Feline

Question 1

Acetaminophin toxicity

Answer 1

cats are unable to process acetaminophen because of deficiencies int he liver’s ability to glucuronidate the drug into a form that can be excreted by the body. When the liver’s enzyme pathways for glucuronidation is saturated, the drug is broken down into a toxic metabolite called NAPQI that damages hemoglobin and red blood cells and liver cells. This can lead to fatal methemoglobinemia followed by acute liver damage (Heinz bodies and glossy brown color of the blood). Although liver failure and life-threatening methemoglobinemia are the two primary processes that occur, some cats may develop renal failure from nephrotoxicity. Renal failure occurs more infrequently, however.

Question 2

Acute cholangiohepatitis

Answer 2

usually seen in younger cats (3-3.5 years) and is more common in males than in females. Likely to be depressed, dehydrated, and febrile. Neutrophilia with or without left shift. Mild increase in bilirubin and ALP common, with more severe elevations of ALT. Treatment includes antibiotics with aerobic and anaerobic coverage that are excreted unchanged in the bile (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, and metronidazole). Ursodeoxycholic acid is useful in all types of inflammatory liver disease because of its anti-inflammatory and anti-fibrotic properties on the liver. It also increases fluidity of biliary secretions. 50% survival.

Question 3

Acute Glaucoma

Answer 3

Very painful condition characterized by epiphora, episcleral injection, corneal edema, and sometimes mydriasis.

Question 4

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

Answer 4

feline lungworm, treat with ivermectin and fenbendazole

Question 5

Amylase

Answer 5

Hydrolyzes starches: Enzyme produced by the pancreas and also found in saliva that is responsible for digestion of starch or carbohydrates.

Question 6

Amyloidosis familial disorder affects ____ breeds. Clinical signs are associated with ____ and ___ failure, while ____ may be secondary to glomerulotubular disease. Diagnosis is via biopsy and ____ stain but often not done due to the high risk of hemorrhage.

Answer 6

Abyssinian (kidney), Siamese and Oriental (liver) shorthair. Amyloid deposition occurs most frequently in the kidney and liver. Clinical signs in Abyssinian are typically those of chronic renal failure. Hypertension may be secondary to glomerulotubular disease. Biopsy and stain with congo red definitive but often not necessary due to high risk of hemorrhage. Manage symptoms and do not breed from these cats.

Question 7

Anterior uveitis

Answer 7

Rubiosis iridis, aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which an be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic causes.

Question 8

Arginine deficiency

Answer 8

Arginine is an essential amino acid in cats used to make ornithine, which binds to ammonia that is formed from the catabolism of protein. Deficiency results in build up of ammonia and signs similar to hepatic encephalopathy

Question 9

Black widow spider bite

Answer 9

Clinical presentation: found in basement recumbent and vocalizing, very rigid with muscle spasms

Toxin binds calcium channels, increasing membrane permeability and enhancing depolarization. Ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerve endings occur. A single bit may be serious to adult humans and could kill a small animal. Clinical signs occur almost immediately with pain, due in part to the release of acetylcholine, which stimulates contraction of major muscle groups. There may be ascending motor paralysis, muscle spasms, muscle rigidity, and salivation. Death from respiratory or cardiovascular failure is possible.

Question 10

Calicivirus

Answer 10

acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as oral ulcerations +/- conjunctival chemosis, and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. outbreaks of highly virulent and often lethal strains have been seen.

Question 11

Capillaria aerophila

Answer 11

lungworm, parasite of the frontal sinus, trachea, bronchi, and rarely nasal cavity.

Question 12

Cate bite abscess

Answer 12

Anaerobes most frequently isolated bacteria in cat bit abscesses. These include obligate anaerobes such as Fusobacterium spp., Bacteroides spp., and Clostridium spp. as well as facultative anaerobes such as Pasteurella spp. and Actinmyces spp. Treatment by establishing drainage, vet still choose to treat with antibiotics (Clindamycin or amoxicillin with clavulanate)

Question 13

Chlamydophila felis is a ____ pathogen. The characteristic lesion is severe ____. The drug class of choice for treatment is ____

Answer 13

Chlamydophila felis is a respiratory pathogen. The characteristic lesion is severe chemosis. The drug class of choice is tetracyclines.

Question 14

Cholangiohepatitis

Answer 14

Inflammation of the biliary system and liver parenchyma. Can be autoimmune in nature, or may be triggered by underlying infection or neoplasia. Concurrent disease often includes pancreatitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

Treatment: for non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis is prednisolone since it is most often immune in origin. Ursodiol is often used for its immunomodulatory, hepatoprotectant, and antifibrotic effects.It helps with the flow of bile through the liver. Other helpful therapies include S-adenosylmethionene (SAMe) and Vitamin E.

Question 15

Chronic cholangiohepatitis

Answer 15

occurs in older cats (mean age 9 years)

Question 16

Chronic kidney failure management

Answer 16

Restrict dietary protein (decreases formation of nitrogenous wastes and help to palliate hyperphosphatemia), phosphate binders (prevent absorption of phosphorus from the intestines), H2 blockers (decrease gastric acid secretion to help prevent vomiting and formation of gastric ulcers), Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine (palliate hypertension)

Question 17

Cobalamin deficiency

Answer 17

causes inappetence, lethargy, and failure to thrive

Question 18

Common congenital defect of white cats with blue eyes

Answer 18

deaf

Question 19

Corneal dermoid

Answer 19

congenital

Question 20

Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 20

yeast-like fungus which has narrow based budding. Clinical signs: respiratory, central nervous system, eyes and skin are usually areas you will see affected. Most have nasal involvement characterized by facial swelling, distortion ‘roman nose’, chronic snuffling and discharge, and granulomatous masses seen coming out of the nostril.

Treat with Itraconazole

Diagnosis: serology is very useful, latex agglutination on serum, CFS, or urine. Visible yeasts surrounded by a large capsuleoccasionallyy seen.

Question 21

Cryptosporidium

Answer 21

A coccidian that invades the small intestinal villi after ingestion of infected oocysts. It can be diagnosed with PRC. It is treated with clindamycin, azithromycin, or tylosin most commonly. It is usually an opportunist, so evaluation for underlying disease is appropriate.

Question 22

Cuterebra

Answer 22

Fly that lays its eggs on soil or plants. The eggs stick to the animal’s fur when they come into contact. The eggs hatch and the larvae either penetrate the skin, are ingested when the animal grooms; or they enter the animal’s body through a natural opening, such as the nose. In most cases, the larvae migrate to areas just under the skin on the head, neck, or trunk of the animal. In dogs, cats, and ferrets, who are not the usually hosts of this parasite, the larvae may also migrate to the brain, eye, eyelids, or throat. As the larva grows under the skin, it produces a nodule or swelling.A small opening develops in the skin, through which is breathes. A small amount of drainage may occur around this breathing hole. The treatment is to incise the skin if needed to remove the larva. You have to make sure to remove the larva in whole and not crush it. If it is damaged or crushed, it can cause an anaphylactic reaction.

Question 23

cytauxzoon felis is transmitted by _____, cats show clinical signs ____ after infection and these include a charateristic scleral _____, marked ____, icterus or pallor, an anemia associated ____ and thrombocytopenia. This organism lives in ____ as well as

Answer 23

Cytauxzoon felis is trasmitted by ticks, Cats usually show clinical signs 1-3 weeks after infection. Signs can include a characteristic scleral hemorrhage, marked pyrexia, icterus or pallor, an anemia-associated heart murmur and thrombocytopenia. This organism lives in the red blood cells as well as reticuloendothelial cells of the lungs, spleen, liver, lymph nodes. Cranial organomegaly can often be present. The bone marrow can be affected causing pancytopenias. Thrombocytopenia is likely related to the development of DIC. There is no effective therapy and prognosis is poor to grave.

Question 24

Demodex cati

Answer 24

long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles

Diagnose on deep skin scrape

Treat with lime sulfur dip

Question 25

Demodex gatoi

Answer 25

short and stubby mite which lives superficially. It is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus Diagnose on superficial skin scrape Treat with weekly lime sulfur dip

Question 26

Dermatophytosis

Answer 26

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

Question 27

Diagnosis of Feline Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

Answer 27

Measure serum fTLI concentration

Question 28

Dirofilaria immitis

Answer 28

Heartworm; adulticide dangerous - manage with preds and heartguard

Question 29

Elastase

Answer 29

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.

Question 30

The 3 subtypes of Feline Eosinophilic granuloma complex and their typical location are:

Answer 30

1. Collangeolytic granuloma aka eosinophilic granuloma; round or linear raised ulcerative and nodular lesion, not pruritic, located on nose, chin, oral cavity or caudal thigh 2) eosinophilic plaque, located on abdomen and medial thighs, single or multiple raised, red, ulcerative lesions that ARE pruritic 3) eosinophilic ulcer aka indolent ulcer located on the upper lip with central area of pink to yellow tissue and raised edges

Question 31

Estrus

Answer 31

typically lasts about 7 days (usually between 4-10 days)

Question 32

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

Answer 32

Occurs when 90% of pancreatic exocrine function is destroyed. fTLI concentration is measured from a fasted blood sample and a trypsinogen level less than 8ug/L is diagnostic. Typically cats with EPI also have a concurrent chronic pancreatitis as well as low levels of cobalamin. The exocrine pancreas is responsible for secreting intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor binds cobalamin to allow for gut absorption. Amylase and lipase concentrations do not provide reliable information regarding pancreatic function in cats.

Question 33

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 33

common virus in cats that causes upper respiratory infection. Feline calicivirus is resistant to many disinfectants and can survive outside a cat’s body for several days Feline calicivirus is spread between cats through direct contact with the eyes or nose of an infected cat or contact with contaminated objects that an infected cat has sneezed on or touched, such as food and water bowls.

Question 34

Feline Central Retinal Degeneration (FCRD)

Answer 34

can develop from taurine deficiency. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int he area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

Question 35

Feline Herpes Virus

Answer 35

80-100% of cats become carriers post infection coughing, sneezing, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, and sometimes fever (up to 106) and loss of appetite transmitted through direct contact only. It replicates in the nasal and nasopharyngeal tissues and the tonsils. Viremia (the presence of the virus in the blood) is rare. The virus is shed in saliva and eye and nasal secretions, and can also be spread by fomites. FVR has a two- to five-day incubation period. The virus is shed for one to three weeks postinfection. Latently infected cats (carriers) will shed FHV-1 intermittently for life, with the virus persisting within the trigeminal ganglion. Stress and use of corticosteroids precipitate shedding. Most disinfectants, antiseptics and detergents are effective against the virus

Question 36

Feline herpes virus ocular manifestations

Answer 36

conjunctivitis, corneal sequestrum, eosinophilic keratitis, corneal ulcer

Question 37

Feline Idiopathic Cystitis

Answer 37

most common cause of lower urinary tract signs in young healthy cats

Question 38

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

Answer 38

Lentivirus Affects cytotoxic t-cells (CD8+), helper t-cells (CD4+), macrophages, b cell. After inoculation, replication occurs in lymphoid and salivary tissues. Eventually, the virus spreads to mononuclear cells, while viremia is suppressed the the host immune response (asymptomatic carrier phase) that can last several years. A slow decline in the number of CD4+ cells is seen, resulting in failure of the immune system. Cats are often about 10-15 years old by the time this occurs.

Question 39

Feline Infectious Peritonitis Diagnosis

Answer 39

Fecal-oral transmission. Eventually, feline corona virus mutates to a virulent feline infectious peritonitis virus which is able to multiply in macrophages. Ideal, a strong cell-mediated immune response eliminates the virus, but in some cats, the infection can become latent and is reactivated with stress. If a cell-mediated immune response is not mounted, pyogranulomatous vasculitis will occur due to the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the venous endothelium. Wet form: Complement-mediated inflammation results in pleural and peritoneal effusions Dry form: Partial cell-mediated immune response results in slow viral replication with granuloma formation Diagnosis: Highest positive predictive value: Immunofluorescence staining from coronavirus in macrophages in effusion fluid. Immunohistochemistry or RT-PCR used to demonstrate on biopsy specimens ( does not work on feces or serum). Histopathology is gold standard and can show characteristic lesions of disseminated pyogranulomatous and fibrinonectrotic reaction around small veins. Rivalta's test.

Question 40

Feline Leukemia Virus

Answer 40

retrovirus in the oncornaviridae subfamily and is transmitted both horizontally and vertically in cats. Virus propagates through the tissue, once bone marrow is infected, peripheral viremia occurs by infected neutrophils and platelets being released. ELISA test for the p27 virus antigen in serum. IFA tests for p27 antigen in leukocytes and platelets.Test may turn negative after a few weeks in neutralized by the cat

Question 41

Feline Panleukopenia Virus

Answer 41

Parvovirus selectively damages rapid dividing tissues, namely the bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract.

Question 42

Feline Parainfluenza virus

Answer 42

cause lesions in the distal airways and predispose to secondary bacterial invasion of the lungs

Question 43

Feline Skin Fragility Syndrome

Answer 43

concurrent hyperadrenocorticism

Question 44

Feline traumatic sarcoma

Answer 44

ocular sarcoma

Question 45

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

Answer 45

herpesvirus and causes respiratory symptoms same as feline herpes virus

Question 46

Glaucoma signs of chronicity

Answer 46

Buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity and retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic discs.

Question 47

Heartworm tests

Answer 47

Antigen test will be positive if there are female worms present, but all male worms can show a false-negative test result Antibody test is prone to false-positive results because a positive test can result from a cat that has been exposed but cleared the infection. A negative test cannot absolutely rule out infection as some animals with a low worm burden may not mount a sufficient antibody response to be measured. Used together, they can be useful in most cases. Larvae are more likely to migrate to ectopic locations such as the brain, skin, and ocular tissue.

Question 48

Heinz bodies in the erythrocytes, blood glossy brown in color

Answer 48

Acetaminophen administration, the cat is showing signs of methemoglobinemia, which is caused by oxidative damage to the hemoglobin. Heinz bodies are usually present in animals with methemoglobinemia.

Question 49

_____ is a gram negative bacterium causing Feline Infectious Anemia. It is treated with _____.

Answer 49

Mycoplasma haemofelis is a gram negative epierythrocytic parasitic bacterium and causeative agent of feline infectious anemia (FIA) treat with doxycylcine

Question 50

Hyctiocytic mastocytomas

Answer 50

sub-type of mast cell tumour in Siamese cats

Question 51

Hydrocephalus in Siemese kittens

Answer 51

Cat exposed to toxin or feline panleukopenia virus during gestation

Question 52

Hypertension

Answer 52

complications include hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment), hypertensive heart disease, neurologic complications, and progression of renal disease. Treat with Amlodipine - calcium channel blocker works by preventing calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle cells, thereby causing vasodilation.

Question 53

Hypertonicity of urethral muscle

Answer 53

often post obstruction and urinary catheter making urinating painful and not easily controlled. Treat with phenoxybenzamine to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone.

Question 54

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy treatment

Answer 54

Aim to improve diastolic filling by increasing heart rate. The primary problem with HCM is thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, impairing diastolic filling, there is usually no problem with contractility and systolic function. Slowing the heart rate provides for longer diastolic filling, allowing the left ventricle to fill more effectively. Decreasing the heart rate also decreases the severity of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Medication most frequently used: beta-blocker (i.e. atenol or metoprolol) and a calcium channel blocker (diltiazem). For cases with severe left atrial enlargement or cats in heart failure also consider ACE inhibitors, diuretics, and preventing thromboembolic disease with aspirin or clopidogrel. Always keep in mind that you want to identify and treat possible underlying hypertension or hyperthyroidism that could be contributing to the disease.

Question 55

IBR treatment

Answer 55

Budesonide or Prednisolone. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the GIT, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include easily digestible diet and one with a novel protein source, pro-motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed, and vitamins such as cyanocobalamine (vit. B-12) or omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit in some cases.

Question 56

Indolent ulcer

Answer 56

part of eosinophilic granuloma complex, history disappearing and recurring lip ulcer. These lesions can also extend into the oral cavity and can be found at the tongue base or hard palate. Typical treatment involves high doses of corticosteroids and identifying possible underlying allergic disease. Sometimes, antibiotics are indicated if severe infection is present. A hypoallergenic diet can be helpful if food allergy is the cause. Many times, the etiology is unknown but allergy is suspected.

Question 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Answer 57

Treat with corticosteroids (prednisolone or budesonide) to control inflammation, Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Easily digestible diet, novel proteins, pro-motility agents, anti-nausea agents, and Vit B-12 and omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit.

Question 58

Insect bite hypersensitivity

Answer 58

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

Question 59

Insulin type most similar to feline insulin

Answer 59

bovine insulin

Question 60

Interestrus

Answer 60

variable duration of 7-21 days

Question 61

Isospora

Answer 61

parasitic coccidia that can cause diarrhea. Treatment is usually with sulfonamides such as sulfadimethoxine or trimethoprim-sulfa

Question 62

Lipase

Answer 62

hydrolyzes triglycerides and fats

Question 63

Lymphocytic portal hepatitis

Answer 63

non-specific inflammatory infiltrates delivered by the postal vasculature

Question 64

Mammary gland/ fibroadenomatous/fibroepithelial hyperplasia

Answer 64

most common in young, intact female cats due to increased progesterone exposure. Characterized by affecting one or more mammary glands, which become enlarges and are non-painful. Most affected cats are systemically unwell and do not show signs of illness or pain. Treatment if removal of the source of progesterone via ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy. If no source of progesterone can be identified, or if the glands do no respond to spaying, a progesterone receptor blocker such as aglepristone can be administered as well.

Question 65

Megacolon and colonic impaction treatment

Answer 65

maintain optimal hydration, remove impacted feces, dietary fiber and/or laxatives and use of colonic prokinetic agents.

Question 66

Microsporum canis

Answer 66

dermatophyte which causes ringworm. classic "ringworm" lesions appear as a central/circular region of alopecia with a ring of edema or crusting. Treat with lyme sulfur dip.

Question 67

Mycoplama haemofelis

Answer 67

Feline Infectious Anemia, treat with doxycycline

Question 68

Niacin deficiency

Answer 68

causes weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulceration and erythema of the tongue and palate, and diarrhea

Question 69

Normal systolic blood pressure

Answer 69

160 mmHg

Question 70

Notoedres acariasis

Answer 70

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

Question 71

Paragonimus kellicotti

Answer 71

lung fluke. The eggs are typically passed in the feces. Fenbendazole and Praziquantel have been effective against this parasite.

Question 72

Parietal cells

Answer 72

produce hydrochloric acid

Question 73

Pemphigus foliaceus

Answer 73

Skin disease affecting the area of the head most commonly; specifically the pinnae, nasal planum, chin, or periocular regions are involved. The condition is pustular in nature, usually not observed on clinical presentation; instead, crusts are seen as evidence of ruptured pustules. The condition is thought to be immune-mediated in nature with potentially a genetic component. Drug-induced pemphigus foliaceous has been reported with the use of itraconazole.

Question 74

Perineal urethrostomy

Answer 74

Must preserve the pudendal nerve (main nerve in the region that is at risk of being severed). If severed, could results in urinary incontinence due to loss of somatic innervation to the urethral sphincter.

Question 75

Phospholipase

Answer 75

hydrolyzes membrane phospholipids

Question 76

Plasma Cell Pododermatitis

Answer 76

some resolve spontaneously others require life-long therapy; doxycycline

Question 77

Polydactyly

Answer 77

Occurs when there is an extra digit. Cat almost appears to have an "opposable thumb". In cats, this condition is called mitten paw. It is an autosomal dominant trait with incomplete penetrance.

Question 78

Prostatitis treatment

Answer 78

enrofloxacin

Question 79

ringworm treatment

Answer 79

full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole

Question 80

Sarcocystitis hirsuta

Answer 80

definitive host, cattle intermediate host (non-pathogenic)

Question 81

Skin fragility syndrome

Answer 81

associated with poorly regulated diabetes mellitus due to hyperadrenocorticism . Use low dose dexamethasone suppression test (ACTH stim test has low sensitivity in cats), can use urine cortisol-creatinine ratio as a screening tool.

Question 82

Spirocerca lupi

Answer 82

causes esophagitis, associated with esophagitis sarcoma

Question 83

Sporothrix schenckii

Answer 83

Sporotrichosis - fungal cigar-shaped organism associated with thorns from roses. "Rose growers disease" Dissemination is rare in dogs and occurs more in cats. Treatment is antifungal therapy with an -azole like itraconazole or potassium iodine.

Question 84

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Answer 84

Oral tumour often on upper lip of older cat

Question 85

Strongylus stercoralis

Answer 85

threadworm

Question 86

Taenia

Answer 86

Tapeworm, treat with Praziquantel

Question 87

Target for relief of feline asthma

Answer 87

beta-2 agonist, most commonly Terbutaline

Question 88

Taurine deficiency in cats causes what two conditions?

Answer 88

Causes dilated cardiomyopathy and eccentric hypertrophy in cats, can also develop feline retinal degeneration (FCRD). Photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int eh area centralis dorsalateral to the optic disk then progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

Question 89

Thiamine deficiency

Answer 89

Leads to seizures in cats fed diet deficient of Thiamine. Seen in cats few raw fish diets when thiaminase depletes the body of thiamin, which causes neurologic symptoms

Question 90

Thyroid hormone active form

Answer 90

T3 - small percent is secreted by the thyroid glands, but the majority of it is converted to T3 from T4. Free T4 is unbound T4 which enters cells and can then be converted to T3 or reverse T3. Reverse T3 is formed during illness and does not have any known physiologic effect on cells.

Question 91

Toxocara cati is transmitted via _____. An infected kitten should be treated with ___ every ____ weeks until ____ months old.

Answer 91

roundworm (ascarid) trans mammary infection of kittens through milk. migration through liver and lungs. Treat with pyrantel every 3 weeks until 3-4 months old

Question 92

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 92

Protozoa. Cat definitive host; likely infected through eating raw meat of infected prey. Neurologic symptoms and uveitis. Elevated IgM titer shows active infection. Symptoms: lethargy, decreased appetite, and fever. Can cause: diarrhea, upper respiratory symptoms, inflammation of the eyes, and neurologic disease.

Question 93

Toxoplasma treatment in cats is ____

Answer 93

Clindamycin

Question 94

Trichuris serrata

Answer 94

whipeworm that infects caecum and large intestine

Question 95

Tritrichomonas foetus

Answer 95

Flagellated parasite most commonly found in kittens that have had an unresponsive diarrhea. The parasite can be very difficult to diagnose. Most often responsive to Ronidazole.

Question 96

Trypsin

Answer 96

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.

Question 97

A 4-year old cat presents dehydrated, febrile, and jaundiced with a PCV of 16%. CBC shows markedly regenerative anemia with elevated bilirubin. A slide agglutination test is positive. What is the organism and how would you treat this case?

Answer 97

Mycoplasma felis; doxycycline or enrofloxacin AND prednisolone because of the secondary IMHA

Question 98

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in cat

Answer 98

treatment: Beta-blockers such as atenolol advocated by some cardiologist, particularly when left ventricular outflow obstruction exists. Atenolol alleviated the obstruction by reducing heart rate, LV contractility, and also reduces myocardial oxygen demands. Diltiazem and antithrombotics may also be considered.

Question 99

In cats with hyperadrenocorticism, ___% have a pituitary tumor and ____% have an adrenal tumor

Answer 99

80% pituitary, 20% adrenal

Question 100

If a TT4 is normal in a cat with suspected hyperthyroidism, you should run a ___

Answer 100

FT4 by equilibrium dialysis

Question 101

What are the long acting insulins commonly prescribed for felines?

Answer 101

Glargine (Lantus) or PZI

Question 102

What is the most common endocrine disease in cats over 8?

Answer 102

Hyperthyroidism

Question 103

A newly diagnosed hyperthyroid patient should be treated with ____ in order to ____

Answer 103

Oral methimazole; unmask renal insufficiency

Question 104

How would you treat metacarpal bone fractures in a growing kitten?

Answer 104

If >50% overlap, spoon splint with change every 5 days for 2 weeks. Otherwise consider surgery.

Question 105

Which cat mite can be found with a tape prep?

Answer 105

Chyletiella

Question 106

What is Budesonide?

Answer 106

A corticosteroid used for treated IBD in cats

Question 107

Emergent treatment of hypertension in cats is _____

Answer 107

Amlodipine

Question 108

Feline castration reduces roaming by ___, aggression by ____ and urine marking by _____

Answer 108

Reduces roaming by 90%, aggression by 60% and urine marking by 50%

Question 109

In contrast to dogs with pancreatitis, cats with pancreatitis should eat ____

Answer 109

Their normal diet

Question 110

What dis?

Answer 110

Cryptococcus - note the narrow base budding

Question 111

What dis?

Answer 111

Sporothrix; Smaller than crypto and less capsule Photomicrograph of impression smear from ulcerated skin lesion in cat with sporotrichosis showing numerous cigar-shaped to oval or round budding yeastlike organisms filled with blue cytoplasm with a single round pink nucleus surrounded by a nonstaining cell wall within macrophages and extracellularly (panoptic stain, ×100).

Question 112

The treatment for either sporothrix or cryptococcus in a cat is

Answer 112

Itraconazole

Question 113

Meow meow bite an electrical cord and burned his lips. What else should you look for?

Answer 113

TXR to look for non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Question 114

How do you differentiate Norcardia and Actinomyces (both are gram___, branching, filamentous ____)

Answer 114

Acid fast stain since both are gram positive branching filamentous rods

Question 115

The most commonly isolated bacteria in a cat bite abscess are ___ such as __\

Answer 115

Anaerobes; Obligate: fusobacterium, bacterioides, clostridium Facultative: pasturella, actinomyces

Question 116

A copper colored iris and pytalism in a cat indicate:

Answer 116

Portosystemic shunt

Question 117

feline mammary hyperplasia is caused by

Answer 117

progesterone

Question 118

The cornish rex, british short hair and devon rex are known for having ____

Answer 118

Type B blood (with anti-bodies against type A blood)

Question 119

The antidote for tylenol poisoning in cats is ___ and you could also give ____

Answer 119

antidote is acetylcysteine, also give S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) as a hepatoprotectant with antioxidant properties

Question 120

Ringworm is a dermatophyte infection caused by ____ and the definitive diagnosis is ____

Answer 120

microsporum canis; fungal culture

Question 121

Lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis is consistent with _____

Answer 121

inflammatory bowel disease

Question 122

Name two chemotherapeutic agents that can't be used in cats

Answer 122

5-flouroeuracil and cisplatin

Question 123

A 2 year old cat with weight loss, anorexia, lethargy, bicavitary effusion, non-regenerative anemia, netrophilia, lymphopenia and mixed mild hepatopathy that is not responsive to antibiotics is likely to have:

Answer 123

wet FIP

Question 123

sublingual masses in older cats are usually:

Answer 123

sqamous cell carcinoma (poor prognosis)

Question 124

The gestational period of a cat is ____. Fetal skeletons can be seen at ___

Answer 124

63 days; fetal skeletons seen at 36-45 day.

Question 125

Cats with osteosarcoma that get an amputation have ____ to live whereas dogs with osteosarcoma that get amputation alone have ____ MST

Answer 125

cats: 12 months or more. Dogs 3-4 month MST (these are both with amputation alone).

Question 126

Cats treated for miliary dermatitis, pruritus and dark brown flecks in the fur should be treated for both ____ and ____

Answer 126

fleas and tapeworms

Question 127

____ may cause ongoing diarrhea in kittens, it is unresponsive to typical anti-diarrheals

Answer 127

Tritichomonas foetus; treat with ronidazole

Question 128

What parasite causing chronic cough is found on a routine fecal float appearing as a double operculated egg with asymmetric terminal plugs

Answer 128

Capillaria aerophila

Question 129

____ is shed in saliva and transmitted mainly through bites in older male cats

Answer 129

Feline immunodeficiency virus

Question 130

Which type of VSD carries a good prognosis in a 6 month old kitten?

Answer 130

Small; many close on their own

Question 131

Clomipramine for kitty anxiety may cause what side effects?

Answer 131

nausea, anorexia, constipation

Question 132

Dendritic ulcers in cats are caused by

Answer 132

herpes

Question 133

The classic lesion seen with FIP is

Answer 133

pyogranulomatous vasculitis

Question 134

This is called___ or ____ and is treated with

Answer 134

indolent ulcer or feline eosinophilic granuloma complex; treat with immunosuppressive therapy and change to a hypoallergenic diet

Question 135

cats with calicivirus mediated oral ulcers should receive:

Answer 135

clindamycin and sucralfate

Question 136

A bump on the nose PLUS dark circular lesions in the retinas suggests ____ which is transmitted by ____

Answer 136

cryptococcus; inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings

Question 137

acceptable treatments for mycoplasma in cats are

Answer 137

Doxycycline and enrofloxacin. Doxycycline can cause esophageal strictures so follow with water.

Question 138

Name a possible complication during the post-obstructive period for a blocked cat?

Answer 138

hypoalcemia tetany

Question 139

cisplatin can't be given to cats because it causes:

Answer 139

fatal pulmonary edema

Question 140

____ can occur in young dogs and cats with recent enteritis

Answer 140

intussusception

Question 141

The causative agent of feline infectious anemia is

Answer 141

mycoplasma haemofelis

Question 142

The infectious coccidian in dogs and cats is ____ and is treated with ____

Answer 142

Isospora; sulfadimethoxin (albon)

Question 143

Strongyuloides sterocarlis is passed in the ____ form and can be found via ____

Answer 143

l1 larvae; baerman

Question 144

Persian cats are predisposed to developing ____ kidneys

Answer 144

polycystic kidneys

Question 145

If multiple cats in a household have demodex then the species is ____ and you diagnose with ___

Answer 145

demodex gatoi; superficial skin scrape

Question 146

___ causes severe chemosis in young kittens without other clinical signs

Answer 146

chlamydophila felis

Question 147

What is the permanent dental formula of a cat

Answer 147

2( I3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)

Question 148

If you notice rounding of the lung lobes on radiographs of a patient with respiratory distress and pleural effusion you should:

Answer 148

tap both sides of the chest because fibrosing pleuritis may cause pocketing of fluid making it harder to drain from one side

Question 149

Why is atenolol used for LVOT in cats?

Answer 149

this beta blocker reduces LVOT by reducing heart rate, LV contractility and myocardial oxygen demands

Question 150

Feline mammary hyperplasia is mediated by what hormone in what signalment of cat

Answer 150

progesterone in cycling females

Question 151

How do you treat eimeria in a cat?

Answer 151

you don't, it's just passing through

Question 152

How do you treat isospora in a cat?

Answer 152

Albon (sulfadimethoxine)

Question 153

Cats are ____ ovulators. If not bred, interestrus has a duration of _____. If they are bred and ovulate but do not become pregnant, interestrus is around ___.

Answer 153

Cats are induced ovulators. If no ovulation, interestrus is 7-21 days. If ovulation but no pregnancy, interestrus is 45-50 days.

Question 154

What is a possible complication of an ear flush?

Answer 154

Tympanic membrane rupture and horner's syndrome

Question 155

The treatment of choice for a cat with severe hypertension is ____; the mechanism of action for this drug is ____

Answer 155

amlodipine; calcium channel blockers (prevents Ca from entering vascular smooth muscle)