Feline Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

Acetaminophin toxicity

A

cats are unable to process acetaminophen because of deficiencies int he liver’s ability to glucuronidate the drug into a form that can be excreted by the body. When the liver’s enzyme pathways for glucuronidation is saturated, the drug is broken down into a toxic metabolite called NAPQI that damages hemoglobin and red blood cells and liver cells. This can lead to fatal methemoglobinemia followed by acute liver damage (Heinz bodies and glossy brown color of the blood). Although liver failure and life-threatening methemoglobinemia are the two primary processes that occur, some cats may develop renal failure from nephrotoxicity. Renal failure occurs more infrequently, however.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute cholangiohepatitis

A

usually seen in younger cats (3-3.5 years) and is more common in males than in females. Likely to be depressed, dehydrated, and febrile. Neutrophilia with or without left shift. Mild increase in bilirubin and ALP common, with more severe elevations of ALT. Treatment includes antibiotics with aerobic and anaerobic coverage that are excreted unchanged in the bile (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, and metronidazole). Ursodeoxycholic acid is useful in all types of inflammatory liver disease because of its anti-inflammatory and anti-fibrotic properties on the liver. It also increases fluidity of biliary secretions. 50% survival.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acute Glaucoma

A

Very painful condition characterized by epiphora, episcleral injection, corneal edema, and sometimes mydriasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

feline lungworm, treat with ivermectin and fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Amylase

A

Hydrolyzes starches: Enzyme produced by the pancreas and also found in saliva that is responsible for digestion of starch or carbohydrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amyloidosis familial disorder

A

Abyssinian (kidney), Siamese and Oriental (liver) shorthair. Amyloid deposition occurs most frequently in the kidney and liver. Clinical signs in Abyssinian are typically those of chronic renal failure. Hypertension may be secondary to glomerulotubular disease. Biopsy and stain with congo red definitive but often not necessary due to high risk of hemorrhage. Manage symptoms and do not breed from these cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anterior uveitis

A

Rubiosis iridis, aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which an be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic causes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arginine deficiency

A

Arginine is an essential amino acid in cats used to make ornithine, which binds to ammonia that is formed from the catabolism of protein. Deficiency results in build up of ammonia and signs similar to hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Black widow spider bite

A

Clinical presentation: found in basement recumbent and vocalizing, very rigid with muscle spasms

Toxin binds calcium channels, increasing membrane permeability and enhancing depolarization. Ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerve endings occur. A single bit may be serious to adult humans and could kill a small animal. Clinical signs occur almost immediately with pain, due in part to the release of acetylcholine, which stimulates contraction of major muscle groups. There may be ascending motor paralysis, muscle spasms, muscle rigidity, and salivation. Death from respiratory or cardiovascular failure is possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calicivirus

A

acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as oral ulcerations +/- conjunctival chemosis, and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. outbreaks of highly virulent and often lethal strains have been seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Capillaria aerophila

A

lungworm, parasite of the frontal sinus, trachea, bronchi, and rarely nasal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cate bite abscess

A

Anaerobes most frequently isolated bacteria in cat bit abscesses. These include obligate anaerobes such as Fusobacterium spp., Bacteroides spp., and Clostridium spp. as well as facultative anaerobes such as Pasteurella spp. and Actinmyces spp. Treatment by establishing drainage, vet still choose to treat with antibiotics (Clindamycin or amoxicillin with clavulanate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chlamydophila felis

A

Severe chemosis characteristic of infections. Upper respiratory tract pathogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cholangiohepatitis

A

Inflammation of the biliary system and liver parenchyma. Can be autoimmune in nature, or may be triggered by underlying infection or neoplasia. Concurrent disease often includes pancreatitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

Treatment: for non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis is prednisolone since it is most often immune in origin. Ursodiol is often used for its immunomodulatory, hepatoprotectant, and antifibrotic effects.It helps with the flow of bile through the liver. Other helpful therapies include S-adenosylmethionene (SAMe) and Vitamin E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chronic cholangiohepatitis

A

occurs in older cats (mean age 9 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chronic kidney failure management

A

Restrict dietary protein (decreases formation of nitrogenous wastes and help to palliate hyperphosphatemia), phosphate binders (prevent absorption of phosphorus from the intestines), H2 blockers (decrease gastric acid secretion to help prevent vomiting and formation of gastric ulcers), Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine (palliate hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cobalamin deficiency

A

causes inappetence, lethargy, and failure to thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Common congenital defect of white cats with blue eyes

A

deaf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Corneal dermoid

A

congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

yeast-like fungus which has narrow based budding. Clinical signs: respiratory, central nervous system, eyes and skin are usually areas you will see affected. Most have nasal involvement characterized by facial swelling, distortion ‘roman nose’, chronic snuffling and discharge, and granulomatous masses seen coming out of the nostril.

Treat with Itraconazole

Diagnosis: serology is very useful, latex agglutination on serum, CFS, or urine. Visible yeasts surrounded by a large capsuleoccasionallyy seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cryptosporidium

A

A coccidian that invades the small intestinal villi after ingestion of infected oocysts. It can be diagnosed with PRC. It is treated with clindamycin, azithromycin, or tylosin most commonly. It is usually an opportunist, so evaluation for underlying disease is appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cuterebra

A

Fly that lays its eggs on soil or plants. The eggs stick to the animal’s fur when they come into contact. The eggs hatch and the larvae either penetrate the skin, are ingested when the animal grooms; or they enter the animal’s body through a natural opening, such as the nose. In most cases, the larvae migrate to areas just under the skin on the head, neck, or trunk of the animal. In dogs, cats, and ferrets, who are not the usually hosts of this parasite, the larvae may also migrate to the brain, eye, eyelids, or throat. As the larva grows under the skin, it produces a nodule or swelling.A small opening develops in the skin, through which is breathes. A small amount of drainage may occur around this breathing hole. The treatment is to incise the skin if needed to remove the larva. You have to make sure to remove the larva in whole and not crush it. If it is damaged or crushed, it can cause an anaphylactic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cytauxzoon felis

A

Protozoal organism and transmission to cats through tick bites. Cats usually show clinical signs 1-3 weeks after infection. Signs can be nonspecific and include anorexia, lethargy, dyspnea, and icterus. Cats will also commonly have a marked pyrexia. The organism invades the reticuloendothelial cells of the lungs, spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and other organs so cranial organomegaly can often be present. The bone marrow can be affected causing pancytopenias. Thrombocytopenia is likely related tot eh development of DIC. There is no effective therapy and prognosis is poor to grave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Demodex cati

A

long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles

Diagnose on deep skin scrape

Treat with lime sulfur dip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Demodex gatoi

A

short and stubby mite which lives superficially. It is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus

Diagnose on superficial skin scrape

Treat with weekly lime sulfur dip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dermatophytosis

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diagnosis of Feline Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

Measure serum fTLI concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A

Heartworm; adulticide dangerous - manage with preds and heartguard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Elastase

A

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Eosinophilic granuloma

A

or linear granulomas are usually linear in shape and pin-yellow in color. Typically, they don’t crust and not usually pruritic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Estrus

A

typically lasts about 7 days (usually between 4-10 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

Occurs when 90% of pancreatic exocrine function is destroyed. fTLI concentration is measured from a fasted blood sample and a trypsinogen level less than 8ug/L is diagnostic. Typically cats with EPI also have a concurrent chronic pancreatitis as well as low levels of cobalamin. The exocrine pancreas is responsible for secreting intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor binds cobalamin to allow for gut absorption. Amylase and lipase concentrations do not provide reliable information regarding pancreatic function in cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Feline Calicivirus

A

common virus in cats that causes upper respiratory infection. Feline calicivirus is resistant to many disinfectants and can survive outside a cat’s body for several days

Feline calicivirus is spread between cats through direct contact with the eyes or nose of an infected cat or contact with contaminated objects that an infected cat has sneezed on or touched, such as food and water bowls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Feline Central Retinal Degeneration (FCRD)

A

can develop from taurine deficiency. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int he area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Feline Herpes Virus

A

80-100% of cats become carriers post infection

coughing, sneezing, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, and sometimes fever (up to 106) and loss of appetite

transmitted through direct contact only. It replicates in the nasal and nasopharyngeal tissues and the tonsils. Viremia (the presence of the virus in the blood) is rare. The virus is shed in saliva and eye and nasal secretions, and can also be spread by fomites. FVR has a two- to five-day incubation period. The virus is shed for one to three weeks postinfection. Latently infected cats (carriers) will shed FHV-1 intermittently for life, with the virus persisting within the trigeminal ganglion. Stress and use of corticosteroids precipitate shedding. Most disinfectants, antiseptics and detergents are effective against the virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Feline herpes virus ocular manifestations

A

conjunctivitis, corneal sequestrum, eosinophilic keratitis, corneal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Feline Idiopathic Cystitis

A

most common cause of lower urinary tract signs in young healthy cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

A

Lentivirus

Affects cytotoxic t-cells (CD8+), helper t-cells (CD4+), macrophages, b cell. After inoculation, replication occurs in lymphoid and salivary tissues. Eventually, the virus spreads to mononuclear cells, while viremia is suppressed the the host immune response (asymptomatic carrier phase) that can last several years. A slow decline in the number of CD4+ cells is seen, resulting in failure of the immune system. Cats are often about 10-15 years old by the time this occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis Diagnosis

A

Fecal-oral transmission. Eventually, feline corona virus mutates to a virulent feline infectious peritonitis virus which is able to multiply in macrophages. Ideal, a strong cell-mediated immune response eliminates the virus, but in some cats, the infection can become latent and is reactivated with stress. If a cell-mediated immune response is not mounted, pyogranulomatous vasculitis will occur due to the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the venous endothelium.

Wet form: Complement-mediated inflammation results in pleural and peritoneal effusions

Dry form: Partial cell-mediated immune response results in slow viral replication with granuloma formation

Diagnosis: Highest positive predictive value: Immunofluorescence staining from coronavirus in macrophages in effusion fluid. Immunohistochemistry or RT-PCR used to demonstrate on biopsy specimens ( does not work on feces or serum). Histopathology is gold standard and can show characteristic lesions of disseminated pyogranulomatous and fibrinonectrotic reaction around small veins. Rivalta’s test.

40
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus

A

retrovirus in the oncornaviridae subfamily and is transmitted both horizontally and vertically in cats. Virus propagates through the tissue, once bone marrow is infected, peripheral viremia occurs by infected neutrophils and platelets being released.

ELISA test for the p27 virus antigen in serum. IFA tests for p27 antigen in leukocytes and platelets.Test may turn negative after a few weeks in neutralized by the cat

41
Q

Feline Panleukopenia Virus

A

Parvovirus

selectively damages rapid dividing tissues, namely the bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract.

42
Q

Feline Parainfluenza virus

A

cause lesions in the distal airways and predispose to secondary bacterial invasion of the lungs

43
Q

Feline Skin Fragility Syndrome

A

concurrent hyperadrenocorticism

44
Q

Feline traumatic sarcoma

A

ocular sarcoma

45
Q

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

A

herpesvirus and causes respiratory symptoms same as feline herpes virus

46
Q

Glaucoma signs of chronicity

A

Buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity and retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic discs.

47
Q

Heartworm tests

A

Antigen test will be positive if there are female worms present, but all male worms can show a false-negative test result

Antibody test is prone to false-positive results because a positive test can result from a cat that has been exposed but cleared the infection. A negative test cannot absolutely rule out infection as some animals with a low worm burden may not mount a sufficient antibody response to be measured.

Used together, they can be useful in most cases.

Larvae are more likely to migrate to ectopic locations such as the brain, skin, and ocular tissue.

48
Q

Heinz bodies in the erythrocytes, blood glossy brown in color

A

Acetaminophen administration, the cat is showing signs of methemoglobinemia, which is caused by oxidative damage to the hemoglobin. Heinz bodies are usually present in animals with methemoglobinemia.

49
Q

Hemobartonella

A

now known as Mycoplasma haemofelis is a gram negative epierythrocytic parasitic bacterium and causeative agent of feline infectious anemia (FIA)

treat with doxycylcine

50
Q

Hyctiocytic mastocytomas

A

sub-type of mast cell tumour in Siamese cats

51
Q

Hydrocephalus in Siemese kittens

A

Cat exposed to toxin or feline panleukopenia virus during gestation

52
Q

Hypertension

A

complications include hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment), hypertensive heart disease, neurologic complications, and progression of renal disease. Treat with Amlodipine - calcium channel blocker works by preventing calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle cells, thereby causing vasodilation.

53
Q

Hypertonicity of urethral muscle

A

often post obstruction and urinary catheter making urinating painful and not easily controlled. Treat with phenoxybenzamine to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone.

54
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy treatment

A

Aim to improve diastolic filling by increasing heart rate. The primary problem with HCM is thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, impairing diastolic filling, there is usually no problem with contractility and systolic function. Slowing the heart rate provides for longer diastolic filling, allowing the left ventricle to fill more effectively. Decreasing the heart rate also decreases the severity of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Medication most frequently used: beta-blocker (i.e. atenol or metoprolol) and a calcium channel blocker (diltiazem). For cases with severe left atrial enlargement or cats in heart failure also consider ACE inhibitors, diuretics, and preventing thromboembolic disease with aspirin or clopidogrel. Always keep in mind that you want to identify and treat possible underlying hypertension or hyperthyroidism that could be contributing to the disease.

55
Q

IBR treatment

A

Budesonide or Prednisolone. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the GIT, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include easily digestible diet and one with a novel protein source, pro-motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed, and vitamins such as cyanocobalamine (vit. B-12) or omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit in some cases.

56
Q

Indolent ulcer

A

part of eosinophilic granuloma complex, history disappearing and recurring lip ulcer. These lesions can also extend into the oral cavity and can be found at the tongue base or hard palate. Typical treatment involves high doses of corticosteroids and identifying possible underlying allergic disease. Sometimes, antibiotics are indicated if severe infection is present. A hypoallergenic diet can be helpful if food allergy is the cause. Many times, the etiology is unknown but allergy is suspected.

57
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

A

Treat with corticosteroids (prednisolone or budesonide) to control inflammation, Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Easily digestible diet, novel proteins, pro-motility agents, anti-nausea agents, and Vit B-12 and omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit.

58
Q

Insect bite hypersensitivity

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

59
Q

Insulin type most similar to feline insulin

A

bovine insulin

60
Q

Interestrus

A

variable duration of 7-21 days

61
Q

Isospora

A

parasitic coccidia that can cause diarrhea. Treatment is usually with sulfonamides such as sulfadimethoxine or trimethoprim-sulfa

62
Q

Lipase

A

hydrolyzes triglycerides and fats

63
Q

Lymphocytic portal hepatitis

A

non-specific inflammatory infiltrates delivered by the postal vasculature

64
Q

Mammary gland/ fibroadenomatous/fibroepithelial hyperplasia

A

most common in young, intact female cats due to increased progesterone exposure. Characterized by affecting one or more mammary glands, which become enlarges and are non-painful. Most affected cats are systemically unwell and do not show signs of illness or pain. Treatment if removal of the source of progesterone via ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy. If no source of progesterone can be identified, or if the glands do no respond to spaying, a progesterone receptor blocker such as aglepristone can be administered as well.

65
Q

Megacolon and colonic impaction treatment

A

maintain optimal hydration, remove impacted feces, dietary fiber and/or laxatives and use of colonic prokinetic agents.

66
Q

Microsporum canis

A

dermatophyte which causes ringworm. classic “ringworm” lesions appear as a central/circular region of alopecia with a ring of edema or crusting. Treat with lyme sulfur dip.

67
Q

Mycoplama haemofelis

A

Feline Infectious Anemia, treat with doxycycline

68
Q

Niacin deficiency

A

causes weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulceration and erythema of the tongue and palate, and diarrhea

69
Q

Normal systolic blood pressure

A

160 mmHg

70
Q

Notoedres acariasis

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

71
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti

A

lung fluke. The eggs are typically passed in the feces. Fenbendazole and Praziquantel have been effective against this parasite.

72
Q

Parietal cells

A

produce hydrochloric acid

73
Q

Pemphigus foliaceus

A

Skin disease affecting the area of the head most commonly; specifically the pinnae, nasal planum, chin, or periocular regions are involved. The condition is pustular in nature, usually not observed on clinical presentation; instead, crusts are seen as evidence of ruptured pustules. The condition is thought to be immune-mediated in nature with potentially a genetic component. Drug-induced pemphigus foliaceous has been reported with the use of itraconazole.

74
Q

Perineal urethrostomy

A

Must preserve the pudendal nerve (main nerve in the region that is at risk of being severed). If severed, could results in urinary incontinence due to loss of somatic innervation to the urethral sphincter.

75
Q

Phospholipase

A

hydrolyzes membrane phospholipids

76
Q

Plasma Cell Pododermatitis

A

some resolve spontaneously others require life-long therapy; doxycycline

77
Q

Polydactyly

A

Occurs when there is an extra digit. Cat almost appears to have an “opposable thumb”. In cats, this condition is called mitten paw. It is an autosomal dominant trait with incomplete penetrance.

78
Q

Prostatitis treatment

A

enrofloxacin

79
Q

ringworm treatment

A

full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole

80
Q

Sarcocystitis hirsuta

A

definitive host, cattle intermediate host (non-pathogenic)

81
Q

Skin fragility syndrome

A

associated with poorly regulated diabetes mellitus due to hyperadrenocorticism . Use low dose dexamethasone suppression test (ACTH stim test has low sensitivity in cats), can use urine cortisol-creatinine ratio as a screening tool.

82
Q

Spirocerca lupi

A

causes esophagitis, associated with esophagitis sarcoma

83
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Sporotrichosis - fungal cigar-shaped organism associated with thorns from roses. “Rose growers disease” Dissemination is rare in dogs and occurs more in cats.

Treatment is antifungal therapy with an -azole like itraconazole or potassium iodine.

84
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

Oral tumour often on upper lip of older cat

85
Q

Strongylus stercoralis

A

threadworm

86
Q

Taenia

A

Tapeworm, treat with Praziquantel

87
Q

Target for relief of feline asthma

A

beta-2 agonist, most commonly Terbutaline

88
Q

Taurine deficiency

A

Causes dilated cardiomyopathy and eccentric hypertrophy in cats, can also develop feline retinal degeneration (FCRD). Photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int eh area centralis dorsalateral to the optic disk then progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

89
Q

Thiamine deficiency

A

Leads to seizures in cats fed diet deficient of Thiamine. Seen in cats few raw fish diets when thiaminase depletes the body of thiamin, which causes neurologic symptoms

90
Q

Thyroid hormone active form

A

T3 - small percent is secreted by the thyroid glands, but the majority of it is converted to T3 from T4. Free T4 is unbound T4 which enters cells and can then be converted to T3 or reverse T3. Reverse T3 is formed during illness and does not have any known physiologic effect on cells.

91
Q

Toxocara gati

A

roundworm (ascarid) trans mammary infection of kittens through milk. migration through liver and lungs.

92
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Protozoa. Cat definitive host; likely infected through eating raw meat of infected prey. Neurologic symptoms and uveitis. Elevated IgM titer shows active infection. Symptoms: lethargy, decreased appetite, and fever. Can cause: diarrhea, upper respiratory symptoms, inflammation of the eyes, and neurologic disease.

93
Q

Toxoplasma treatment

A

Clindamycin

94
Q

Trichuris serrata

A

whipeworm that infects caecum and large intestine

95
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus

A

Flagellated parasite most commonly found in kittens that have had an unresponsive diarrhea. The parasite can be very difficult to diagnose. Most often responsive to Ronidazole.

96
Q

Trypsin

A

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.