Equine Flashcards
1
Q
You have diagnosed a horse with African Horse Sickness with _[test]__. Your next step is _____.
A
Diagnose with rt-PCR; report the disease.
African horse sickness (AHS) is a reportable, noncontagious, nonzoonotic, arthropod-borne viral disease of equids that is endemic to sub-Saharan Africa. AHS is a life-threatening hemorrhagic disease characterized by respiratory and circulatory impairment. It is transmitted by midges (Culicoides spp). Diagnosis is by real-time PCR assay. Control is centered around vaccination.
Clinical signs typically develop 5-7 days after infection and begin with fever and conjunctivitis. Some may recover, but many go on to develop the pulmonary and/or cardiac forms of AHS. The pulmonary form consists of acute respiratory distress, coughing, sweating, and foaming from the nostrils; this form is usually fatal. The cardiac form consists of edema of the head and neck as well as abdominal pain and depression. A characteristic sign is swelling in the indentation above the eyes (also referred to as swelling of the supraorbital fossa). About 50% of animals with the cardiac from die fo heart failure while the rest gradually recover after about one week.
2
Q
African Horse Sickness is a [bacteria/virus/fungi/protozoa/helminth] transmitted by _____ and causes primarily ____ signs along with a characteristic ______ edema.
A
African Horse Sickness is a virus transmitted by midges (culicoides) and causes primarily pulmonary signs along with a characteristic supraorbital edema.
3
Q
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
A
Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis (formerly Ehrlichi equi)- clinical signs: fever, lethargy, tachycardia and limb edema. Microscopic observation of a morula within the neutrophil. Diagnosis can be supported via PCR assay. Spread via tick bites. Treat with oxytetracyline.
4
Q
Anaplasma phagocytophilum is a gram-______ bacteria transmitted by ______ and characterized by ________ in horses.
A
Anaplasma phagocytophilum is a gram-negative bacteria transmitted by Ixodes spp ticks, it is characterized by fever, lethargy, tachycardia and limb edema in horses.
5
Q
Name this intracellular pathogen (wright’s stain)
A
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
6
Q
Anhidrosis means _____ and can be fatal if not addressed. The most successful treatment is _____
A
Anhidrosis means the inability to sweat, which can be fatal if not addressed. The cause is unknown. It tends to occur in hot humid climates and may occur in horses raised in the climate or, more commonly, horses brought into the climate. The most successful treatment is to move the horse back to a more favorable climate.
7
Q
Anoplocephala are__[bacteria/virus/fungi/protozoa/prion/helminth]__in the horse. Anoplocepha magna is usually found in the _____ whereas A perfoliata is usually in the _____. Both are treated with _____. The intermediate host of Anoplocephala spp is _____.
A
Anoplocephala are tapeworms of horse; magnus usually found in the small intestine; perfoliata in the ileocecal junction.
Treat with pyrantel salts
involves free-living oribatid mites as intermediate hosts
8
Q
The auriculppalpebral nerve block disrupts ___ to ____ muscle; this is because the auriculopalpebral nerve is part of cranial nerve ____ which is ____ only. This block allows for ____ during ocular exam of an already painful eye.
A
The auriculopalpebral block disrupts motor to the orbiculoris oculi muscle; this is because the auriculopalpebral nerve is part of CN VII which is motor only (facial nerve). This allows for eyelid akinesis during ocular exam of an already painful eye.
9
Q
Bog spavin refers to _____ of the _____ joint(s) whereas bone spavin refers to ______, typically at the ______ joint(s).
A
Bog spavin is edema of the tarsocrural (tibiotarsal) joint whereas bone spavin is osteoarthritis of the lower tarsal joints, usually the
tarsometatarsal and the distal intertarsal joints.
10
Q
This clinical sign is referred to as
A
bog spavin
11
Q
If a flexion test of the hock worsens lameness but blocking the distal tarsal joint improves lameness, this is suggestive of _____
A
bone spavin
12
Q
The causative agent of lyme disease is ______, which is a gram-_____ __[shape]____ transmitted by _________. It can be treated with _______
A
Borrelia burgdorferi; gram negative spirochete; transmitted by Ixodes scapularis (blacklegged tick)
oxytetracycline of doxycycline
13
Q
Low-grade fever, stiffness and lameness in more than one limb, muscle tenderness, hyperesthesia, swollen joints, lethargy and behavioral changes are all clinical signs of ______
A
Lyme disease
14
Q
Burkholderia mallei
A
Glanders - can be identified on smears make from fresh lesions as mainly extracellular straight gram-negative rods with rounded ends. Diagnostic tests: PCR, ELISA, and western blot but mostly need to know that are used in international trade are complement fixation (CF) serology and the mallein test. Mallein test is considered the most reliable, sensitive and specific. It involves injection of mallein purifies protein derivative intradermally into the lower eyelid. The test is read 24 to 48 hours and a positive reaction is characterized by edematous swelling or purulent discharge. Horse should not be treated; local authorities should be notified if a case is suspected and if disease is confirmed, horses must be humanely destroyed and affected carcasses should be burned and buried. Endemic in regions of the Middle East, Africa, and South America. Affects donkeys, mules, and small ruminants. Horses can become chronic or occult carriers and shed this deadly and potentially zoonotic pathogen.
15
Q
Pyramidal disease in the horse refers to _____ of the pyramidal process, usually preceded, but sometimes followed by ______ of the process. It is characterized by the thickening of the _____ and _____-like protrusion of the distal hoof wall. Treatment involves _____ removal of small fragments.
A
Pyramidal disease refers to periostitis and ostitis in the region of the pyramidal process of the coffin bone, usually preceded, but sometimes followed, by fracture of the process. It is characterized by thickening of the coronary band and buttress-like protrusion of the distal hoof wall. via arthroscopy or arthrotomy; arthroscopic removal of small fragments carries a good prognosis.
16
Q
C. pseudotuberculosis test
A
internal abscesses, hemagglutination inhibition test
17
Q
Cerebellar Abiotrophy (age, breeds, clinical signs)
A
usually observed in foals which are less than one year of age, particularly 1-6 months of age. It is mostly seen in Arabian, Oldenburg, and Gotland breeds. There is no treatment and signs may be progressive. Diagnosis is based on a good history and clinical signs such as intention tremors, lack of a menace, hypermetria, and ataxia.
18
Q
Cervical vertebral malformations (Wobbler Syndrome) occurs primarily in horses of what age?
A
Seen primarily in horses under a year of age
19
Q
Chorioptes equi is a ____ that is usually found around the ____. It can be diagnosed with _____. The lesions are ______. The treatment of choice is _____.
A
mange mite that is usually found around the foot and fetlock. Diagnosed with skin scraping. It causes pruritic dermatitis that can cause the formation fo papules, crusts, thickened skin, as well as alopecia. The mites are often found in feathered hair around the fetlock of draft horse. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
20
Q
Chronic hepatitis histopathology
A
hepatocyte, damage, variable fibrosis, inflammatory infiltration, and evidence of biliary hyperplasia with bile stasis
21
Q
Chronic seborrheic dermatitis aka ____ is thought to occur due to ____
A
“scratches” due to wet environment
22
Q
Club foot
A
Condition seen in horses secondary to contracture of the distal interphalangeal joint leading to steep hoof wall and shortened toe.
23
Q
Coggin’s test is used to detect ______
A
Coggins’ is the common name for an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) which is a blood test used to screen horses, donkeys and mules for the potentially fatal viral disease Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA).
effective in diagnosing infection in chronic asymptomatic carriers
24
Q
Which equine IM vaccine can cause a reaction? Is there an alternative?
A
Strangles vaccine is associated with a soft tissue reaction, there is now an intra-nasal vaccine available with local protection
25
The primary "immune organs" of the horse are the ___ and ___
lungs and colon
26
Commonly injured when horse flips over backwards
Ruptured longus capitis
27
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes what disease in horses?
"Pigeon fever" Causes ulcerative lymphangitis and abscesses in the pectoral region of horses. Treatment is aimed at hot packing the swellings and draining the abscesses. Antibiotic can be administered but have been known to prolong the disease by delay abscess formation.
28
Culicoides hypersensitivity aka ____ occurs during the ____ months. This is an allergy to _____. Pruritic lesions develop on the ________.
"sweet itch" Diffuse lesions, recurs seasonally in the warmer months and tends to worsen with age. Occurs due to an allergy to the saliva of the gnat. Pruritic and develop lesions on the poll, mane, and tail from self-trauma, ventral midline dermatitis can occur as well. Decrease exposure to gnats and treat with steroids.
29
Cutaneous glanders
Also known as Farcy. The cutaneous form develops over several months, beginning with cough and dyspnea as well. Eventually nodules develop in subcutaneous tissue along the course of the lymphatics of the legs, costal areas, and ventrum. They can rupture and excrete infectious purulent exudate. Infected lymphatics may form thickened cord-like lesions that sometimes coalesce into a string of beads appearance know as "farcy pipes." Nodular lesions of other organs may also be found.
30
Dandy-Walker syndrome
Rare condition seen in Arabians and Thoroughbred foals which results in a midline defect of the cerebellum and cystic dilation of the four ventricle.
31
Degenerative myeloencephalopathy
Seen primarily in horses under a year of age, causes a symmetrical ataxia.
32
Dermatophilus congolensis most often causes ____ with ____ along the ____ of a horse. This bacteria is a __[gram stain]__, non-acid fast, facultative anaerobic actinomycete. It enters skin that is weakened by _____. Sometimes the infection is called "____"
Dermatophilus congolensis most often causes crusts with purulent exudate under them on the dorsum of a horse. This bacteria is a gram positive, non-acid fast, facultative anaerobic actinomycete. The bacteria enters the skin when it is weakened by moisture and mechanical irritation. Horses with long, wet haircoats are often affected. Lesions are commonly on the dorsum and pasterns of horses and are classically described as "paintbrush" lesions. Can be diagnosed with a direct smear preparation. Treatment includes keeping the haircoat clean and dry and penicillins if the lesions are severe. Lesions typically heal rapidly.
Infection with this bacteria is also called "mud fever"
33
Dermatphytosis
Crusting dermal lesions
KOH test
34
DIC coagulation parameters
Prolongation of the prothrombin time (PT) and the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) reflect the underlying consumption and impaired synthesis of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level has initially thought to be useful in the diagnosis of DIC but because it is an acute phase reactant, it will be elevated due to the underlying inflammatory condition. Therefore, a normal (or even elevated) level can occur in over 57% of cases. A low level, however, is more consistent with the consumptive process of DIC.
A rapidly declining platelet count
High levels of fibrin degradation products, including D-dimer, are found owing to the intense fibrinolytic activity stimulated by the presence of fibrin in the circulation.
The peripheral blood smear may show fragmented red blood cells (known as schistocytes) due to shear stress from thrombi. However, this finding is neither sensitive nor specific for DIC
35
Dictyocaulus arnfeldi
Lungworm; donkey definitive host - Baerman test
36
Dourine
"covering sickness" trypanosomal (protozoa) venereal disease
notifiable, causes paralysis
Can only treat symptoms, no cure and no vaccination
50% mortality
37
Draschia megastoma
migrating parasite that can cause focal granulomas in the lung
38
Dry matter protein intake requirement
12%
39
Eastern Equine Encephalomylitis (EEE)
Arbovirus with zoonotic potential - "sleeping sickness"
transmitted by mosquitos
mortality can be as high at 90%
40
Ehrlichi equi
neutrophil, Equine Granulocytic Ehrilichiosis, lethargy, anorexia, fever, limb edema and hematology changes such as neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.
41
Neorickettsia (formerly Ehrlichia) risticii is the causative agent of _______. This disease can cause both ____ and ____ in the summer months. Although a trematode vector is suspected, the exact pathogenesis is still being studied. Treatment involves _____
Neorickettsia (formerly Ehrlichia) risticii is the causative agent of Potomac horse fever. This disease can cause both diarrhea and laminitis in the summer months. Diagnosis requires measurement of paired serum titer via immuno-flourescent antibodies or detection of the organism via PCR in the blood or feces. Treatment is oxytetracycline.
42
Enterolith in California
Magnesium ammonium phosphate due to alfalfa in California
43
EPM treatment
Ponazuril, Nitazoxanide, folate inhibitors (Sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine)
44
Equine Adenovirus
Normally found in the upper respiratory tract of the horse, but can cause a lower respiratory tract infection in immunocompromised individuals, particularly foals with those town conditions, leading to an often fatal pneumonia.
45
Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy
Associated with a deficiency in Vitamin E. CLincial signs are usually in the form of a wide-based stance, conscious proprioceptive deficits, ataxia, paresis, and spasticity, which is worse in the hindlimbs.
46
Equine Eosinophilic Granuloma
The lesions are nodular, nonulcerative, and nonpruritic. They often are found in the saddle, central truncal, and lateral cervical areas and may have a gray-white central core. Older lesions may become mineralized. Both insect bites and trauma have been suggested as causes, although the occasional onset during winter in cold climates and in noncontact saddle or tack areas suggests multifactorial causes
47
Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis
tick-borne
infectious, noncontagious, seasonal disease
rickettsial agent Anaplasma phagocytophilum
Signs may be mild. Horses \<1 yr old may have a fever only; horses 1–3 yr old develop fever, depression, mild limb edema, and ataxia. Adults exhibit the characteristic signs of fever, partial anorexia, depression, reluctance to move, limb edema, petechiation, and icterus
Demonstration of the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in a standard blood smear is diagnostic
Treat with Oxytetracycline
48
This disease is characterized by hindlimb ataxia (ie dog sitting), hypotonia of the tail/anus and urinary incontinence, and can affect multiple animals on the same farm. A CSF sample would show xanthochromic CSF with high protein and normal cell count.
Equine Herpes Myeloencephalopathy . Xanthochromic
Virus isolation can be attempted on buffy coat samples, nasal swabs, and/or CSF in an attempt to identify the virus.
*xanthochromic = the yellow discoloration of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) caused by hemoglobin catabolism
49
Equine Herpes Virus 3
Causes papules, pustules, and ulcers to the vestibular mucosa, vulvar skin, and the penis and prepuce (balanoposthitis). Less frequently, it can involve the skin of the face. There are no systemic signs or consequences of the infection, although secondary bacterial infections are possible. Spontaneous recovery usually occurs over about 2 weeks, and no treatment is usually required except sexual rest to prevent spread as balanoposthitis is venereally transmitted.
50
Equine Protozoal Myeloenchephalitis (or myelitis) (EPM) is caused by _____. This organism causes ____ areas of necrosis in the ____ and ____. Therefore clinical signs are often ___ and ___. The horse is usually bright and alert but demonstrates ____, weakness and muscle atrophy. Muscle atrophy often affects ____. It can affect ____ age horses.
Equine Protozoal Myeloenchephalitis (or myelitis) (EPM) is caused by Sarcocystis neurona. This organism causes multifocal areas of necrosis in the brain and spinal cord. Therefore clinical signs are often multifocal and asymmetric. The horse is usually bright and alert but demonstrates asymmetric ataxia, weakness and muscle atrophy. Muscle atrophy often affects the gluteal and quadriceps muscles. It can be seen as any age. Clinical signs include hyporeflexia, spasticity, localized areas of sweating, cerebellar signs, head tilt, facial paralysis, circling, dysphagia, and blindness. This will result in damage of both white and gray matter.
51
Equine Viral Arteritis
Venereal or aerosol - Nidovirales
Typical cases are characterized by fever, depression, anorexia, leukopenia, dependent edema (especially of the lower hind extremities, scrotum, and prepuce in the stallion), conjunctivitis, supra- or periorbital edema, nasal discharge, respiratory distress, skin rash, temporary subfertility in affected stallions, abortion, and infrequently, illness and death in young foals
Symptomatic treatment
52
Fistulous withers
inflammation of the supraspinous bursa. This bursa is variable in size and location but is usually found between the second and fifth thoracic vertebrae and can extend ventrolaterally to the margin of the scapular cartilage. The etiology is thought to be infectious. Clinical signs are pain, heat, and swelling in the region of the bursa. After days to weeks, the bursa can rupture resulting in draining of fluid. Brucella abortus has been identified in up to 80% of clinical cases by serology and culture. Treatment consists of flushing the fistula and appropriate antibiotics.
53
Fluid calculation
(deficit x BW) + maint (60 ml/kg/day)
54
Foal pneumonia can be caused by
Streptococcus zooepidemicus and Rhodococcus equi
55
Fracture of basilan bone in foal
Cranial nerves VII and VIII located on proximal boarder
56
Galvayne's groove
appears at 9 years of age
57
Gasterophilus intestinalis is the horse ____ fly which can cause ____-itis due to the the attachment of larvae in the ____. There will also be eggs in on the horse's ___ where the adults deposit them. Management consists of administering ____ twice per year, typically ____ and ___.
Gasterophilus intestinalis is the horse bot fly which can cause gastritis due to the the attachment of larvae in the stomach. There will also be eggs in on the horse's front legs where the adults deposit them. Management consists of administering avermectins twice per year, typically early summer and again in fall.
58
Glanders
caused bacteria Burkholderia mallei and causes 3 different forms of disease; nasal glanders, pulmonary glanders, and cutaneous glanders (also referred to as Farcy)
59
Glanders - test
Mallein test
60
Glomerulonephritis
Treatment options: plasma transfusion, low protein diet, corticosteroids
61
Gonadal dysgenesis
Chromosomal abnormality, the mare would not have been able to have had a normal pregnancy previously.
congenital developmental disorder of the reproductive system characterized by a progressive loss of germ cells on the developing gonads of an embryo.
62
Grain overload treatment
goals of treatment are to prevent further development of laminitis, reduce pain, and reduce other complications from laminitis. Acute laminitis is considered a medical emergency and treatment should be initiated as soon as possible. Administer mineral oil by stomach tube acts as a laxative and decreases absorption of toxic material from the GI tracts. IV fluids, parenteral antimicrobials, anti-inflammatory drugs, hyperimmune serum or plasma. Place horse in stall with soft flooring. Other options include heparin, phenoxybenzamine, and heart-bar shoeing. Some practitioners recommend cold packs, but there is conflicting evidence that hot packs may be more beneficial.
63
Granulosa cell tumor
Usually, 1 ovary is large and the other small; unless there are bilateral tumors, which is uncommon. Causes aggression in mares due to increases levels of testotsterone.
64
Guttural pouch empyema
infection and accumulation of purulent material within the guttural pouch, usually secondary to strangles
65
Guttural pouch mycosis
Aspergillus nidulans, Cranial nerves 7, 9, 10, 11, & 12 all cross the medial pouch as well as the sympathetic trunk and internal carotid artery. The external carotid artery crosses the lateral pouch.
66
Guttural pouch tympany
air - Guttural pouch tympany is seen in horses ranging from birth to 1 yr of age and is more common in fillies than in colts
The affected guttural pouch is distended with air and forms a characteristic nonpainful swelling in the parotid region
Tympany may result from inflammation or malformation of the pharyngeal orifice of the eustachian tube, which then acts as a one-way valve by allowing air to enter the pouch but preventing its return into the pharynx
67
Habronema muscae
internal stomach parasite
Treat with Ivermectin
68
Habronemiasis
Larvae of the stomach worm that emerge from flies feeding on pre-existing wounds or genitalia or eyes, then migrate into the tissue and cause a granulomatous reaction. Inside the granulomas, you can find dead larvae. Bigger problem in cattle but can occur in horses and typically creates nodules on the back that have a pore on top.
69
Haematobia irritansa
Bigger problem in cattle, but can affect horses especially if cattle are nearby. Ventral midline dermatitis with wheals with a central crust the progress to alopecia and ulceration with fairly focal lesions.
70
Hyperammonemia
Associated with intestinal disease in horses. Exact cause of neurologic signs and disease process is unknown, bit it is presumed to result from excessive ammonia production within the intestinal tract. This overwhelms the ability of the liver to metabolize ammonia, and subsequently causes the development of encephalopathic signs.
71
Lawsonians
in foals - equine proliferative enteropathy
L. intracellularis infections cause diarrhea, depression, fever, inappetance (anorexia), weight loss, edema (fluid swelling) on the abdomen or lower limbs, a poor hair coat, and intermittent colic due to thickening of mucosal lining in the small and large intestine. While any age of horse can be infected, weanling foals 4 to 7 months old are most susceptible
Fecal PCR to confirm
Treat with erythromycin or tetracyline
72
Length of estrous cycle
19-26 days
73
Length of estrus
2-10 days, but on average 6 days
74
Leukoencephalomalacia
fumonisin toxicity...
75
Limb contracture correction
Distal check desmotomy relieves the deep digital flexor contracture while proximal check desmotomy relieves superficial digital flexor contracture. I the contracture is severe, it may recur 2-4 months after surgery. As such time, a suspensory desmotomy is an option but subluxation at the proximal interphalangeal joint is a common consequence.
76
Mare Reproductive Loss Syndrome
caused by Eastern tent caterpillars
77
Maxillary sinusitis
generally due to tooth root abcess
78
Myotonia
inability to relax voluntary muscle after vigorous effort "dive bomber" sound on EMG -
The 'dive bomber' sound heard on EMG is produced by repetitive firing after contraction of affected muscle fibers and is essentially pathognomic for myotonia.
79
Nasal glanders
presents with high fever, loss of appetite and labored breathing with cough. VIscour mucopurulent discharge or crusting may present around the nares. There may be ulceration of the upper respiratory passages that resolve in the form of star-shaped cicatrices ("stellate scars"). Regional lymph nodes may be enlarged and indurated and may rupture or adhere to deeper tissues.
80
Neonatal Isoerythramlysis antigens
Aa & Qa
81
What lesions are see with Onchocerca (Onchocera cervicalis equine)
Cause non-seasonal, non-pruritic dermatitis and uveitis in horses due to hypersensitivity to dying microfilariae. Lesions include alopecia and scaling of the ventral midline, face and pectoral region, often diamond-shaped and may have a "bull's eye" lesion on the top of the head. Not pruritic. Ocular lesions can occur; uveitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis. Uveitis is caused by aberrant migration of the microfilariae; when they die, an inflammatory response is generated. Ivermectin is used to treat the larvae.
82
Oxyuris equi
pin worm, infest the perineal region and results in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.
83
Paranoplocephala mamillana
Tapeworm usually found in small intestine
Treat with Praziquantel
84
Parascaris equoum causes colic due to _____
causes intestinal impaction in foals (concern of perforation), can cause diarrhea, lethargy, depression, and respiratory signs (migrates through lungs). Diagnosis by demonstration of eggs in the feces.
85
Pemphigus foliaceus
autoimmune skin disease which results in vesicles, erosions and ulcerations, especially around mucocutaneous junctions.
Autoimmune disease in which antibodies are formed against the intercellular adhesin proteins. In horses, this disease causes crusting lesions of the head, limbs, and ventrum. Definitive diagnosis is found on biopsy of the skin showing acantholysis. There are two forms of the disease in horses. The juvenile form may result in spontaneous remission and carries a good prognosis. The adult form of the disease carriers a worse prognosis.
86
Peroneus tertius rupture
allows extension of the hock while the stifle is flexed, which means that as the limb moves forward, the hock joint does not flex. The horse will usually bear weight and pain is not a feature.
87
Persistent corpus luteum
Progesterone made by the corpus luteum prevents estrus. There will be follicles in the ovaries, and the horse may still ovulate but is non-receptive to stallions. The corpus luteum is usually not palpable.
88
Persistent superficial and deep digital flexor tendon contracture treatment
Distal check desmotomy and proximal check desmotomy. The distal check desmotomy relieves the deep digital flexor contracture while proximal check desmotomy relieves superficial digital flexor contracture. If the contracture is severe, it may recur 2-4 months after the surgery. At such time, a suspensory desmotomy is an option but subluxation at the proximal interphalangeal joint is a common consequence.
89
Pigment nephropathy
Occurs as a result of myositis (tying up). Nephrosis and subsequent renal failure is caused by large amounts of myoglobin being filtered by the kidney. This usually occurs in horses that have been subjected to extreme conditions such that the animal breaks down a substantial amount of muscle. The same condition can occur with intravascular hemolysis.
90
Potomac Horse Fever
Gram-negative bacterium Neorickettsii risticii. Disease usually occurs in the summer. High fever, diarrhea, and presence of laminitis. Dehydration and profound leukopenia. Treat with oxytetracycline. Diagnose with PCR (takes several days - treat empirically until results come through)
91
Pregnancy check at 30 days
Palpate for chorionic vesicle
92
Psoroptes
Clinical signs: pruritus of the ear, head shaking. Diagnosis from skin scrape and otoscopic exam. Psoroptic mange is a reportable disease.
93
Pulmonary glanders
The pulmonary form often develops over several months, beginning as a fever with dyspnea and cough. Lung lesions commence as light colored nodules surrounded by hemorrhage or as diffuse pneumonia. The nodules may become caseous or calcified and discharge contents to the upper respiratory tract. Nodules may also be found in other organs.
94
Purpura hemorrhagica
complications of strangles, occurs weeks after infection or can occur after a bacterin is given. Exact reason why some horses develop purpura is unknown.
caused by bleeding from capillaries which results in red spots on the skin and mucous membranes together with oedema (swelling) of the limbs and the head.[1] Purpura hemorrhagica is more common in younger animals
95
The liver histopathologic changes associated with Pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity are:
megalocytosis, periportal fibrosis, and biliary hyperplasia
96
Senecio sp, Crotolaria sp and Heliotropium sp contain _____. When a horse ingests this compoud, it is metabolized to ____ in the liver which _____ and cause a _____ effect. Since hepatocytes cannot ____ due to the toxin, ____ form and subsequently _____. Clinical signs include weight loss, icterus and photosensitization.
Senecio sp, Crotolaria sp and Heliotropium sp contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids. When a horse ingests this compoud, it is metabolized to pyrroles in the liver which cross link DNA and cause an anti-mitotic effect. Since hepatocytes cannot divide due to the toxin, megalocytes form and subsequently die and are replaced by fibrosis. Clinical signs include weight loss, icterus and photosensitization
97
Quittor refers to an infection of the ____ associated with the bone _____
An infection of the alar cartilage of P3
98
Retained placenta
\>3 hours
99
Rift Valley Fever
viral disease primarily of ruminants causing influenza-like signs and hepatic lesions
100
Rodoccocus equi is the most common cause of pnuemonia in foals ____. The characterized lesion is ____ noted on ____. The clinical presentation is typically ____ and characterized by _____. The treatment is ____ plus ____. Complications include _____. Prevention invovles _____.
Rhodococcus equi (gram-positive) is the most common cause of pnuemonia in foals from 1-6 months of age. The characteristic lesion is pulmonary abscess formation that may be noticed on thoracic ultrasound. On U/S you should notice the capsular structure with an anechoic center which represents a fluid-filled abscess. The presentation is typically a slow insidious onset characterized by some or all the following signs: weight loss, fever, cough, nasal discharge, increased respiratory effort, and ill-thrift. The treatmetn is a macrolide (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin - gram positive ribosomal protein synthesis inhibitor) and rifampin. Possible complications include internal abscesscation, osteomyelitis and septic arthritis. Prevention involves limiting exposure to dusty environments and administration of hyperimmunized plasma.
101
Rupture of Achilles tendon in horse
Gastrocnemius + superficial flexor tendon rupture
just gastrocnemius would drop the hock and curl the toe, both drop the hock.
102
Salmonella in horses causes ____ and is treated via ____
causes diarrhea and leukopenia, occurs at any time of the year. Several clinical presentations including subclinical infection, self-limiting diarrhea, and acute diarrhea. Diagnosis requires serial cultures of feces 3-5 days.
Supportive care with fluids and electrolytes replacement
103
Sarcocystis neurona
cause of equine protozoal myelitis
104
Shock organs
Lungs and colon
105
Stages of parturition
1: typically last 30 min to 4 hours, mare is restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic. When the placenta ruptures there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. 2: usually 5 min after water breaks (rupture of chorioallantois), the foals feet and nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. 3: within 30 min to 3 hours, after foaling the placenta should be expelled
106
Strangles Vaccine
IM injection associated with soft tissue reaction. More recently, an intranasal vaccine has become available, which is associated with local protection without any injection reaction
107
Streptococcus spp.
Common cause of pneumonia in both foals and in adult horses; however, polymicrobial infections are also common.
108
What parasite is shown and how is it treated?
Strongyloides westeri egg is shown, it is transmitted to foals through mare's milk, treat the post-partum mare with ivermectin. Associated with diarrhea in foals but not adults. Diagnosis by demonstration of eggs in the feces
cause of foal heat diarrhea and can migrate through the lung causing damage
109
Strongylus edentatus
The L3 larvae migrate through portal vein to liver, through the peritoneum and retroperitoneal space. After a few months, the larvae will then return into the lumen of the gut.
110
Strongylus equinus
The L3 larvae migrate through portal vein to liver, through the peritoneum and retroperitoneal space. After a few months, the larvae will then return into the lumen of the gut.
111
Strongylus vulgaris causes ______ which refers to _____. This condition affects horses of ____ age.
Strongylus vulgaris causes "verminous arteritis" aka thromboembolic colic which refers to migration of the larvae to the cranial mesenteric artery. This migration and the corresponding immune response can result in thrombosis of the cranial or anterior mesenteric arteries leading to colic and infarction of the bowel. This condition affects horses of any age.
112
Surra
trypanosomal disease causing primarily fever, weakness, and lethargy.
Surra is usually transmitted by other biting flies that are found within and outside tsetse fly areas.
113
Suspensory ligament desmitis and common fractures
Fracture of proximal sesamoid bones, avulsion fractures of palmar aspect of the third metacarpal bone, or fracture of distal third of the small metacarpal bones in the horse
114
Tayberella equingenitalis
contagious equine metritis - thought to be eradicated in the U.S.
115
Test for failure of passive transfer
ELISA snap test?, Zinc sulfate turbidity
116
Tetanus onset duration
10-14 days post a puncture wound you expect to see clinical sings
117
Theiler's disease aka ____ causes _____ in horses. Although the exact cause is unknown it is most commonly associated with the equine origin compound _____. The disease usually occurs _____ weeks after administration and presents as malaise and weight loss progressive to acute _______.
Theiler's disease aka acute serum hepatitis causes acute necrotizing hepatitis in horses. Although the exact cause is unknown, it is most commonly in association with introduction of an equine origin compound. The most commonly implicated product is tetanus antitoxin, which is an antiserum of equine origin. The disease usually occurs 4-10 weeks after administration and presents as malaise and weight loss, progressing to acute hepatoencephalopathy and icterus, and can be rapidly progressive and fatal.
118
Thelazia lacrymalis
causes conjunctivitis, most common vector is Musca autumnalis. This is the face fly of horses and mechanically transmits larvae from the eyes of one horse to another.
119
Thiamine deficiency
Usually occurs in horses from ingestion of thiaminase-containing plants (bracken fern) and results in loss of condition and slight uncoordinated movement. If not treated, the disease may progress to cause twitching, tremors and seizures.
120
Thrichostangylus axei
Chronic gastritis
small stomach worm (hairworm)
Treat with ivermectin
121
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
dextrose, amino acids, lipids - building blocks for carbohydrates, proteins, and fat
122
Trichophyton equinum
ringworm - usually around neck and shoulders
123
Tyzzer's Disease is caused by _____ and affects horses of ____ age. Clinical signs include depression, anorexia, coma, convulsions and jaundice. Affected horses may have hyper-____, hypo-____ and elevated ____. The onset of clinical sign is ____ and ____ can follow. The prognosis is ______. Histopath findings of the liver include _____
Tyzzzer's disease is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Clostridium piliforme, formerly known as Bacillus piliformis. It affects horses between 6 days to 6 weeks old. Clinical signs include depression, anorexia, coma, convulsions and jaundice. Affected horses may have hyperfibrinogenemia, hypoglycemia and elevated liver enzymes. The onset of clincal signs is sudden and coma or death can occur within two days. (It often affects apparently healthy, fast-growing foals without previously observed clinical signs.)
It is almost 100% fatal.
Diagnosis: serology and blood PCR
Histopath findings: randomly distributed foci of necrosis and long slender rods in hepatocytes at the periphery of the necrotic foci
A few presumptive cases of Tyzzer disease in foals have been treated successfully by intensive administration of IV dextrose, sodium bicarbonate, potassium chloride, penicillin, and sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
124
Uterine artery hemorrhage treatment
Aminocaproic acid; believed to facilitate clot stabilization by blocking the activation of plasminogen to plasma.
125
Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis (VEE)
arbovirus - can be zoonotic
mortality as high as 75%
126
Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE)
Arbovirus with zoonotic potential
progression of central nervous system signs over several days and characteristic CSF changes. Mortality 50%
127
Polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)
A storage disorder in which glycogen and polysaccharide build up in the skeletal muscle, leading to “tying up” or extertional rhabdomyolosis. This appears as exercise intolerance, weakness, muscle fasiculations and mild lameness (ie stiff hind-limb gait) with or without exercise. Type 1 PSSM (quarter horses) is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation of the glycogen synthase gene - DNA test available. Type 2 is also genetic but the exact locus is undetermined (Paint, Appaloosas, Warmbloods and draft horses) - dx with muscle biopsy. PSSM is treated with dietary and management changes: Dietary nonstructural carbohydrate (NSC) intake in affected horses should be limited to less than 12% of the diet to keep blood insulin levels low and reduce glycogen storage in muscle. Horses must exercise daily to maximize the muscles’ ability to burn glycogen.
128
Which arrhythmia is benign in a resting horse?
2nd degree AV block - caused by high vagal tone. Should resolve with exercise.
129
Name causes of strangulating intestinal obstructions (appearing as severe colic) in horses:
mesenteric rent, intussusceptions, hernias, epiploic foramen incarceration, volvulus and strangulating lipomas
130
Most types of anemia in the horse are characterized as ____-cytic, _____-chromic.
Normocytic, normochromic. In the horse it is very uncommon to see morphologic changes to red blood cells, even if there is a regenerative response.
131
trichostrongylus axei is also known as the _____worm of horses and it causes ______
small stomach worm or hairworm; causes chronic gastritis and weight looss
132
What is the normal daily water consumption rate for a horse?
50-70ml/kg/day
133
Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is caused by _____ and is characterized by _______ due to its multifocal nature
EPM is caused by sarcocystis neurona and is characterized by asymmetrical clinical signs (such as asymmetric ataxia, weakness or muscle atrophy) due to its multifocal nature. If the brainstem is affected one can see head tilt, facial paralysis and masseter atrophy. Asymmetry is the key distinguishing feature from cervical vertebral malformation.
134
Sarcocystic neuronia is the causative agent of _____. Its definitive host is the _____, while intermediate hosts include ____. The horse is a _____ host.
Sarcocystic neuronia is the causative agent of EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis). Its definitive host is the oppossum, while intermediate hosts include cats and raccoons. The horse is an abberant host that ingests sporocysts.
135
The three primary treatments for EPM are _____, and the prognosis is _____
1) Trimethoprim-sulfonamide and pyrimethamine (block folate metabolism in protozoa)
2) ponazuril (marquis) - an anti-protozoal drug
3) nitazoxinade (navigator) - inhibits electrons transfers rxns in protozoa
Prognosis: variable; some recovery fully and others have no improvement in deficits
136
Bone spavin can be managed with _____ but may ultimately require ______
Bone spavin can be managed with NSAIDs, corticosteroid or HA injections and corrective shoeing but may ultimately require arthrodesis.
137
Lateral digital extensor tenectomy is used to treat ______
Stringhalt
138
Transection of the insertion of the semitendinosus is used to treat _____
fibrotic myopathy
139
Which block most specifically alleviates pain associated with laminitis?
Abaxial sesamoid block
140
The palmar digital block desensitizes _____ whereas the abaxial sesamoid block desensitizes the _______
The palmar digital block desensitizes the palmar third of the palmar/plantar aspect of the foot whereas the abaxial sesamoid block desensitizes the entire foot
141
The low 4 point block desensitizes the ____
palmar aspect of leg distal to the distal end of the second and fourth metacarpals.
142
The high 4 point block desensitizes _____
the leg distal to the carpus or tarsus
143
This image depicts the _____ block which desensitizes ____
palmar nerve block; desensitizes 50-70% of the palmar/plantar aspect of the foot including most of the distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint and the entire sole.
144
What block is this?
Palmar digital
145
The needle is in the ____ joint
fetlock
146
The needle is in the _____ joint
pastern
147
The image shows the ____ block which desensitizes the _____ and can be used for _______
Abaxial sesamoid block; desensitizes skin over the palmar pastern and distal dorsal pastern along with the foot and
proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint are desensitized. Partial desensitization of the palmar fetlock (carpometacarpal/tarsometatarsal) may
also occur. Can be used for laminitis.
148
The image depicts the _____ block which desensitizes the _______
Low four-point block (palmar/plantar); desensitizes entire metacarpophalangeal (fetlock) joint and structures distal to this joint.
149
In horses immunized with ____, later administration of _____ is contraindicated because it can cause serum hepatitis
In horses immunized with tetanus toxoid, later administration of tetanus antitoxin can cause serum hepatitis
150
The liver specific enzymes in the horse are ___ and ____. The liver associated enzymes are ___ and ___
Liver specific: GGT (increased with biliary and periportal disease) and SDH (sorbitol dehydrogenase, hepatocellular enzyme)
Liver associated: ALP (Liver, bone, intestines) and AST (liver, muscle)
151
Theiler's disease in another name for _____, which is the most common cause of _____ in horses.
Theiler's disease = acute serum hepatitis, most common cause of acute hepatitis and liver failure.
152
Treatment of Theiler's disease invovles _____ and the prognosis is ___
Treatment of Theiler's disease invovles supportive care and control of hepatic encephalopathy and the prognosis is guarded to poor
153
Equine hepatic lipidosis typically affects ____, ____ and _____ (species). It occurs secondary to _____ such as during ____, _____ or _____. Because horses have a limited ability to produce ____, they can make excessive _____ instead. Therefore in hepatic lipidosis there is an elevation of _____ leading to fatty infiltration into the liver.
Equine hepatic lipidosis typically affects miniature horses, ponies and donkeys. It occurs secondary to negative energy balance such as during pregnancy, lactation or obesity. Because horses have a limited ability to produce ketones, they can make excessive triglycerides instead. There is an elevation of serum triglycerides (>500 mg/dL) leading to fatty infiltration into the liver.
154
Treatment of hepatic lipidosis in a pony, mini horse or donkey involves correcting the primary problem and _____
nutritional support! (force feeding via NG tube or PPN/TPN)
155
Sand enteropathies in horses are treated with _____
psyllium, a hemicellulose laxative
156
Horses that fall backward and hit the poll of their head may fracture the _____ and ______ bones
basisphenoid and basioccipital
157
approximately 80% of all equine ulcers occur on the ____ region of the stomach
squamous (non-glandular)
158
A horse with intense pruritis and alopecia in the perineal area likely has ____ and you can confirm it with a ___
oxyuris equi (pinworm); acetate tape prep
159
Older broodmares are at risk for _____ which is a severe form of colic requiring _____. On physical exam there is severe pain, tachycardia, NO gastric reflex and palpable diffuse gas distension of the _____ on rectal exam.
Large intestinal volvulus; requires surgical correction; gas in large intestine
160
Neonatal encephalopathy can arise from ____ conditions in utero or during parturition. Clinical signs include lethargy, failure to ____, ____ activity and in severe cases damage to the GI or kidneys from ____. Many foals are ____-capnic because the ____ center is not operating normally. An arterial blood gas will typically reveal _____ with _____.
Neonatal encephalopathy can arise from hypoxic conditions in utero or during parturition. Clinical signs include lethargy, failure to nurse, seizure activity and in severe cases damage to the GI or kidneys from hypoxia. Many foals are hypercapnic because the respiratory center is not operating normally. An arterial blood gas will typically reveal respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation.
161
Melanomas occur in up to ____% of gray horses. They typically occur on the ____ and ____. ___ is not involved in the development of equine melanomas, as opposed to in humans. Treatment involves surgery or ____.
Melanomas occur in up to 80% of gray horses. They typically occur on the perineum and tail base. UV light is not involved in the development of equine melanomas, as opposed to in humans.Treatment involves surgery or cryosurgery.
162
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia in a horse can be treated with corticosteroids except if the horse is suspected to have _____. This would be indicated by what tests?
Equine infectious anemia virus; positive coombs and coggin's test.
163
The most common testicular tumor in the horse is
seminoma
164
What virus will cause clinical signs in foals several months prior to an abortion storm in mares 7-11 months pregnant?
equine herpesvirus
165
Intermittent lameness of a forelimb with a buldge at the metacarpal is class for:
tendonitis or bowed tendon
166
sarcoptes scabei in horses should be treated with ____ and _____. Diagnosis is based on clinical signs because _____. The horse should also be ____.
sarcoptes scabei in horses should be treated with oral ivermectin and topical lime sulfur spray. Diagnosis is based on clinical signs because the organism lives deep in the skin and skin scrapings are unrewarding. The horse should also be quarantined.
167
Thrush aka ____ in horses is typically caused by ______ and presents as ____, _____ dermatitis of the central and lateral sulci of the frog with a _____ discharge and malodorus smell. Treatment involves ______. This disease usually occurs because of _____.
Thrush aka Scratches in horses is typically caused by fusobacterium necrophorum and presents as moist, exudative dermatitis of the central and lateral sulci of the frog with a thick black discharge and malodorus smell. Treatment involves trimming the necrotic hoof material, applying antiseptic products and covering with a bandage. This disease usually occurs because of unsanitary conditions, poor foot care and lack of exercise.
168
A horse with colic undergoes ultrasound and the left kidney cannot be visualized. This indicates ______ due to ____ blocking the kidney.
Nephrosplenic entrapment; the left dorsal displacement of the colon over the nephrosplenic ligament block the kidney
169
The ability to flex the stifle while extending the hock indicates rupture of the _____
peroneus tertius
170
The antibiotic ____ is contraindicated in foals because of potential ____
The antibiotic enrofloxacin is contraindicated in foals because of potential arthrotoxicity and subsequent erosion of cartilage
171
When a horse has uneven heels with proximal displacement of the coronary band on one side and flare of the hoof wall on the other side this is called ___, When the horse walks ____
Sheared heels; when the horse walks, one side of the heel receives most of the impact
172
The primary ultrasonographic finding when evaluating a tendon for tendonitis is
several anechoic regions indicating area of hemorrhage and loss of tendon fibers
173
In hyperkalemic periodic paralysis, there is a defect in the voltage-depedent ___ channels due to a ____ trait. The defect results in ____ of the myocyte and subsequent _____. The reason for hyperkalemia is ____.
voltage depending sodium channel defect; autosomal dominant trait. The defect results in depolarization of the myocyte and subsequent hyperexcitability. The reason for hyperkalemia is the movement of potassium out of the muscle cell as the myocyte repolarizes.
174
Infection of foals with strongyloides westeri can be preventing with _____ because ___. If not treated the worms may cause ____ in the foals because they live in the ____.
Prevent by treating post-partum mares with ivermectin because it is transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. If not treated the worms may cause diarrhea in the foals because they live in the small intestine.
175
Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis infection with internal abscesses is diagnosed via the ____ test. A CBC Chem may also show ___, ____ and ___.
Synergistic hemolysis inhibition test. CBC/Chem may show leukocytosis, hyperfibrinogenemia and hyperglobulinemia.
176
How long after a puncture wound with Clostridium tetani would you expect to see clinical signs?
2 weeks; it takes a while for the toxin to be produced in anaerobic conditions
177
What pathogen can cause pulmonary abscesses in a foal 2-6 months?
Rhodococcus equi
178
The most commonly used method to evaluate failure of passive transfer is the _____ which is semiquantitative. It tells you if there is adequate transfer ____ ng/dL, partial failure of transfer ___ng/dL or compelte failure ____ng/dL
ELISA snap. >800 adequate, 400-800 partial, <400 inadequate
179
Foal septicemia is defined as _____ and ____
bacteremia and SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome)
180
SIRS or the systemic inflammatory response syndrome is characterized by what five things?
Tachycardia, tachypnea, hypo or hyperthermia, leukocytosis or leukopenia, presence of bands
181
The most common microorganism isolated from foals with septicemia is ___
E Coli
182
A common antimicrobial regimen in equines is ____ and ____
beta lactam + aminoglycoside
183
Foal heat diarrhea is correlated with _____ or _____ days of age of the foal. Treatment is usually ____
Foal heat diarrhea is correlated with the mare's first estrus cycle or 7-12 days of age of the foal. Treatment is usually unecessary.
184
The most common bacterial causes of Foal diarrhea are:
Enterocuccus, Clostridial or salmonella
185
The most common viral cause of foal diarrhea is
rotavirus
186
Gastric ulcers in foals can cause ______. They are treated with
Cause diarrhea, pytalism, bruxism, weight loss. Treat with H2 blockers (ranitidine) or PPIs (omeprazole)
187
Lawsonia intracellularis affects ____ age foals. It causes ______ resulting in a ____. The most telling clinical signs are ____ and ___. Treatment involves an antibiotic with _____ penetration including _____.
Lawsonia intracellularis affects weanlings (4-6mo), it causes proliferative enteropathy resulting in PLE. The most telling clinical signs are peripheral/ventral edema and diarrhea. Treatment involves an antibiotic with intracellular penetration such as tetracycline, erythromycin or clarithromycin.
188
Congenital aganglionosis aka _____ means there are absent _____ in the ____. Clinically, foals with this condition are born ____ and then _____. This syndrome occurs in ___ breed.
Congenital aganglionosis aka Lethal White Foal syndrome means there are absent myeteric ganglia in the ileum and colon. Clinically, foals with this condition are born normal and then colic with 12-24 hours. Occurs in paint (overo) horses.
189
In white muscle disease ____ causes muscle degeneration. In the skeletal form clinical signs are _____. The cardiac form leads to ____.
In white muscle disease, deficiency of vitamin E and selenium leads to oxidative damage causing muscle degneration. In the skeletal form clinical signs including stiffness, recumbancy, respiratory difficult and dysphagia. The cardiac form leads to sudden onset respiratory distress and death.
190
Foal uroperitoneum is typically caused by ____, ____ or ____.
Ruptured bladder, ruptured urachus or tear in the ureter
191
A creatinine in adominal fluid that is two times higher than that of serum indicates ____
uroperitoneum
192
Treatment of uroperitoneum involves correction of electrolyte imbalances, which are typically _____.
uroperitoneum -> hyperkalemia (due to reabsorption from urine in the peritoneum), hyponatremia and hypochloremia.
193
A palmar digital nerve block alleviates hoof tester sensitivity on the posterior third of the foot. It also improves short strided lameness that was worse on hard surfaces. What condition is suspected?
Navicular disease
194
The _____ is the highest part of a horse's back, lying at the base of the neck above the shoulders.
withers
195
Fistulous withers refers to inflammation of the ____. The etiology is thought to be infectious and ___ is identified in 80% of cases. Clinical signs are pain, heat and swelling in the region of ___. Treatment is _____
Fistulous withers refers to inflammation of the supraspinous bursa near the 2nd-5th thoracic vertebrae. The etiology is thought to be infection and brucella abortis is identified in 80% of clinical cases. Clinical signs are pain, heat and swelling in the region of the bursa. Treatment is to drain and flush the fistula and tx with antibiotics.
196
_____ is the ossification of the lateral/collateral cartilages of the coffin bone. The prognosis is ____.
Side bone. Prognosis great, horses with sidebone are typically not lame.
197
_____ is osteoarthritis of the distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint
ringbone
198
____ is the inflammation of the interosseous ligament between the 3rd metacarpal or -tarsal and his friends.
Splints
199
Incomplete ossification of the ____ bones suggest that a foal was born prematurely
carpal bones
200
___ refers to periostitis of the distal dorsal cannon bone. Early treatment with _____ can be curative. Typically this condition presents as a ____ with a _____ gait, it is slowly progressive over ____.
Osselets: rest, phenylbutazone and intra-articular injections of sodium hyaluronate. Typically osselets presents as a bilaterally lameness with a short, choppy gait. It is slowly progressive over a weeks to months.
201
The gait associated with bone spavin is ____
short, low arc stride, landing toe first
202
The common name for laminitis is
founder
203
____ is characterized by a change in the character of the horn such that the inner surface is crumbly and there may be a cavity along the white line if there is a loss of substance.
Seedy toe
204
What is the treatment for bog spavin?
Typically no treatment is necessary. (bog spavin = distention of the tibiotarsal joints)
205
How do you treat a carpal hygroma in a horse?
Surgical exploration and drain placement
206
___ is a term for stifle arthritis
Gonitis
207
____ is a lay term for cunean bursitis
Jack spavin
208
___ is the term for effusion of the tarsal sheath (sheath of deep digital flexor)
thoroughpin
209
_____ is an α adrenergic antagonist used to promote vasodilation and restoration of blood flow to the digits in laminitis
phenoxybenzamine
210
___ hay is low in potassium
Timothy hay
211
Sesamoiditis is caused by _____
tearing of the ligamentous attachments to the sesamoids
212
______ cause acute lameness, heat and pain in the foot. Sometimes, there can be edema and swelling over the pastern and fetlock as well.
Subsolar abscess
213
In horses, mast cell tumors are ____
benign
214
Two mares are presented for crusting dermal dermal lesions on their dosum and pasterns. The lesions are "paintbrush" like and have purulent exudate. A direct smear shows branching, filamentous, gram positive bacteria. What is it?
Dermatophilosis; dermatophilus congolensis
215
How long is estrus in a mare?
2-10 days, but generally 6 days in spring through summer.
216
What is the duration of a Mare's estrous cycle?
19-26 days.
217
Strangulating lipomas affect horses that are ____ and _____. The initial treatment is _____ but ultimately ____ is necessary.
Strangulating lipomas affect horses that are older (>15y) and obese. The initial treatment is placement of an NG tube (usually will get a lot of nasogastric reflex) but ultimately surgical intervention is necessary.
218
____ causes of colic are likely to produce lots of gastric reflux through an NG tube whereas ____ causes are less likely to do this.
Small intestinal causes of colic are likely to produce lots of gastric reflux through an NG tube whereas large intestinal causes are less likely to do this.
219
Clostridial diarrhea in horses is typically treated with ____ and ____
supportive care and Metronidazole
220
The normal gestational length for a foal is ____ days.
340 days
221
Foals should nurse how often?
4-6 times per hour
222
Choke in a horse can be treated by ______
Sedating and placing and NG tube to move the bolus towards the stomach, or leaving the horse in a stall with no bedding, feed or water for 24hrs
223
_____ is the most common cause of colic in a newborn foal
Meconium impaction
224
Fiddleneck, groundsel, ragwort and senecios contain _____
pyrrolizidine alkaloids
225
Clostridium difficile is a ____-forming bacteria associated with enterocolitis and diarrhea in adult horses and foals. It is a gram-____, ___ shaped, obligate ____ that produces the virulence toxins ____. Transmission is via the ____ route; it can survive in the environment for long periods in the ____ form.
Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming bacteria associated with enterocolitis and diarrhea in adult horses and foals. It is a gram-positive, rod shaped, obligate anaerobe that produces the virulence toxins A and B. Transmission is via the oral-fecal route; the spores can survive for prolonged periods in the environment.
226
Right dorsal colitis is associated with what predisposing factor?
Administration of NSAIDs
227
Name the two Strongylus species that migrate through the portal vein and into the liver of a horse
Strongylus edentatus and Strongylus equinus
228
On which side do horse teeth need to be floated?
Maxilla buccal and mandible lingual
229
Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis also known as _____ or ______ has a characteristic NG tube reflux that is _____ along with ____ peritoneal fluid, fever and fluid filled intestinal loops on rectal. Typically the horse is depressed but less ____ than a horse with an acute obstruction. The cause is uncertain but may be related to C diff. Treatment is ____
Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis also known as anterior enteritis or proximal enteritis has a characteristic NG tube reflux that is hemorrhagic, orange-brown in color and foul-smelling along with serosanguinous peritoneal fluid, fever and fluid filled intestinal loops on rectal. Typically the horse is depressed but less painful than a horse with an acute obstruction. The cause is uncertain but may be related to C diff. Treatment is medical management with repeated stomach decrompression, IV fluids, replacement of electrolyte deficiencies, analgesics and correction of acid-base abnormalities.
230
What parasite is this egg found in a foal fecal? (~100um)
parascaris equorum
231
An adult horse's diet should contain ___% protein on a dry matter basis.
12%
232
___ hay predisposes horses to the formation of enteroliths
Alfalfa hay
233
Cantharidin toxicity aka _____ toxicity causes endotoxic shock and ____ failure
blister beetle toxicity, endotoxic shock and renal failure
234
Anabaena, aphanizomenon and microcystis are all blue-green algae that cause ____toxicity
hepatotoxicity
235
Verminous arteritis from ____ can be prevented with _____ treatment
Verminous arteritis from strongylus vulgaris can be prevented with ivermectin treatment
236
What is this and how do you prevent it?
Strongylus vulgaris; ivermectin
237
At what age does Galvayne's groove on I3 erupt in a horse?
9 years
238
What is the most common gastric neoplasia in the horse?
SCC
239
On rectal palpation if the colon is between the cecum and body wall, it is a ____ displacement
right dorsal
240
A pH greater than ___ is suggestive of small intestinal contents refluxing into the stomach
greater than 5
241
Liver specific enzymes in the horse are ____ and ____; liver associated enzymes are ____, _____ and ____
liver specifc: SDH and GGT
liver associated: ALP, ALT, AST
242
Although Gasterophilus lays its eggs on the horses front legs it does not cause ____, but when ingested it does cause ____
doesn't cause dermatitis on legs but causes gastritis if ingested
243
What is the dental formula of a horse?
2(I3/3 C1/1 P3-4/3 M3/3)
244
The auricolopapelbral block in horses block part of cranial nerve ____, therefore it blocks ____ to the ____
VII (facial nerve); motor to orbicularis oculi
245
You can block the orbicularis oculi in horses by blocking the _____ nerve
auriculopalpebral
246
Does the auricolopalpebral block provide desensitization?
No
247
The supraorbital/front nerve block disrupts part of cranial nerve ______, therefore it blocks _____ to ______
V (trigeminal); blocks sensation to the middle two thirds of upper eyelid and forehead skin along with blocking some motor to the levator palpebrae
248
___ are the cause of "summer sores" in horses. The adult worms live in the _____ but don't cause signs there.
Habronema cause summer sores (Granulomatour dermal lesions). Adults live in the stomach but don't cause signs there. Treat with ivermectin.
249
Onchercerca
associated with fistulous withers, poll evil, dermatitis, and uveitis in horses
250
What cells predominate on a BAL from a horse with recurrent airway obstruction?
neutrophils
251
What kind of tumor could cause infertility and atrophy of one ovary?
Granulosa-thecal cell tumor
252
_____ is characterized by destruction of a foal's red blood cells by alloantibodies of maternal origin, which are absorbed from ____. This syndrome occurs in foals less than ____. The implicated antigens are ___; the foal gets these antigens from ___. The mare develops antibodies to the antigens when ____. Clinical signs include ____. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a cross match of ___ to ___. Treatment depends on ____ . General the prognosis is ____.
Neonatal isoerythrolysis is characterized by destruction of a foal's red blood cells by alloantibodies of maternal origin, which are absorbed from colostrum. This syndrome occurs in foals less than a week old. The implicated antigens are Aa and Qa; these must be inherited from the sire. The mare develops antibodies to these antigens when she is exposed via blood transfusion, placental abnormalities or fetal blood exposure during parturition. Clinical signs include tachycardia, tachypnea, dyspnea, icterus. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a cross match of foal's RBCs to mom's serum. Treatment depends on whether the foal is <24hrs (remove colostrum) or >24hrs (transfuse if PCV below 12%). General the prognosis is good with proper treatment.
253
A horse with travel history to the middle east, asia, africa or south america that has respiratory signs and mucous containing gram-negative rods with rounded ends should be tested for ___ with a ____ test. Treatment for a positive horse is ____
Glanders (Burkholderia malei); mallein test (similar to a TB test / type 4 hypersensitivity). Positive horses must be euthanized.
254
Taylorella equigenitalis is the causative agent of ____ which is thought to be eradicated in the US
Contagious equine metritis
255
Most anemias in the horse will be _____, even if there is a strong regnerative response
normocytic and normochromic, even if there is a strong regenerative response
256
You should not give a stallion ____ due to the risk of paraphimosis
acepromazine - phenothiazine tranquilizers cause relaxation of smooth muscles
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What are the CHEM abnormalities for EPPID? What does EPPID stand for? How is it treated?
Equine pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction is the most common endocrine disease of geriatric horses. Clinical signs include hypertrichosis, muscle atrophy, a pendulous abdomen, PU/PD, lethargy and lameness. Normally the pars intermedia (part of the adenohypophysis, the anterior pituitary) is involved in ACTH function, in EPPID a lack of dopaminergic innervation to the pars intermedia leads to hyperplasia and overproduction of ACTH. Reported CBC/Chem abnormalities are hyperglycemia and lymphopenia, as well as anemia, neutrophilia, eosinopenia, hyperinsulinemia and hypertriglyceridemia. Diagnosis is by ACTH or alpha MSH concentration, DST, or TRH. Treatment is pergolide mesylate (D2 receptor agonist)
