Bovine Flashcards
Abomasal perforation
results in acute septic peritonitis. Prognosis is grave. Clinical signs: dehydration, weakness, and expiratory grunt. Acute abomasal perforation through a single 1-2 cm ulcer occurs sporadically in young (2-4 month old) beef calves and the cause is unknown.
Abomasal torsion biochem
hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia. As a result of the torsion, animals sequester HCl int he abomasum, get hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, animals become dehydrates and try to maintain adequate blood pressure by conserving sodium through renal mechanisms. Because there is alkalosis, potassium is sequestered even more than usual in cells leading to hypokalemia. Normally kidney excretes some potassium but when insufficient potassium is available, in order to reabsorb sodium to maintain blood pressure, hydrogen ions are excreted rather than potassium which results in acid urine at h same time as metabolic alkalosis, a condition know as paradoxic aciduria.
Achromotrichia is caused by _____
copper deficiency
Actinobaccilus lignieresii
“wooden tongue” - IV sodium iodine+anitbiotics and change feed
Actinomyces bovis causes what disease in cattle?
This is a branching, Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria causing “lumpy jaw.” This condition results from the entry of the normal rumen inhabitants including actinomyces bovis into the mandile (usual site) or maxilla through a break int he mucous membranes or teeth. It may be arrested with therapy using sodium iodine, antimicrobials or even isoniazid off-label, but the bony swelling seldom changes much, even if arrested.
Akabane virus
insect-transmitted virus that causes congenital abnormalities of the CNS in ruminants. Affects fetuses of cattle, sheep, and goats. AsymptomatiPeak inceidence of disease seen if cattle are infected at 3 to 4 months of gestationc infection has been demonstrated serologically in horses, buffalo, and deer in endemic areas.
Bunyaviridae; transmitted by culicoides spp
common in tropical and subtropical areas.
Calves infected late in pregnancy may be born alive but unable to stand and may have flaccid paralysis of the limbs, disseminated encephalomyelitis on PM
Anaplasmosis
Anaplasma marginale. Clinical signs: pale, icteric, and febrile. Key features: adults sick, resistant to clinical Anaplasmosis as calves. Never seen hemoglobinuria with Anaplasmosis because if is all extravascular hemolysis.
Tick-borne, treat with tetracyclines
Animal African Trypanosomiasis
African animal trypanosomiasis (AAT) is a parasitic disease that causes serious economic losses in livestock from anemia, loss of condition and emaciation. Many untreated cases are fatal
protozoan parasites in the family Trypanosomatidae. Most trypanosomes are transmitted by tsetse flies
Anopheles
mosquito responsible for transmission of Maralia
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
Most common postpartum pathogen leading to endometritis
Can also cause footrot
Bacillary hemoglobinuria (Clostridium novy type D)
hemoglobinuria, caused by germination of C. novyi type D spores in the liver after anaerobic damage by migrating liver fluke larvae. Can be prevented with vaccination.
Bluetongue
Reovirus: Small midges or gnats are the main route of transmission of bluetongue virus, although it can also be transmitted sexually or transplacentally. C sonorensis is the main species responsible for transmission int eh USA.
Bovine High-Mountain Disease (BHMD)
“Brisket disease” High-altitude pulmonary hypertension
Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
an adhesion molecule defect that causes granulocyte and lymphocyte dysfunction and recurrent soft-tissue infections
Bovine Leukosis Virus (BLV)
clinical lymphoma, ELISA for antibody to envelope glycoprotein gp51
Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus
A virus classified as a pneumovirus in the Paramyxovirus family
characteristic “honking” cough
Diagnose for PCR
Treatment: antimicrobial therapy for secondary bacterial infection
Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
flavivirus
most common in young cattle
most commonly diagnosed virus in bovine abortion cases
The pathology of BVD in the developing fetus is complex. Infection before insemination or during the first 40 days of pregnancy results in infertility or embryonic death. Infection between 40 and 125 days of pregnancy results in birth of persistently infected calves if the fetus survives. Fetal infection during the period of organogenesis (100–150 days) may result in congenital malformations of the CNS (cerebellar hypoplasia, hydrancephaly, hydrocephalus, microencephaly, and spinal cord hypoplasia). Congenital ocular defects have also been seen (cataracts, optic neuritis, retinal degeneration, microphthalmia). After 125 days of gestation, BVD may cause abortion, or the fetal immune response may clear the virus
Brucellosis
abortion (rare), retained placenta, metritis, and lack of signs in younger animals. Abortion usually occurs in last half of pregnancy and the fetuses appear relatively normal but typically there are signs of severe inflammation, including placentitis.
Vaccinated animals have tattoos and ear tags in their right ear. The first letter fo the tattoo indicates the type of vaccine. The USDA “V shield” indicated vaccination. The number indicated the last number of the year of vaccination. The information of the ear tag indicated the state by the first two numbers and then the remaining characters are a specific identifier for the animal so that it can be traced if necessary.
BST or rBST is given to dairy cows at this frequency in order to do what?
given by injection to lactating dairy cows every two weeks to increase the amount of milk produced and to prolong lactation.
BVD fetus aborted
anytime during gestation
BVD fetus persistently infected
before 125 days of gestation
BVD fetus with congenital deformities
infected between 90-150 days of gestation, half of these will die within first year of life. Most common congenital anomaly is cerebellar hypoplasia
Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis
Main cause of bovine campylobacteriosis but is not shed in milk. The organism is an obligate parasite of the bovine genital tract and causes abortion. Infection usually results in temporary infertility or early embryonic death.
Campylobacter jejuni
Emerging milk zoonotic pathogen
Clostridium botulinum
produces a toxin that blocks acetylcholine release by binding the presynaptic membrane, this causes progressive motor paralysis and generalized progressive weakness. Death usually occurs due to respiratory paralysis. The bacteria often proliferate in decomposing animal or plant tissue.
Coccidiosis
Eimeria (12 species identified in cattle, 3 that cause clinical disease); summer and winter varieties. Diagnosed using McMaster’s technique. Treat with monensin.
Nervous coccidiosis - heat stable
Cochliomyia hominivorax
also know as screwworm. Large metallic blue-green colored fly. Females lay hundreds of eggs at the edge of fresh wounds on the cow; larvae hatch approximately 24 hours. As the larvae eat the living tissue, they create a huge wound. Screwworm larvae then fall off and pupate, completing their life cycle in approximately 21 days. This fly is reportable!!!
Congenital microphthalmia
Result of Bovine Viral Diarrhea infection
Contagious mastitis agents are:
Post-milk teat dip to prevent mastitis. Types: Strep agalactiae, Mycoplasma, staph aureus
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
se cutaneous excoriated granulomas. Large, ulcerative skin lesions resembling infected granulation tissue and lymphangitis may occur in 2%–5% of cows. Location on the animal is variable but is often associated with skin trauma. Healing often occurs without treatment or with limited topical treatment in 2–4 wk. Abortion and mastitis may also occur.
Culicoides
parasitic hematophagous midge which causes skin disease as well as transmitting disease
Dexamethasone for inducing parturition
parturition will occur within 24 hours
Dictyocaulus viviparus
bovine lungworm and cause of verminous bronchitis. Often affects younger cattle more severely. Signs include cough and frequently tachypnea. The diagnosis is frequently suggested by the seasonal incidence although confirmation with fecal examination (Baermann) is important to achieve a definitive diagnosis. Treatment with an anthelmintic of clinically affected animals is usually effective.
Direct lifecycle, no intermediate hosts.
Dietary cation-anion difference
Diet is enhanced with more anionic salts containing the strong ions chloride and sulfur and has decreased amounts of strong cations such as sodium and potassium. Used to help prevent milk fever. Cows become more acidotic which enhances parathyroid hormone function along with a better ability to utilize calcium.
Endocarditis
most commonly in the tricuspid valve, in contrast of horses and SA where the aortic valve is most commonly affected. Animal may be septic as well and have swollen joints. Common cause of endocarditis in cattle are foot abscesses and other sites where pus and blood mix.
Endometritis treament
Intrauterine penicillin (after 30 days) or tetracycline or ceftiofur can be beneficial. Some prefer dilute povidone iodine or uterine lavage with saline to avoid negative impact of antibiotic residues in the milk. Prostaglandins can also be used to “short cycle” the cow which will aid in treating the endometritis.
Enzootic pneumonias
Multifactorial but is mainly a result of poor housing and environment (poor sanitation and ventilation). Calves will have cranioventral consolidation and many times they have diarrhea as a result of being infected with Eimeria bovis.
Escherichia coli is considered what type of mastitis agent?
Environmental contaminant. Pre-milking teat dips are useful for preventing such noncontagious disease as E coli, enterococcus, and Streptococcus sp.(other than S. agalactiae).
Esophageal groove dysfunction
when dysfunctional, milk goes tot he rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. This results in rumen acidosis. Number of contributing factors, review feeding program
Ethylene glycol toxicity treatment
4-Methylpyrazole
Faciola hepatica
liver fluke, lesions appear more as tracks and/or hemorrhage. Animals tend to present with abdominal pain or jaundice acutely. Chronically animals become anemic or anorectic.
Farmers lung
episode, allergic disease. Usually, the animal will be housed indoors and be exposed to the allergen; going outside will improve his situation
Fog fever
also called acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema. It is one the atypical interstitial pneumonias (diffuse, non-septic lung disease). The lush plants are high in tryptophan wich is subsequently metabolized in the rumen to 3-methyl indole (toxic to the lungs).
Foot and Mouth Disease
Picornavirus
Viral disease of cloven-hoofed animals characterized by fever and vesicles in the mouth and on the muzzle, teats, and feet
Diagnosis: via antigen capture–ELISA or serotyping ELISA of affected epithelium
Can be near 100% fatality
Very contagious
Vaccine available but countries fee of disease usually use slaughter and movement restrictions to control outbreaks
Foot disease location
80% of foot disease involves the digits involves the rear digits, Additionally, approximately 85% of these involve the lateral aspect. This is because they bear the majority of their rear limb weight on the lateral claw in the hind. In the front, cattle put most of their weight on their medical claw.
Footrot treatment
10% Zinc sulfate baths
Frothy bloat
Vagal indigestion
Treat with Poloxalene orally, this substance reduces surface tension and destabilizes the froth. In a pinch, you could also use cooking oil.
Fusobacteria necrophorum
Gram-negative, obligate anaerobic bacterium that is a component of the normal rumen microflora. necrotic laryngitis. metritis causes bacteremic spread of the organism which can go to the liver and release toxins leading to damage and potential abscess formation, typically yellow and spherical with irregular outlines.
Affected livers condemned at slaughter. DIagnosis could be confirmed by culture of the liver.
one of the main causes of footrot in cattle
Giardiosis
flagellate protozoa inhabit mucosal surface of small intestine, attach to brush border, and absorb nutrients.
Treat with Fenbendazole
Haematobia irritans aka the ____ fly requires ____ feces to reproduce. In addition to cattle, the adults will also feed on ____, ____, or ___ within a ____ mile radius. These flies suck __ and other fluids. A heavy infestation can lead to lesions on the ____ as well as ____ loss. It can be treated with ___ or ___.
Haematobia irritans aka the horn fly requires cattle feces to reproduce. In addition to cattle, the adults will also feed on horses, sheep, or goats within a 10 mile radius. These flies suck blood and other fluids. A heavy infestation can lead to lesions on the ventral midline as well as economic loss. Can treat with insecticides or ear tags.
Haemonchus contortus
barber’s pole worm, is very common parasite and one of the most pathogenic nematodes of ruminants. Adult worms attach to abomasal mucosa and feed on the blood. This parasite is responsible for anemia, oedema, and death of infected sheep and goats, mainly during summer in warm, humid climates
Haemonchus placei
barber’s pole worm, large stomach worm, wire worm
Haemophilus pleuropneumoniae
now known as Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Hematopinus sp.
Blood sucking genus of louse, and can cause severe anemia. The anemic calves become thin and more susceptible to diseases like pneumonia. 6 legs vs 8 of mites and ticks
High Mountain Disease test
test at 6000 ft and above, <40 mmHg pressure is a good prognostic indicator for cattle >12 months of age
Histophilis somni (Hemophilus somnus)
Etiologic agent of thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) in cattle. Affects the cerebellum and brain stem, but also causes pnuemonia and joint infections (several swollen joints). Can also cause metritis, orchitis, and conjunctivitis. This systemic infection may start in the respiratory tract in young stressed, often transported, cattle. Early treatment with antimicrobial drugs such as tetracycline, penicillin, erythromycin, or sulfonamides can be effective, but the other signs may persist.
Hydroallantois
disorder of the placenta - prognosis for the fetus and fertility of the cow poor
L1 larvae of Hypoderma lineatum migrate to the _____ while L1 larvae of H bovis migrate to the _____. L3 larvae of both end up in the subcutaneous tissue of the ____ where they drill an _____ before falling out onto the ground.
L1 larvae of Hypoderma lineatum migrate to the esophagus while L1 larvae of H bovis migrate to the epidural fat of the spinal cord. L3 larvae of both end up in the subcutaneous tissue of the back where they drill an airhole before falling out onto the ground. These “heel fly” or warble fly larvae migrate can be treated with pour on macrocyclic lactone or systemic insecticide
Hypomagnesemium
Grass tetany, grass staggers, winter tetany, metabolic disease involving magnesium deficiency, which can occur in such ruminant livestock as beef cattle, dairy cattle and sheep, usually after grazing on pastures of rapidly growing grass, especially in early spring.
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
Virus can quickly kill bovine fetus, but as the Herpes viruses in many hosts, there are signs of severe inflammation throughout the fetus.
Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis
Mycoplasma and Chlamydia
Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis
caused by bovine herpes virus 1
transmitted by natural service, nosogenital contact, or mechanically by some flies.
Characterized by vaginal lesions which progress to pustules and erosions or ulcers.
Intrauterine inoculation of the virus (from bull) produces necrotizing endometritis and cervicitis
L-tryptophan in forage toxicity
3-Methyl indole is a pneumotoxin produced by rumen microflora when cattle ingest large amounts of L-tryptophan in forage, resulting in atypical interstitial pneumonia.
Late gestation anionic diet calculation
(Na + K) - (Cl + S)
Leptospira interrogans serovar Hardjo (type Hardi-Bovis)
Causes reproductive problems in herd, hemoglobinuria
To eliminate from herd, treat all animals with tetracycline to eliminate carriers and regularly vaccinate all cattle against this serovar
Vaccine will prevent new carriers, but will not eliminate existing carriers. To be cost effective, they may need to mass treat dry cows and young stock using long-acting tetracline
Listeriosis is caused by _____, commonly acquired from___. A CSF tap will show ____. Clinical signs are typically ____. It can also cause abortion and the fetus can be ____ with ____ present.
Caused by listerioa monocytogenes,usually contracted from ingesting silage that has been stored at a pH > 5.0. A CSF tap will show mononuclear pleocytosis. Clinical signs are typically asymmetrical cranial nerve deficits (ear dropp, eyelid droop, lip droop, deviation of filtrum, head tilt, horizontal nystagmus, loss of jaw tone, dysphagia)
Can cause abortion, but the fetus is usually autolyzed to a significant extent, and there are often brain micro-abscesses present.
Listeriosis treatment
Penicillin, amoxicillin, PPG, oxytetracycline
Liver abscesses at slaughter
caused by rumen acidosis and migration of bacteria
Maple syrup urine disease
Genetic disorder associated with spongiform changes int he brain and caused by a deficiency of Branched-chain ketoacid decarboxylase in Hereford and polled Shorthorn calves. It usually shows up at 2 to 3 days of age. This disease causes an encephalopathy.
Mecistocirrus digitatus
gastrointestinal worm of tropical countries
Meningitis
High WBC (neutrophilia) and protein on CSF tap. Clinical presentation: diarrhea, fever, anorexia, stiff neck, hyperesthesia.
Moniezia
Anoplocephalid tapeworm found in young cattle. Their life-cycle involves oribatid mites which live in the soil and are ingested by the host. Generally considered non-pathogenic but may cause intestinal stasis. Eggs are rectangular or triangular
Moraxella bovis
Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis, transmitted by flies (Stomoxys calcitrans, Haematobia irritans, Musca autumnalis - the most commonly implicated vector)
Musca autumnalis
face fly - most commonly implicated vector for Moraxella transmission
Mycobasterium paratuberculosis
cause of Johne’s disease which results in chronic wasting
Mycoplasma bovis in young calves causes ____
may be spread to young calves via milk. In very young dairy calve it can cause otitis media with aural discharge, head tilt, nystagmus, ataxia, and even facial nerve paralysis In older calves it causes respiratory disease (pneumonia) and can cause arthritis and tenosynovitis. Mastitis, abortion and other signs can also be caused by M. bovis.
Mycoplasma pneumonia
aerosol spread
Myophosphorylase deficiency
Genetic disease identified in Charolais cattle. Affect cattle are born with a deficiency in the enzyme phosphorylase. Presents as a result of exercise intolerance and collapse, elevated AST, CK, and LDH.
Neospora caninum abortion
dog definitive host; causes abortion from 3-8 months of gestation and typically results in an autolyzed fetus. Frequently, there are granulomas in the brain.
Nervous coccidiosis
cattle <1 year, Eimeria spp. Coccidia produce nervous coccidiosis by elaboration of a heat-labile neurotoxin
Organophosphate toxicity
act by inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, causing muscarinic signs such as hypersalivation, incoordination, and bloat. Acute cases can be treated with high doses of atropine or pralidoxime (2-PAM).
Ostertagia ostertagii type I
occurs in winter and spring following rapid infection with large numbers of L3 larvae from the heavily contaminated pasture. Egg counts in this scenario tend to be much high and clinical disease is most common in younger animals after weaning.
Ostertagia ostertagii type II
Cobblestone abomasum - occurs because larva undergo hypobiosis (larval inhibition) and lay dormant in the early fourth larval stage within the glands of the abomasum, forming the nodules. They resume development and emerge seasonally leading to severe signs outbreaks in autumn into winter and low egg counts Treat with benzimidazoles and ivermectin
Paradoxic aciduria
Sodium exchanges for hydrogen in the renal tubules
Paradoxic aciduria can commonly occur in cows in situations where HCl trapping occurs in the abomasum such as when there is a torsion. This will lead to a hypochloremia. Dehydration also occurs and in the process of trying to conserve sodium to maintain blood volume, bicarbonate is retained and the cows become alkalotic. Then the cow’s cells exchange hydrogen from inside the cell and take in potassium to try and return to a normal pH. This results in hypokalemia; the kidney tubules then start using hydrogen (instead of potassium) to exchange for sodium and conserve sodium. This means that they are excreting hydrogen and this is paradoxic aciduria.
Pastuerella multicoida
bacterial calf pneumonia - “shipping fever pneumonia”
gram-negative bacterium
Pine Needle Abortion
Typically occurs in the last trimester and abortion is characterized by a hemorrhagic condition of the placenta and fetus
Piroplasmosis aka babesiosis is caused by Babesia which is transmitted by ______ ticks. This protozoan parasite lives in _____. It can cause ____ clinically. The treatment is ____.
intraerythrocytic protozoan parasites
Transmitted by ticks - Rhipicephalus (Boophilus)
Lesions (particularly with B bovis) include an enlarged and friable spleen; a swollen liver with an enlarged gallbladder containing thick granular bile; congested, dark-colored kidneys; and generalized anemia and jaundice. Most clinical cases of B bigemina have hemoglobinuria, but this is not invariably the case with B bovis. Other organs, including the brain and heart, may show congestion or petechiae
Treatment: diminazene aceturate or imidocarb dipropionate
Polioencephalomalacia
Thiamine deficiency, necrosis of cortical gray matter
See low WBC and protein on CSF tap
Porphyria
an inherited defect in the metabolism of hemoglobin and its byproducts. In cattle, accumulation of aberrant porphyrins in the skin increases sensitivity to ultraviolet light. Autosomal recessive trait found in several breeds.
Postparturient hemoglobinuria
phosphorus levels less than 2.0 mg/dL will most likely result in hemolysis -> lactating post-parturition cattle
hypophosphatemia
Prevotella melaninogenicus
one of the main causes of footrot in cattle
Pulse paradox
due to pericardial effusion
Salmonella dublin
Tends to cause septicemia in dairy calves 4 to 8 weeks of age. Transmitted by carrier cow to neonates at birth via their milk. Cull carriers and vaccinate calves using a modified live S. dublin vaccine.
Salmonella typhimurium
sick, febrile, and have abnormalities in the CBC compatible with endotoxemia (neutropenia or neutrophilia), and an increased plasma fibrinogen. In a severe outbreak, some cows would likely die.
Sarcocystis cruzi
dog definitive host, ruminant intermediate host; Carnivore infected by eating host with cysts in the muscle, sporocysts shed in feces which are subsequently eaten by cows. Sporocysts hatch and penetrate artery walls and hand out in endothelium to develop into sporozoites and eventually become merozoites at which time they invade muscle and encyst as sarcocysts. Clinical signs nonspecific: fever, anorexia, salivation, weakness, muscle fasciculations, and weight loss.
Sarcophaga
flesh flies
Sarcoptes scabiei
a reportable mite which induces severe pruritus and, as a result, may be economically devastating.
Shipping fever
fibrinous pleuropneumonia
Silo filler’s disease
Bronchiolitis obliterans - there is typically a history of switching from a poor pasture to a lush pasture two weeks ago.
Simulium
Black fly
Stomoxys calcitrans
stable fly
Streptococcus agalactiae
Obligate pathogen of the mammary gland of cows; usually causes subclinical mastitis, but sometimes you may see high somatic cell counts and clinical signs with this organism. Perform a CAMP reaction to diagnose this organism.
Taenia
Treat with Praziquantel
Thelazia
ocular parasite, remove manually and treat with 10% levamisole drops. Transmitted by face flies. The adult Thelazia live in the tear ducts and in the conjunctival sac. Thelazia larvae are regurgitated from the crop of the face fly while feeding on ocular secretions. The worm larvae irritate the eyes and lacrimation, photophobia, conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, keratitis and small eyelid abscesses result.
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)
neutrophilic pleocytosis on CSF cytologic examination
Treatment to increase rumen pH
magnesium oxide
Trichomonas foetus
abortion (early embryonic death), protozoa, venereal, poor calving %
Trichostrongylus axei
small stomach worm ~5 mm long
develop and survive better in cooler conditions
Twinning
Significant risk factor for abortion
Vesicular Stomatitis
Rhabdovirus - reportable since clinical signs are similar to FMD
Winter Dysentery
Epidemic disorder of housed cattle, usually occurring in cold months and affecting 10-90% of adult cows. If fever occurs at all, is usually precedes the diarrhea phase. The disease is thought to be caused by coronavirus, and lesions involve the colon. In typical outbreaks, the disease runs its course in weeks and the herd becomes immune and recovers, although milk production may not recover to previous levels.
Zoonotic pathogens in milk
Brucella abortus, Mycoberterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis, Listeria monoctogenes, Salmonella dublin
Epizootic Bovine Abortion
“foot hill abortion’
Important disease of heifers and newly introduced cows in California foothills. Fetus shows enlarged lymph nodes and spleen, destructive lesions tot he thymus and evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. Etiologic agent is unknown, but vector is a tick, Ornithodoros coriaceus.
Copper deficiency in ruminants is most often secondary and mainly associated with marginal copper levels and high levels of ______
Molybdenum
Name three causes of acute hemolysis in cattle
castor bean toxicosis, water deprivation followed by free access to water, Cl novyi type D (Cl hemolyticum)
What respiratory pathogen causes a honking cough in cattle?
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
How many blood groups do cattle have?
11
White muscle disease affects ____ (age group) is also called _____ and is caused by?
Calves; Nutritional muscle dystrophy (NMD). It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin E, selenium or both. Dietary polyunsaturated fatty acids, unaccustomed exercise and rapid growth are considered risk factors.
Cattle may injur which nerve during stock handling leading to dropped elbow, flexion of distal forelimb, knuckling and scapular muscle atrophy?
Radial nerve
The prion disease of cattle is called _____ and the most concerning aspect of this condition is ____
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy; economic loss
Although it tends to cause clinical signs more in sheep than in cattle, ______ may cause cataracts, hydrancephaly, arthrogryposis and early fetal death in calves.
Bluetongue (RNA virus)
____ is shed in nasal secretions of infected sheep and may cause _____ in cattle, bison and other ruminants. This disease is characterized by high fever, mucopurulent nasal discharge, large lymph nodes, corneal opacity, thickened cracking skins, RBC’s in urine, CNS signs and lameness.
Ovine herpesvirus 2 is shed in nasal secretions of infected sheep and may cause Malignant Cattarhal Fever in cattle, bison and other ruminants.
In North America Malignant Catarrhal Fever is mainly caused by _____ and is diagnosed via ____ or _____.
Caused by ovine herpesvirus type 2, dx by PCR on blood or tissues or ELISA for serum antibodies
In Africa or in zoos, ____ may serve as a reservoir for Malignant Catarrhal Fever because they carry ______
Wildabeests; Alcelaphine herpesvirus 1 and 3 (Bovine herpesvirus 3)
Cattle and Bison should be kept at least 5km from sheep to prevent _______
malignant catarrhal fever
The pathophysiology of malignant catarrhal fever involves _____ vasculitis.
Lymphocytic
Considering vesicular stomatitis, foot and mouth disease, bovine viral diarrhea, and malignant catarrhal fever; which affect cattle? Which are found in north america?
All of them, all except FMD are in north america
Hydrops allantois is characterized by ____ accumulation of fluid in the uterus and cow that is _____. Hydroallantois is a disorder of the ____ and the prognosis for mom fertility and baby is ____.
Hydrops allantois is characterized by rapid accumulation of fluid in the uterus and cow that is sick (off feed, reluctant to move). Hydroallantois is a disorder of the placenta and the prognosis for mom’s fertility and baby is poor.
Name the 7 drugs that cannot be used extra label in the US on food producing cattle.
Diethyl silbestrol, chloramphenicol, nitroimidazoles, clenbuterol, fluoroquinolones, vacomycin, nitrofurans
The screening test commonly used for Brucellosis in dairy herds is:
Milk ring test
Pregnancy can be confirmed by ultrasound a ____ days, and sex can be determined at __ days in a cow
28 days; 58-90 days
What dis
Moniezia (anoplocephalid tapeworm) - generally non-pathogenic
Woody tongue is caused by ____ allowing ____
scrabrous feeding allowing Actinobacillus lingieresii to enter the tongue
A cow that suddenly develops lameness, depression, fever and a crepitant, edematous, hot and painful swelling has ____ caused by ____
blackleg; clostridium chauvoei
In the cattle world they call centra corneal ulcers ___ aka _____
pinkeye; infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
Lumpy jaw is caused by _____ which can be treated with _____ except in pregnant animals
Actinomyces bovis; IV sodium iodide at 66mg/kg
What zoonotic infection is the greatest concern in unpastuerized cow’s milk?
Mycobacterium bovis
Bacillary hemoglobinuria, leptospirosis and anthrax all cause ____
hemoglobinuria
trichophyton spp are the ____ of the cow
ringworm
____ occur most commonly after parturition and produce a variable ping between the 10th and 13th ribs.
left displaced abdomasum
An aborted fetus with lymphdenomegaly, splenomegaly, destructive lesions to the thymu sand evidence of chronic granulomatous infection probably has:
Epizootic bovine abortion (EBA) - Pajaroellobacter abortibois vectored by Ornithodors coraceus (TicK)
Moldy sweet potato poisoning is caused by
4-ipomeanol
acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (ABPEE) aka fog fever is caused by ingestion of ____ leading to
lush pasture high in tryptophan; leading to production of 3-methylindole
When do non-cytopathic forms of BVD occur during gestation?
before 125 days
Clinical signs of a bleeding abomasal ulcer include
melena, pale mucous memebranes, rapid pounding heart, weakness and death
perforating ulcers carry a ____ prognosis
poor
Treatment for abomasal ulcers includes
h2 anatagonists (cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, etc), discontinue NSAIDs, bland fiber diet, blood transfusion, surgery if massive peritonitis
To calculate the amount of alkalinizing agent in a ‘floppy calf” the formula is
0.6 X calf weigth X base deficit
The layman’s translation of polioencephalomalacia is ____. This histologic diagnosis is due to ____
gray matter - brain - softening; due to alteration in thiamine metabolism
Thiamine is a cofactor of the rate limiting step of the ______
pentose phosphate pathoway, the main source of glucose metabolism in the brain and red blood cells
Craniocortical necrosis (polioencephalomalacia) can be caused by:
lead poisoning, grain overload, salt intoxication, bracken fern poisoning, sulfur intoxication and amprolium intoxication
What are four treatments for post-partum ketosis?
propylene glycol, glucose IV, insulin SQ and corticosteroids
How do you treat a calf with failure of passive transfer at 3 days old?
20-40ml/kg bovine plasma
What is the main mode of transmission of mastitis causing organisms in cows?
milker’s hands and milking equiptment
Which gram positive bacteria is an obligate pathogen of the mammary gland of cows?
Streptococcus aggalactiae
papple shape and no rumen motility is caused by:
vagal indigestion
Which cause of cow colic causes scant, sticky, dark feces?
intussuception
canine feces should be kept away from cattle because it can contain
sporocysts of sarocystis cruzi
A 7 day old calf with severe diarrhea that is floppy and dehydrated has was three things plus probably what fourth thing?
hypovolemia, severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkaleia and probably sepsis
The ____ spirochete cause hairy foot warts in cows and can be treated with topical ____ or ____
treponema, treat with topical tetracycline or lincomycin
A somatic cell count from the herd milk tank is normally less than ____, over ____ can indicated infection and at _____ there is as many as 16% of mammary quarters affects
usually less than 200,000, over 300K infected, over 500K means up to 16% of mammary quarters are infected
An abortion storm in the california foothills reveals aborted fetuses with hepatosplenomegaly and generalized lymphadenopathy. There is lymphoid hyperplasia in the spleens and granulomatous inflammation in the liver. There is macrophage infiltration in the liver. Fetal IgG is markedly elevated. What is the agent and how is it prevented?
Epizootic bovine abortion - expose heifers to endemic areas before breeding age
spastic paresis is also called
Elso heel
Which parapox viruses can cattle get? Which causes raised oral lesions?
Bovine papular stomatitis and psuedocowpox are the parapox viruses cows can get (contagious ecythema is a sheep and goat parapox virus)
The warble fly aka ____ can cause tremendous hide damage
Hypoderma bovis
“crooked calves” are born to moms that have eaten ____
lupine
trichomoniasis in cattle persists because it lives in the
bull of the herd (lives in the epithelium of the penis)
sudden death, staggering, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, icterus, weakness and hemoglobinuria are all signs of _____ which is treated with ____ and prevented by -______
bacillary hemoglobinuria caused by clostridium novyi type D; treated with penicillin, prevented with vaccination and fluke control
pre-milking teat dips help prevent ___ diseases such as ____, _____ and ____ other than ____
non-contangious such as E coli, enterococcus adn strep spp other than strep agalactiae
Fetuses can become persistently infected with the noncytopathic form of BVD _____
before 125 days of gestation
Name four diseases than can cause an interdigital ulcerated necrotic lesion in a cow
interdigital necrobacillosis, foot and mouth disease, bovine viral diarrhea and malignant cattharal fever
corns are best treated by
surgical removal of the mass using sedation and local anesthesia
which type of vagal indigestion is associated with pnuemonia?
type 1 aka free gas bloat
electrical alterans indicates ___
pericardial effusion
A cow that is one month to term that suggest develops an enlarged abdominal shape with marked watery fluid in the uterus has hydrops _____ which is a disorder of the_____ and the prognosis is ____
hydrops allantois is a disorder of the placenta and the prognosis for the life of fetus and fertility of the cow is poor
acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphesyma (an ARDS of cattle) occurs after ______ involving the ingestion of ___ and conversion to ____
occurs after switching to lush pasture, increased ingestion of L-tryptophan converted to the toxin 3-methylindole in the rumen
What causes CNS signs and a loss of PLRS in cattle?
vitamin A deficiency
what is the prognosis for abomasal perforation with acute septic peritonitis, even with prompt veterinary intervention?
Grave (<10% chance of survival and recovery)
phosphorus levels below ___ result in hemolysis
below 2.0mg/dL
The three main functions of the liver are:
metabolism (gluconeogenesis, urea cycle), synthesis (fibrinogen, albumin, clotting factors) and excretion (bilirubin, phylloerythrin)
johne’s disease occurs when in cattle?
2-5 years of age
The clinical signs of anaplasmosis in cattle are:
2-4 week incubation, weakness, disorientation/irritability, fever, tachycardia, pale mucous membranes, normal urine/feces/other parameters
A cow with abomasal torsion accumulates ____ in the forestomachs leading to hypo-____ and _____ (acid base status). Subsequently the cow develops hypo-_____. Therefore the resuscitation fluid should be ____.
accumulate chloride in the forestomach leading to hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis; followed by hypokalemia. Give normal saline plus potassium
Metastatic pnuemonia is a rare disease that happens when _____
rumen acidosis results in liver abscessation that erodes the vena cava, infected vena caval thrombi break off and shower the pulmonary arteries until they lodge and form a pulmonary abscess. The pulmonic embolic abscesses can track from arteries to airway, leading to pulmonary bleeding (bloody nose)
A 3 week old calf that was born unable to bear weight on its hind limbs and was observed dog sitting but has no other abnormalities probably experienced _____, preventable by _____
femoral nerve paralysis, preventable by cesarian
Name four cyanide containing plants
chokecerry (prunus spp), vetch, hydrangea and johnson grass aka sorghum grass
What sign of pregnancy is present at 30 days of gestation in a cow?
chorioallantoic membrane slip
Secondary copper deficiency is due to an interference of absorption of copper due to the presence of ____ and ____
molybdenum and sulfates
Achromotrichia is caused by ____
copper deficiency
nutritional myodegeneration aka _____ is associated with low dietary ____ and compounded by low dietary _____
white muscle disease; low selenium and low vitamin E
post milking teat dips help prevent contagious mastitis such as that caused by ____
Strep agalactiae, corynebacterium bovis, mycoplasma bovis and staph aureus
perilla mint is a ____-toxin in cattle
pnuemotoxin
You should suspect ____ when there are late term abortions, retained placenta, metritis and lack of signs in younger animals. Or if the cattle are not tattooed as they should be when vaccination for this disease
Brucellosis
In addition to polioencephalomalacia, bracken fern can also cause ____ in ruminants due to _____
bone marrow destruction, anemia and tumors in the bladder (hematuria) due to ptaquiloside
Myophosphyrlase deficiency has been identified in the ____ breed and causes ____
Charolais; exercise intolerance
Trichoomoniasis is usually asymptomatic but may cause poor _____
poor calving percentage
The treatment for a cow with a fever and an organism at the margin of the RBCs on blood smears is ___
oxytetracycline for anaplasmosis
type 2 vagal indigestion refers to failure of____
failure of omasal transport
type 3 indigestion refers to ____. This is usually acompanied by what electrolyte abnormalities?
pyloric outflow failure and “internal vomiting” - hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia
Paradoxic ____ occurs in hypochloremic, hypokalemic patients
Paradoxic aciduria
Increased rumen ____ is diagnostic of vagal indigestion
increased rumen chloride
LDA occur most commonly in _____
lactating dairy cows in the first month after parturition
Clinical signs of LDA include
normal TPR, partial anorexia, hypogalactica, altered mentation especially if ketosis and scant stool
Abomasal atony in LDAs can be caused in part by what three things?
Hypocalcemia, inadequate effective fiber (VFAs reach abomasum) and concurrent endotoxemia
_____ aka redwater is caused by ____ and is often set off by ____ migrating in the liver
bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by clostrdium novyi type D and is often set off by flukes migrating in the liver
Persistently infected BVD carrier shed the virus in ______
milk, colostrum and serum
Vesicular stomatitis affects ____ and is present in the _____ geographically
horses, cattle and pigs - present in the americas
The vesicles caused by vesicular stomatitis usually last ____ or progress to ____
vesicles for a couple hours, then progress to erosions or ulcers
The main look alikes for vesicular stomatitis are ___ and ____ however ___ is not found in america and _____ usually doesn’t cause a herd outbreak
FMD - not in america, BVD - usually not herd outbreak
Clinical signs of vesicular stomatitis are _____
vesicles/erosions/ulcers in mouth, coronary band or teats - salivation and tongue hanging out
Treatment of vesicular stomatitis is ____
quarantine, soft feed, clean area daily
Enzootic hematuria is caused by _____ which causes ____. This differs from acute bracken poisoning which causes ___
chronic ingestion of bracken fern which causes hemorrhagic cystitis. This differs from acute bracken poisoning which causes bone marrow suppression.
Ascending UTIs in ruminants are often caused by
corynebacterium renale and E coli
The rules of UTI treatment are:
select an antibiotic that achieves high concentration in the urine and treat for an extended period of time
The main two antimicorbials used for UTIs in ruminants are:
beta lactams and sulfonamides
The leptospira serovar adapted to cattle is
harjo
Do host adapted or non host adapted serovars of lepto cause worse disease?
non-host adapted; cause nephritis, icterus, fever, agalactia and mastatis
Lepto is transmitted by
in urine from infected rodents and wildlife
The estrus cycle of cattle is ____ days long
21 days
you should consider deworming when your mcmaster fecal egg count is between _____
300-400 eggs per gram of feces
___ pulmonary artery pressures taken above 6000ft of elevation in a cow above 12 months predict animals that are less susceptible to high mountain disease
lower (less than 40mmhg)
Salmonella dublin mainly affects cattle of what age and causes what clinical and pathological signs?
calves 4-8 weeks, causing depressed appetite, fever and rapid labored breathing; pathology is serosal and subcutaneous petechial hemorrhages and heavy wet red lungs
Ostertagia causes a ___ appearance to the abomasum
cobblestone
This appearance of the liver is classic for ____ which is also the most common cause for metstatic pnuemonia
fusobacterium necrophorum
A honking coughing in cattle is associated with
bovine respiratory syncytial virus
The causative agent of shipping fever is _____ which produces both a ___-toxin and ____-toxin and the main clinical sign is ____
shipping fever = mannheimia hemolytica, leukotoxin and endotoxin; causes acute fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia. This is also the most common bacteria cause of infectious pnuemonia in sheep and goats.
The causative agent of TEME (_____) is _____. The main clinical syndromes are ___, ____ and ____. The classic CSF lesion is ____.
TEME = thrombotic meningoencephalitis is caused by Histophilus Somni. It causes respiratory dz, neurologic disease and polyarhritis. The classic CSF lesion is xanthochromia (yellow).
The causative agent of Enzootic pnuemonia is _____. This pnuemonia tends to present more ____
Pasteurella multocida; more chronic
_____ can cause bronchopneumonia, polyarhritis and otitis media/externa
Mycoplasma bovis
The four main causes of bronchopnuemonia in cattle are:
Mycoplasma bovis, pasteurella multocida (chronic), mannheimia hemolytica (acute) and histophilus somni (TEME)
Fog fever refers to acute bovine pulmonary ____ and ____ due to conversion of ____ to ____ after grazing on ____. It can be preventing by adding ____ to feed
pulmonary emphysema and edema due to conversion of tryptophan to 3 methyl indole after grazing on lush pasture. Prevent by adding ionophores to feed.
The cattle lungworm is ____ and it is detected with _____
dictyocaulus viviparus; baermann technique to find larvae in feces
metastatic pnuemonia is usually secondary to
lactic acidosis
Fusobacterium necrophorum can cause _____
necrotic laryngitis, liver abscesses, metastatic pnuemonia and infectious footrot
___ is a chronic granulomatous bowel disease including adult onset diarrhea and weight loss, protein losing enteropathy, and lymphadenopathy. This disease is transmitted in-utero, via colostrum or milk or fecal-oral and enters through the M cells in the gut.
Johne’s disease
The preferred diagnostic test for Johne’s disease is
absorbed ELISA for antibody detection
In proestrus, progesterone is _____ and estrogen is _____
progesterone low, estrogen increasing - this is a period of rapid follicular growth
In cattle ovulation occurs ____
ovulation occurs 12 to 18 hours after the end of estrus
The level of estrogen in a high producing diary cow during estrus is ___ than a beef cow
lower
vaginal mucus discharge of a cow in estrus is ____
clear
If vaginal mucus in a cow is bloody that means it is ____ to breed. The blood is from the ____ capillaries after rapid decline in ____
too late, blood is from the caruncular capillaries after rapid decrease in estrogens
metestrus occurs after ___ and last ___ days in cattle.
occurs after estrus and lasts two days
Diestrus last ____ days and represents the period of a functional ____ producing ___
lasts 16 days; corpus luteum producing progesterone
PGF2alpha is made by the ___ and released into the ___
endometrium and released into the uterine vein
The optimal breeding time in cattle is ____
6-24hrs after onset of standing estrus
Estrous synchronization with progesterone therapy involves giving progesterone for _____
10-14 days
The prostaglandin technique for estrous synchronization involves
administration of two doses of prostagland two weeks apart, only giving the second injection to cows that did not go into heat
The Ovsnch estrous synchronization program involves administration of ___ follow by ____ 7 days later and then ___ again
GnRH, then prostaglandin 7 days later, then GnRH two days later, then AI 24 hours after
Dairy cows have ____ days of anestrus after calving and beef cattle have ___ days
dairy - 24 days, beef 60 days
What can be used to prevent coccidiosis when pen raised calves are moved to group pens?
Lasalocid, monensin, amprolium, decoquinate, diclazurial and toltrazuril
Which neurologic disease causes cranial nerve deficits AND CNS signs, and usually only affects one individual?
Listeriosis
Freemartin refers to the ____ who is ___ and genetically ___
female, sterile, genetically chimeric
What disease causes nasal plaques and abortions?
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Which toxin causes cardiotoxicity and death in young calves but reproductive dysfunction in older cattle?
gossypol
The main lesion associated with polioencephalomalacia in cattle is
necrosis of cortical gray matter
Both grain overload and type 2 and 3 vagal indigestion cause a large fluid filled rumen but only ____ is associated with a very sick cow with scleral injection and rapid heart rate
grain overload
In copper deficiency which enzyme is affected?
tryosinase (converts L tyrosine to melanin)
pink eye is caused by ___ which is transmitted by ___
moraxella bovis is transmitted by flies (stomoxys, lyperosia, musca)
___ is approved for M bovis treatment
tulathromycin
Campylobacter jejuni is associated with _____
guillan-barre syndrome in humans
How many rumen contractions per minute is normal?
1-2 per minute
bilateral fremitus of the uterine arteries occurs after ____ months of gestation
6 months
A monotone “boink” on the right side extending to the hip is the
rumen
A nutmeg liver can be cause by:
pericardial effusion and passive congestion
Post coital pyometra is most often caused by:
tritrichomonas foetus
To treat calf metabolic acidosis (cold, unresponsive, dehydrated calf) you should give:
10% of body weight as IV fluid containing glucose, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride and lesser amounts of potassium
The screwworm or ___ feedings on fresh wounds on the cow
Cochliomyia homnivorax
How do you treat infectious footrot?
one does of florfenicol SQ
Mycoplasma bovis typically affects ______ cows because it is spread by ____. It can cause what clinical signs in what age cows?
affects multiple young calves because it is spread by milk. In young calves it can cause peripheral vesitbular, central vestibular and facial nerve paralysis. In older calves it can cause arthritis and tenosynovitis. Mastitis and abortion can also be caused in older animals.
Woody tongue can be treated with
IV sodium iodide
This bacteria can cause both footrot and necrotic laryngitis (calf diptheria)
fusobacterium necrophorum
Name possible causes of interdigital infection in cows
BVD, FMD, interdigital necrobacillosis, malignant catarrhal fever
In a BVD free herd how should you testing incoming animals to screen for BVD?
IHC on a skin biopsy
The treatment for infectious footrot on a feedlot is
one dose of florfenicol SQ
What are four treatments for post-partum ketosis?
propylene glycol, glucose IV, insulin SQ and corticosteroids
How do you treat a calf with failure of passive transfer at 3 days old?
20-40ml/kg bovine plasma
What is the main mode of transmission of mastitis causing organisms in cows?
milker’s hands and milking equiptment
Which gram positive bacteria is an obligate pathogen of the mammary gland of cows?
Streptococcus aggalactiae
papple shape and no rumen motility is caused by:
vagal indigestion
How do you treat a luteal cyst?
PGF2alpha IM
How do you treat follicular cyst and anestrus?
GnRH then Prostaglandin two weeks later
