Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NAVLE By Topic > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

4-Methylpyrazole

A

antidote for ethylene glycol toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acepromazine

A

SE: Causes hypotension in horses, causes splenic enlargement and sequestration of red blood cells in the spleen.

phenothiazine sedative, negligible analgesic effects

Giant breeds/sight hounds overly sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acetaminophen

A

synthetic non-opiate analgesic occasionally used as an oral sedative for dogs

SE: hepatotoxic in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acetozolamide

A

used to treat metabolic alkalosis or glaucoma (effect on aqueous humor production). Diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adriamycin

A

Doxorubicin

chemotherapeutic drug;

SE: Cardiotoxicity, myelosuppression, and GI side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Afoxalaner (Nexguard)

A

flea medication - contains adulticide, can be used in conjunction with ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Allopurinol

A

uric acid reducer in dogs, cats, and birds and as an alternative treat Leishmaniasis and Trypanosomiasis

Use with caution in patients with renal or hepatic dysfunction

SE: gastric effects, nephrotoxic, and hepatotoxic

treatment for gout in bird

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alprazolam

A

(Xanax) antidepressant, benzodiazepine derivative

Caution with hepatic or renal disease

SE: sedation, behavior changes, and contradictory response, physical dependence is possible, may impede training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Amikacin

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotic - good against predominantly gram-negative aerobic bacilli

SE: nephrotoxic, ototoxic, neuromuscular blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aminocaproic acid

A

facilitates clot stabilization by blocking the activation of plasminogen to plasmin, inhibiting fibrinolysis

Contraindicated for DIC, expensive in large dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Amitraz (Mitaban)

A

only FDA approved treatment for Demodex canis. Mitaban is used as a dip and should be administered in a hospital. Mitaban can be difficult to obtain and application is time-consuming when there are other treatment options that can be similarly effective although used “off-label”

Mitaban should be used cautiously in animals with skin lesions since more system absorption of Mitaban will occur which increases the likelihood of toxic effects.

Toxic to cats and rabbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Amitriptyline

A

tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), act, in part, by inhibiting serotonin-norepinephrine re-uptake but they are not selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors.

  • has been used in cats with cystitis know to flare up with stress but has no direct effect on spasms in the urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Amlodipine

A

To treat of choice for systemic hypertension in cats and dogs

Calcium channel blocker works by preventing calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle cells, thereby causing vasodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amoxicillin

A

effective against gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus. It is absorbed orally and can be administered in water to birds with susceptible bacterial infections

Bactericidal aminopenicillin with same spectrum as ampicillin (ineffective against bacteria that produce beta-lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amphotericin

A

Systemic antifungal used for serious mycotic infections

SE: nephrotoxic in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ampicillin

A

if given orally in rabbits can precipitate Clostridial enterotoxemia

bacterial aminopenicillin with same spectrum as amoxicillin (ineffective against bacteria that produce beta-lactamase)

Food in stomach causes reduced absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amprolium

A

Can be used to treat of prevent coccidiosis

zero withdrawal time

Thiamine analog antiprotozoal (coccidia)

Prolonged high doses can cause thiamine deficiency

SE: occasional GI or neuro effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Apraclonidine

A

eye drops used to test for Horners Syndrome -> reversal of anisocoria

alpha 2 adrenergic agonist used to reduce aqueous humor secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Atenolol

A

beta-blocker, reduces heart rate, LV contractility, and also reduces myocardial oxygen demands.

ex. cat with HCM especially is outflow obstruction exists.
ex. treatment of atrial fibrillation - will slow AV nodal conduction to decrease the ventricular response to atrial fibrillation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Atipamezole

A

Medetomidine or xylazine reversal agent

Alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atracurium

A

non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts by competitively binding to cholinergic receptors at the motor endplate.

More potent in horses, contraindicate in dogs with myasthenia gravis (hypersensitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Atropine

A

Prototype antimuscarinic agent used for a variety of indication (bradycardia, premed, antidote, etc.)

Contraindicated in cats with feline asthma - thickens bronchial secretions and encourages mucous plugging of airway (beta blocker = bronchoconstrictor)

  • decreases salivary secretions facilitating intubation in cats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Azathioprine

A

SE: bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity, GI upset, acute pancreatitis (not nephrotoxic)

purine antagonist immunosuppressive agent that can be used to treat unresponsive IBD in dogs, but not cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bacitracin

A

Component of triple antibiotic Neosporin

Used in poultry

Narrow spectrum: Streptococcus aureus, S. epidermidis, S. pyogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Betamethasone valerate

A

injectable and topical glucocorticoid

Long-acting, 25x more potent than hydrocortisone, no mineralocorticoid activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

A

Used to treat diarrhea and as a component of”triple therapy” for Helicobacter GI infections

SE: can cause feces to darken and look like melena when given orally. Forms bismuth sulfide in the colon, which is a very dark compound that makes feces black and can lead to the misdiagnosis of melena.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bromocriptine

A

dopamine agonist and prolactin inhibitor used in dogs for pregnancy termination or pseudopregnancy, in horses for pituitary adenomas

SE: GI, CNS depression, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Budesonide

A

corticosteroid: used to treat IBR in cats

Budesonide concentrates its effect in the gastrointestinal tract, thus fewer system side effects as compared to prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Buprenorphine

A

partial mu agonist, kappa antagonist

buccal administration in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Butorphanol

A

Partial mu antagonist, kappa agonist.

Can be used to reverse oxymorphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cabergoline

A

ergot-derived dopamine agonist

Useful for inducing/synchronizing estrus in dogs and as an abortifacient in dogs or cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Calcium gluconate

A

used to treat hyperkalemia by antagonizing the effects of elevated serum potassium on the myocardium, it does nothing to lower serum potassium. Its action is targeted at keeping the myocardial tissue normally excitable so the heart rhythm does not develop a life-threatening bradycardia as seen with untreated hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Carbimazole

A

used outside of US and Canada for treatment of feline hyperthyroidism

SE: hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CCNU (Lomustine)

A

Antineoplastic usually used for CNS neoplasms, mast cell tumors or as a rescue agent for lymphosarcoma in dogs

and cats

Several risks and side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cefpodoxime

A

Oral 3rd generation cephalosporin that may be useful in dogs or cats(off license), often for skin disease

SE: hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ceftiofur

A

4 day withdrawal time in meat

3rd generation cephalosporin

SE: hypersensitivity reaction, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, or diarrhea

ex. bovine respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cephalexin

A

first generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

not licensed for use in food animals

Caused aplastic anemia in humans; very cautious when handling

Broad spectrum antibiotic: hepatotoxic, nephrotoxic (especially in cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chlorhexidine

A

A topical drug implicated in ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cimetidine

A

Prototype histamine-2 blocker used to reduce GI acid production (newer agents may be more effective)

SE: hypersensitivity, caution in geriatric patients, hepatic or renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cisapride

A

Oral GI prokinetic agent, used in several species for GI stasis, reflux esophagitis, and constipation/megacolon (cats)

SE: hypersensitivity, GI perforation/obstruction, hemorrhage - effects appear to be minimal in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinum antineoplastic agent used for a variety of carcinomas and sarcomas’ palliative control of neoplastic pulmonary effusions with intracavitary administration

SE: fatal pulmonary edema in cats, nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clavamox

A

A broad spectrum antibacterial - amoxiclav

Bactericidal aminopenicillin with beta-lactamase inhibitor that expands spectrum. Not effective against pseudomonas or enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Clomipramine

A

tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), act, in part, by inhibiting serotonin-norepinephrine re-uptake but they are not selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors.

SE: vomiting, constipation, anorexia, can affect testicular size/function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Clorazepate

A

(Tranxene) antidepressant, benzodiazepine derivative anxiolytic, sedative-hypnotic and anticonvulsant in dogs and cats

Use extreme caution in aggress (especially fear aggressive) animals

SE: sedative and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clotrimozole

A

anti-fungal otic solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

antineoplastic/immunosuppressive used in cats and dogs

SE: in dog - sterile hemorrhagic cystitis (due to breakdown product of the drug called acrolein), myelosuppression and GI side effects. Encourage animals to drink a lot of water and urinate frequently. Alopecia in poodle and sheep dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Desmopressin

A

Used to pretreat animals with Von Willebrands before surgery

synthetic vasopressin analogue used to treat diabetes insipidus and Von Willebrands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Detomidine

A

alpha 2 sedative-analgesic used primarily in horses

ma respond (i.e. kick) to external stimuli)

Initial BP increase, then bradycardia/heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Dexmedetomidine

A

an alpha-2 agonist drug used for sedation; it is the S-enantiomer of medetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Diazepam

A

calcium channel blocker and can be used to slow AV nodal conduction and ventricular response rate

SE: in cat: repeat oral diazepam has been linked to idiosyncratic fulminant hepatic necrosis in some cats due to first pass metabolism

Benzodiazepine sedative that can effectively cause appetite stimulation in cats. Best administered IV to achieve effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Diethylstilbestrol

A

Used to treat urinary incontinence in dog - synthetic estrogen used in dogs primarily for estrogen responsive incontinence and other estrogen indications (prostatic hypertrophy, estrus induction, etc.)

Prohibited for use in food animals

SE: of bone marrow suppression in the incontinent bitch,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside will increase vagal tone to the AV node to slow conduction and decrease the heart rate

used to slow atrioventricular conduction is the setting of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias or for systolic dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Diltiazem

A

Slows the heart by inhibiting influx of calcium into myocardial cells

used to treat supraventricular tachycardias to slow down the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

Antihistamine used primarily for its antihistamine effects, but with various indications (prevent motion sickness, sedative, antiemetic, etc.)

SE: CNS depression and anticholinergic effects, GIT but less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Dobutamine

A

Parenteral, rapid acting inotropic agent for short-term treatment of heart failure. It is also useful in shock patients when fluid therapy alone has not restored acceptable arterial blood pressure, cardiac output or tissue perfusion.

SE: ectopic beats, increased HR, increased BP, chest pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Dopamine

A

Catecholamine; at high doses is used as an alpha agonist to increase peripheral resistance and increases arterial blood pressure

at lower doses dilates the renal, mesenteric, coronary, and intracerebral vascular beds; at higher doses, system peripheral resistance is increased and hypotension treated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Doxapram

A

CNS/respiratory stimulant used to stimulate respiration in newborns or after anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Doxorubicin (Adriamycis)

A

Injectable antibiotic antineoplastic widely used alone or in combination for small animals

Chemotherapeutic drug, causes tissue necrosis if extravascular injection - cold compress to reduce spread in case of occurance

SE: cardiotoxic (Doberman, Boxer, Rottweiler, Great Danes), pancreatitis,

SE: renal toxicity (in cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Doxycycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic, longer half-life than other tetracyclines, efficacious treatment fo Lyme disease in people.

SE: can result in delayed bone growth and discoloration of the teeth in young growing animals and is thus contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Droncit

A

Primarily for cestodes (tapeworms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Enalapril

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used as a vasodilator, antihypertensive agents, and heart failure treatment. It works by conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, thus reducing aldosterone concentrations and causing diuresis. It dilatory effects on the efferent arterioles of glomeruli help to palliate protein-losing nephropathies. It is often used in conjunction with diuretics.

used to treat protein-losing nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic - bactericidal

Safest antibiotic in guinea pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Epinephrine

A

Alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonist agent used systemically for treating anaphylaxis and cardiac resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Erythromycin

A

Macrolide antibiotic; also used as a prokinetic agent

do not give to rabbits, gerbils, guinea pigs and hamsters - gram + creates problems with gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Famotidine (pepcid)

A

gastro-protectant used to raise the pH of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Fenbendazole

A

Anthelmintic useful for a variety of parasites in dogs, cats, cattle, horses, swine. etc.

Ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in dogs

strongyles and pinworms in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Finquel (tricaine methanesulfonate - MS-222)

A

only FDA approves agent for fish anesthesia. Mandatory 21-day withdrawal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Fipronil

A

GABA-regulated chloride channel inhibitor used for fleas and ticks in dogs or cats

Flea medication; toxic to rabbits, kittens, and puppies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Florfenicol

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic approved for use in cattle

do not use in dairy cow >20 months, 28 day withdrawal IM, 38 SC

for interdigital necrobacillosis in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Fluconazole

A

Mallsezia dermatitis

Antifungal particularly useful for CNS infections

SE: nephrotoxic, hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Flumazenil

A

Benzodiazepine antagonist to reverse either OD’s or therapeutic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fluoxetine

A

(Prozac) anti-depressant and SSRI that can be used to treat cats for anxiety related disorders at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg orally once daily

74
Q

Furosaminde

A

loop diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure

75
Q

Gentamicin

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotic good activity against a variety of bacteria, predominantly gram-negative aerobic bacilli

SE: nephrotoxic, ototoxic, neuromuscular blockade

toxic to birds

76
Q

Griseofulvin

A

fungistatic antibiotic used primarily for ringworm and other dermatophytic infections, no effect on other fungi

77
Q

Guaifenesin

A

central acting muscle relaxant

SE: mild hypotensive effect and increase in cardiac rate

Acts centrally by blocking nerve impulse transmission at the internuncial neuron level in the subcortical brain, brain stem, and spinal cord. Should be careful not to give too much because early signs of toxicity are in the form of increased rigidity -> if overdosed can cause respiratory and cardiac arrest.

78
Q

Haloperidol

A

dopamine antagonist - antipsychotic

79
Q

Halothane

A

Hypermetabolic reaction, use when treating malignant hyperthermia

80
Q

Isoproterenol

A

non-specific beta receptor agonist and will increase the ventricular rate in response to atrial fibrillation

rarely used, for acute bronchial constriction, cardiac arrhythmias (complete AV block) and as adjunctive therapy in shock or heart failure.

81
Q

itraconazole

A

antifungal - ringworm in cat, systemic mycoses, including aspergillosis, cryptococcal meningitis, blastomycosis, and histoplasmosis

SE - in dogs: ulcerative skin lesions (7% when being used at higher dose), anorexia, hepatic toxicity

82
Q

Ivermectin

A

prototype avermectin as an anti-parasiticide

Caution in collie breeds

SE: neuro signs in turtles - toxic

Can be used “off-label” to treat Demodex canis

83
Q

KBr therapy

A

for epileptic dog - SE: sedation

SE: linked to severe lower respiratory symptoms if pneumonia in approximately 35% of cats.

84
Q

Ketamine

A

Dissociative anesthetic

SE: causes an increase in heart rate and blood pressure, associated with seizures in epileptic dogs.

It is considered seizureogenic and has poor muscle relaxation effects, however it provides good analgesia.

85
Q

Ketoconazole

A

antifungal sometimes used for Candida infections, malassezia

SE: hepatotoxic and will cause elevated liver enzymes that should be monitored closely. It is a potent inhibitory to P450 enzyme and can significantly affect metabolism of other drugs.It can cause adrenal insufficiency and actually is sometimes used as an alternative treatment for Cushing’s. Anorexia is a common and important side effect, especially in cats.

86
Q

L-asparaginase

A

SE: pancreatitis and anaphylaxis - protein enzyme and therefore may elicit an immune response. Anaphylaxis is rare but usually would occur only after a patient had received a prior dose and developed antibodies to it.

As a medication it is used to treat acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myeloid leukemia, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

87
Q

Lactulose

A

causes decreased colonic pH, preventing ammonia absorption to treat hepatic encephalopathy

Also, acts as a cathartic and causes decreased intestinal transit time, it prevents ammonia formation through a process known as catabolite repression, and it is a carbohydrate source which can be used by colonic flora as an alternative to protein, preventing ammonia formation.

laxative

88
Q

Lente Insulin

A

8-20 hour duration, intermediate acting insulin

89
Q

Lidocaine

A

Local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic agent: reversible blockade of sodium channels, preventing propagation of an action potential along the nerve fiber. Sensory nerves blocked before motor allowing selective sensory block at low dose Class 1b anti arrhythmic actions, decrease rate of ventricular firing, action potential duration and absolute refractory period and increase relative refractory period

4 day meat withdrawal

90
Q

Lomustine

A

Antineoplastic usually used for CNS neoplasms, mast cell tumors or as a rescue agent for lymphosarcoma

SE: hepatotoxicity

91
Q

Lufenuron

A

flea medication; insect growth regulator only for cats and dogs

92
Q

Mannitol

A

osmotic diuretic used to acute oliguric renal failure, reduce intraocular and intracerebral pressures, enhance urinary excretion of some toxins and with other diuretics to rapidly reduce edema of ascites

93
Q

Maropitant

A

anti-emetic

94
Q

Medetomidine

A

alpha 2 adrenergic sedative analgesic used primarily in dogs and cats, but also in exotics.

SE: bradycardia, occasional AV blocks, decreased respiration, hypothermia

95
Q

Melatonin

A

pineal gland hormone

treatment for Alopecia X, behavior disorders in cat/dog, adjust seasonally controlled fertility, and adjunctive treatment for adrenal disease in ferrets

96
Q

Meloxicam

A

NSAID COX-2 preferential

SE: in cat - linked to idiosyncratic renal failure when given in multiple doses in some cats

15 day meat withdrawal in cattle

97
Q

Methimazole

A

Treatment for hyperthyroidism in cat,

SE: facial pruritis leading to self-induced excoriation

98
Q

Methocarbamol

A

Treatment for strychnine toxicity (snail bait)

central acting muscle relaxant

SE: sedation, salivation, emesis, lethargy, weakness and ataxia

99
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Stimulated upper GIT motility and has antiemetic properties

SE: changes in behavior, constipation

100
Q

Metronidazole

A

primarily for anaerobes, also used as antiprotozoal (giardia)

useful in birds against anaerobic infections such as Clostridium and some protozoa such as Trichomonas, Giardia, and Cholosoma

101
Q

Mexiletine

A

oral class I antiarrhythmic drug that is well tolerated in dogs - used if frequent ventricular ectopy is seen, particularly with runs or R-on-T episodes.

102
Q

Milbemycin

A

otic solution for ear mites, heartworm prophylaxis

Can be used “off-label” to treat Demodex canis

103
Q

Mirtazapine

A

an atypical antidepressant with noradrenergic and specific serotonergic activity

104
Q

Misoprostol

A

prostaglandin E1 analog for treating or preventing gastric ulcers especially associates with NSAIDs; may also be used as an abortifacient, treat atopy, or cyclosporine-induced nephrotoxicity

105
Q

Mitotane

A

Adrenal cytotoxic agent used for the medical treatment of pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism

106
Q

Mometasone

A

glucocorticoid or corticosteroid used topically to reduce inflammation of the skin or in the airways

107
Q

Monensin

A

a polyether antibiotic from the group of carboxylic ionophores produced by Streptomyces cinnamonensis

Monensin is used extensively in the beef and dairy industries to prevent coccidiosis, increase the production of propionic acid and prevent bloat.[9] Furthermore, monensin, but also its derivatives monensin methyl ester (MME), and particularly monensin decyl ester (MDE) are widely used in ion-selective electrodes

108
Q

Morphine

A

full mu agonist

causes significant histamine release (do not use in patient with mast cell tumor)

SE: bradycardia

109
Q

Naloxone

A

Used to reverse oxymorphone

110
Q

Neomycin

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotic used orally (gut “sterilization”) or in topical formulations

Poor GI absorption in feline GIT - like most aminoglycosides

Most nephrotoxic to horses of the amioglycosides

111
Q

Nicarbazin

A

coccidiostat used on meat chickens. It is also used as a contraceptive for population control of Canada geese and feral pigeons

4 day withdrawal time

112
Q

Nitazoxanide

A

Has activity against a variety of protozoa, nematodes, bacteria and trematodes (including giardia)

Approved for use in horses (EPM) and humans (Giardia and Cryptosporidia)

113
Q

Nitroglycerin paste

A

venodilator, anti-hypertensive, used for congestive heart failure

114
Q

Nitroprusside

A

vascular, smooth muscle relaxant used for acute/severe hypertension, acute heart failure secondary to mitral regurgitation and in combo with dopamine for refractory congestive heart failure

SE: hypotensive effects

115
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

Moves into closed gas spaces so not suitable for use in surgeries involving the GIT

116
Q

NPH insulin

A

Isophane insulin,

117
Q

Omeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor used to GI ulcers and erosions

118
Q

Op’-DDD (mitotane or lysodren)

A

Adrenal cytotoxic agent used for medical treatment of pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism

119
Q

Oxacillis

A

used to test for methicillin resistance on culture and sensitivity

oral and intramammary isoxazolyl (anti-staphylococcal) penicillin

120
Q

Oxymorphone

A

full mu agonist

reversed with Naloxone

Butorphanol can also be used to reverse mu agonists like oxymorphone.

SE: respiratory depression and bradycardia

121
Q

Oxytetracycline (LA200)

A

28 day meat withdrawal time

tetracycline antibiotic, many bacteria are now resistant, may still be very useful tot treat mycoplasma, rickettsia, spirochetes, and Chlamydia

birds: poorly absorbed orally and is given intramuscularly although is can cause irritation/necrosis at injection sites

122
Q

Penicillin

A

Not safe in Guinea Pigs

123
Q

Penicillin G

A

prototypical penicillin agent used for susceptible gram-positive aerobes and anaerobes

10 day meat withdrawal time

124
Q

Permethrin

A

flea medication: repellent and adulticide but is toxic to cats

125
Q

Phenobarbitol

A

barbiturate used primarily as an antiseizure medication; also used as a sedative agent, give IV SLOWLY

broken down in the liver

126
Q

Phenothiazine

A

Cause sedation, but do not provide analgesia, decrease sensitivity of the myocardium to catecholamine-induced arrhythmias.

SE: of hypotension in dogs, may decrease hematocrit due to splenic sequestration of red blood cells

127
Q

Phenylephrine

A

alpha-adrenergic used parenterally to treat hypotension without cardiostimulation

SE: hypertension, serious injuries if extra-vascular

128
Q

Phenylpropanolamine

A

sympathomimetic used to treat urinary incontinence from urethral hypotonicity most often in dogs

129
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

can be used to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone such that a cat may urinate more easily (use post obstruction or urinary catheter placement resulting in hypertonicity of urethral muscle) in cat

130
Q

Pimobenden

A

Oral drug that may be useful in treatment of congestive heart failure in dogs secondary to dilated cardiomyopathy or chronic mitral valve insufficiency

SE: may increase risk of arrhythmias

131
Q

Piroxicam

A

NSAID with anti-inflammatory and antitumor (indirect) activity

SE: GI ulceration and bleeding, renal papillary necrosis, and peritonitis

132
Q

Polymyxin B

A

antibiotic primarily used for resistant Gram-negative infections. It is derived from the bacterium Bacillus polymyxa

protects horses against endotoxaemia

133
Q

Ponazuril

A

Equine approved triazine for treating EPM

134
Q

Potassium bromide (KBr)

A

anti-epileptic medication

135
Q

Pradofloxacin

A

Bone marrow suppression in dogs

3rd generation enhanced spectrum veterinary antibiotic of the fluoroquinolone class

136
Q

Praziquantel

A

Anticestodal anthelmintic also may be useful for other parasites (Dipylidium caninum, Taenia)

137
Q

Prednisone

A

Classic glucocorticoids used for many conditions in many species. Antiinflammatory activity is 4x more potent than hydrocortisone; has some mineralocorticoid activity

138
Q

Procainamide

A

call 1A anti-arrhythmic primarily used for treatment of ventricular premature complexes, ventricular tachycardia, and can be used in attempts to convert atrial fibrillation to a normal sinus rhythm, though it is rarely effective.

Efficacy questionable in dogs

139
Q

Propofol

A

rapid-acting anesthetic agent often used to induction of anesthesia

Does not result in any significant cardiac changes. Ultra-short in duration, can cause apnea and myoclonus, and is considered anticonvulsive. It may cause a mild bradycardia but you mainly see that when used in combination with other opiates. Recently ben associated with myocardial depression and hypotension in critically ill dogs

140
Q

Propranolol

A

non-specific beta blocker primarily used in vet med as an antiarrhythmic agent

SE: bradycardia, impaired AV conduction, hypotension, worsen congestive heart failure, syncope, bronchoconstriction

141
Q

Psyllium

A

For horses with sand colic, laxative with the ability to bind sand and to increase stool consistency in patients with chronic, watery diarrhea

142
Q

Pyrantel

A

Pyrimidine anthelmintic used primarily for ascarids in a variety of species

143
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Anticholinesterase used for the treatment of Myasthenia gravis

144
Q

Pyrimethamine

A

Folic acid inhibitor used primarily (in combination) for toxoplasmosis, neosporosis, and EPM

145
Q

Pyriproxyfen

A

flea medication; insect growth regulator only

146
Q

PZI Insulin

A

Protamine zinc suspension; variable duration

147
Q

Ranitidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist similar to cimetidine, but fewer drug interactions. Used to reduce output in stomach; also has prokinetic activity. Used to treat or prevent erosive gastritis, gastric, abomasal and duodenal ulcers, uremic gastritis, esophagitis, gastric reflux, etc.

148
Q

Regular Insulin

A

shortest lasting, most potent form

149
Q

Revolution

A

For fleas, heartworm, hookworms, roundworms, and ear mites

150
Q

Robenidine

A

antibiotic used for the control of coccidiosis, a debilitating protozoal infection in poultry

5 day withdrawal period

151
Q

Romifidine

A

a sedative mainly in large animals such as horses, although it may be used in a wide variety of species

alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonist

152
Q

Sodium levothyroxine

A

Synthetic T-4 Used to treat hypothyroidism

153
Q

Spinosad

A

flea medication; should never be used with extra-label doses of Ivermectin

154
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist used as a potassium-sparing diuretic or for adjunctive treatment for heart failure

SE: hyperkalemia, hyponatremia and dehydration

155
Q

Streptomycin

A

Toxic in Guinea Pigs

Least nephrotoxic to horses of the aminoglycosides

156
Q

Strongid

A

Primarily for roundworms, hookworms, and ear mites

157
Q

Succinylcholine

A

depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent

158
Q

Sucralfate

A

Locally-acting treatment for GI ulcers; may also be protective

159
Q

sulfadiazine

A

folate inhibitor - antimicrobial agent - bacteriostatic agent

160
Q

Sulfadimethoxine

A

5 day withdrawal time

7 day meat withdrawal time

Anti-arasitic agent used to treat the coccidia parasites (ex. Isospora in cats)

161
Q

Sulfaquinoxaline

A

Coccidiosis

10 day withdrawal time

162
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

Sulfa analog that has GI antibacterial and anti-inflammatory activity; used for inflammatory bowel disease.

SE: keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dog

163
Q

Tamoxifen

A

estrogen antagonist and has been associated with causing pyometra in dogs

164
Q

Temozolomide (Temodar)

A

dog - an oral chemotherapy drug. It is an alkylating agent used as a treatment of some brain cancers; as a second-line treatment for astrocytoma and a first-line treatment for glioblastoma multiforme

165
Q

Terbinafine

A

antifungal used to treat Aspergillus and dermatophytes in birds; can be used to treat Malassezia and dermatophytosis in dogs and cats

166
Q

Terbutaline

A

Feline asthma

beta-agonist used as a bronchodilator and sometimes used to treat bradyarrhythmias

SE: increased HR and excitation

167
Q

Testosterone

A

testosterone responsive urinary incontinence in neutered male dogs and cats

Used in bovine medicine to produce a heat detecting animal

168
Q

Thiabendazole

A

Benzimidazole anthelmintic; also has antifungal (dermatophytes) action

Parasitic resistance is an issue

169
Q

Thiopental

A

ultra-short fast acting thiobarbiturate that causes an increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and decreased cardiac contractility. It is also an arrhythmogenic agent. Induces splenic engorgement; thus making surgical manipulation and removal of the spleen more difficult.

170
Q

Theophylline

A

Bronchodilator drug with diuretic activity; used for bronchospasm and cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Narrow therapeutic index

171
Q

Tobramycin

A

Topical - aminoglycoside effective against most gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas (most common cause of bacterial keratitis)

SE: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade

172
Q

Toceranib phosphate

A

(Palladia) - first FDA-approved treatment for neoplams in dog

a receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor and is used in the treatment of canine mast cell tumor

173
Q

Tolazoline

A

An alpha 2 antagonist; can be used as a reversal for xylazine.

8 day meat withdrawal

174
Q

Trilostane

A

Competitive inhibitor of 3-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase thereby reducing synthesis of cortisol, aldosterone and adrenal androgens.

May be useful in dogs as a treatment for pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism, adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism, alopecia X, feline pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism, and in horses for equine hyperadrenocorticism

175
Q

Trimethoprin sulfa

A

Trimethoprim is bactericidal, blocks conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

Can use to treat Isospora in cats

SE: keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dog, hypersensitivity reaction in Dobermans

176
Q

Ultralente Insulin

A

intermediate acting extended insulin

177
Q

Vasopressin

A

Primarily used as a diagnostic agent and sometimes for treatment for central (ADH-responsive) diabetes insipidus. Treatment of hypotension.

178
Q

Vinblastine (velban)

A

Vinca alkaloid antineoplastic used for a variety tumors in dogs (and sometimes cats)

179
Q

Vincristine

A

A vinca alkaloid antineoplastic used for a variety tumors in dogs and cats (primary lymphoid and hematopoietic neoplasms), may also be used for the treatment of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

SE: paralytic ileus

SE: in cat - microtubule poison and can cause neuropathies such as paralytic ileus and demyelination

180
Q

Xylazine

A

Shortest acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for its sedative and analgesic in a variety of species; sometimes used as an emetic in cats.

Causes bradycardia after administration. It may also cause first of second-degree atrioventricular block due to enhancement of vagal tone.

4 day meat withdrawal

181
Q

Yohimbine

A

alpha 2 antagonist that can be used to reverse alpha 2 agonists such as xylazine

NAVLE By Topic (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions