Q

What is thought to cause pregnancy induced hypertension

A

prostaglandin abnormalities

46
Q

How does lupus affect a pregnancy

A

placenta affected by immune complex deposits and inflammatory responses in placental vessels, increased spontaneous abortions, stillbirths, IUGR

47
Q

What are symptoms of lupus

A

butterfly rash on face, BUN and creatine elevated

48
Q

What role does sonography play in evaluating hyperemesis gravidarum

A

rule out trophoblastic disease and gallstones, multiple gestations

49
Q

What maternal complications are obese women at increased risk for

A

hypertension, preeclampsia, UTI, gestational diabetes

50
Q

How can uterine fibroids complicate pregnancy

A

cause premature birth, obstruct pathway for delivery, poor placental prefusion (IUGR), interfere with placental growth

51
Q

Which trimester has the highest rate of fetal death

A

1st

52
Q

What landmarks are followed in the doctor’s office during the 2nd trimester

A

fetal heart tones, fundal height, fetal movements felt by mom

53
Q

The primary sonographic indicator of fetal demise is _____. What are the indicators?

A

absent heartbeat, absent fetal movement, overlap of skullbones (spaulding sign), exaggerated curved spine, gas in fetal abdomen, Duels sign (halo)

54
Q

If the fetus has died, why is it important for the sonographer to still do a complete sonogram

A

obtain structural anomalies and biometry to determine estimated weight for delivery

55
Q

______ is defined as the onset of labor before 37 weeks

A

preterm

56
Q

_____ is the inhibition of labor

A

tocolysis

57
Q

The more premature a baby is, the more problems it will have

A

true

58
Q

What is the role of sonography in preterm labor

A

assess AFI, assist for amniocentesis, fetal weight

59
Q

Why is amniocentesis often done on patients in premature labor

A

determine lung maturity

60
Q

What are the two views on management of patients with premature rupture of membranes

A

conservative-observe and wait to induce for fetal distress/infection
active- deliver within 48 hours to prevent infection

61
Q

What is external cephalic version

A

external manipulation to put baby head down

62
Q

Why is external cephalic version performed

A

to avoid c-section

63
Q

What are the contra-indications for external cephalic version

A

low fluid, obese, prior c section, anterior placenta, tight abdomen

64
Q

List the functions of amniotic fluid

A

protect, cushion, allows movement, maintain intraunterine temperature

65
Q

What is produced by umbilical cord and membranes, the fetal lungs, skin and kidneys

A

amniotic fluid

66
Q

Which method is used for visual assessment of AFV

A

subjective assessment of fluid

67
Q

Fetal production of urine and ability to swallow begin in what weeks

A

8-11 weeks

68
Q

Amniotic sheets are believed to be caused by what

A

synechiae (uterine scars)

OB/GYN II (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions