FARR Classic/relevant Treatments

Question 1

Absence seizures

Answer 1

Ethosuximide

Question 2

Acute gout attack

Answer 2

NSAIDs, colchicine

Question 3

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

Answer 3

All-trans retinoic acid

Question 4

ADHD

Answer 4

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

Question 5

Alcohol abuse

Answer 5

AA + disulfiram for patient and Al-Anon for family

Question 6

Alcohol withdrawal

Answer 6

Benzodiazepines

Question 7

Anorexia

Answer 7

SSRis

Question 8

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

Answer 8

Heparin

Question 9

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

Answer 9

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

Question 10

B12 deficiency

Answer 10

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

Question 11

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Answer 11

Tamsulosin, finasteride

Question 12

Bipolar disorder

Answer 12

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood

stabilizers)

Question 13

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

Answer 13

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

Question 14

Buerger’s disease

Answer 14

Smoking cessation

Question 15

Bulimia

Answer 15

SSRis

Question 16

Candida albicans

Answer 16

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush, esophagitis)

Question 17

Carcinoid syndrome

Answer 17

Octreotide

Question 18

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 18

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

Question 19

Chronic gout

Answer 19

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer)

Question 20

Chronic hepatitis

Answer 20

IFN-a

Question 21

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Answer 21

lmatinib

Question 22

Clostridium botulinum

Answer 22

Antitoxin

Question 23

Clostridium difficile

Answer 23

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

Question 24

Clostridium tetani

Answer 24

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

Question 25

Crohn's disease

Answer 25

Corticosteroids, infliximab

Question 26

Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 26

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 27

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

Answer 27

Mesna

Question 28

Cystic fibrosis

Answer 28

N-acetylcysteine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/ azithromycin)

Question 29

Cytomegalovirus

Answer 29

Acyclovir

Question 30

Depression

Answer 30

SSRis (first-line)

Question 31

Diabetes insipidus

Answer 31

Desmopressin (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

Question 32

Diabetes mellitus type 1

Answer 32

Dietary intervention (low-sugar) + insulin replacement

Question 33

Diabetes mellitus type 2

Answer 33

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

Question 34

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer 34

Fluids, insulin, K+

Question 35

Enterococci

Answer 35

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 36

Erectile dysfunction

Answer 36

Sildenafil, vardenafil

Question 37

ER-positive breast cancer

Answer 37

Tamoxifen

Question 38

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

Answer 38

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

Question 39

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

Answer 39

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 40

Generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 40

Buspirone

Question 41

Heparin toxicity (acute)

Answer 41

Protamine sulfate

Question 42

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

Answer 42

Trastuzumab

Question 43

Hyperaldosteronism

Answer 43

Spironolactone

Question 44

Hypercholesterolemia

Answer 44

Statin (first-line)

Question 45

Hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 45

Fibrate

Question 46

Immediate anticoagulation

Answer 46

Heparin

Question 47

Infertility

Answer 47

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile

Question 48

Influenza

Answer 48

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

Question 49

Legionella pneumophila

Answer 49

Erythromycin

Question 50

Long-term anticoagulation

Answer 50

Warfarin

Question 51

Malaria

Answer 51

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

Question 52

Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 52

Dantrolene

Question 53

Medical abortion

Answer 53

Mifepristone

Question 54

Migraine

Answer 54

Sumatriptan

Question 55

MRSA

Answer 55

Vancomycin

Question 56

Multiple sclerosis

Answer 56

beta-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

Question 57

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 57

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

Question 58

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer 58

Ceftriaxone (add azythromycin to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

Question 59

Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 59

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 60

Neural tube defect prevention

Answer 60

Prenatal folic acid

Question 61

Osteomalacia/rickets

Answer 61

Vitamin D supplementation

Question 62

Osteoporosis

Answer 62

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Question 63

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 63

Indomethacin

Question 64

Pheochromocytoma

Answer 64

a-antagonists (e.g., phenoxybenzamine)

Question 65

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer 65

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patient

Question 66

Prolactinoma

Answer 66

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

Question 67

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

Answer 67

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

Question 68

Prostate carcinoma

Answer 68

Flutamide

Question 69

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 69

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 70

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

Answer 70

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

Question 71

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 71

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in context of aplastic anemia)

Question 72

Ringworm infections

Answer 72

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

Question 73

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

Answer 73

5-HTZA antagonists (e.g., second-generation antipsychotics)

Question 74

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

Answer 74

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., first- and second-generation | antipsychotics

Question 75

SIADH

Answer 75

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

Question 76

Sickle cell anemia

Answer 76

Hydroxyurea (t fetal hemoglobin)

Question 77

Sporothrix schenckii

Answer 77

Oral potassium chloride

Question 78

Stable angina

Answer 78

Sublingual nitroglycerin

Question 79

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 79

MSSA: amoxicillin, (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

Question 80

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 80

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), | vancomycin (meningitis)

Question 81

Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer 81

Penicillin prophylaxis

Question 82

Temporal arteritis

Answer 82

High-close steroids

Question 83

Tonic-clonic seizures

Answer 83

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

Question 84

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 84

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Question 85

Treponema pallidwn

Answer 85

Penicillin

Question 86

Trichomonas vagina/is

Answer 86

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

Question 87

Ulcerative colitis

Answer 87

5-ASA, infliximab

Question 88

UTI prophylaxis

Answer 88

TMP-SMX

Question 89

Warfarin toxicity

Answer 89

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

Question 90

Wegener's granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Answer 90

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids