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FA - Micro - Basic Bacteriology Flashcards

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0
Q

What is the chemical composition of peptidoglycan?

A

Sugar backbone with peptide side chains cross-linked by transpeptidase.

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1
Q

What is the function of the peptidoglycan?

A

Gives rigid support - Protects against osmotic pressure.

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2
Q

What is the function of cell wall/cell membrane?

A

Major surface antigen.

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3
Q

What is the chemical composition of the cell wall/cell membrane?

A

Peptidoglycan for support. Lipoteichoic acid includes TNF and IL-1.

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4
Q

What is the function of the outer membrane (gram neg.)?

A

Site of endotoxin - LPS - Major surface antigen.

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5
Q

What is the chemical composition of the outer membrane (gram neg.)?

A
  1. Outer leaflet = Contains LPS/LOS.
  2. Embedded proteins = Porins + Outer membrane proteins (OMPs).
  3. Inner leaflet = Phospholipids.
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6
Q

What is the function of the plasma membrane?

A

Site of oxidative and transport enzymes.

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7
Q

What is the chemical composition of the ribosome?

A

30+50S subunits.

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8
Q

What is the function of the periplasm?

A

Accumulates components exiting Gram(-), including HYDROLYTIC ENZYMES (eg beta-lactamases).

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9
Q

What is the chemical composition of periplasm?

A

Space between cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in Gram(-) = Peptidoglycan in the middle.

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10
Q

What is the function of the capsule?

A

Protects against phagocytosis.

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11
Q

What is the chemical composition of the capsule?

A

Polysaccharide - EXCEPT Bacillus anthracis –> D-glutamate.

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12
Q

What is the function of the pilus/fimbria?

A

Mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface - sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation.

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13
Q

What is the chemical composition of pilus/fimbria?

A

Glycoprotein.

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14
Q

What is the function of the flagellum?

A

Motility

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15
Q

What is the chemical composition of the flagellum?

A

Protein.

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16
Q

What is the chemical composition of a spore?

A

Keratin-like coat - Dipicolinic acid - Peptidoglycan.

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17
Q

What is the function of the glycocalyx?

A

Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (e.g., indwelling catheters).

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18
Q

What is the chemical composition of the glycocalyx?

A

LOOSE NETWORK of POLYSACCHARIDE.

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19
Q

Mention the gram(+) cocci.

A

Staph + Strep

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20
Q

Mention the gram(-) coccus.

A

Neisseria + Moraxella.

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21
Q

Mention the gram(+) rods.

A
  1. Bacillus.
  2. Clostridium.
  3. Corynebacterium.
  4. Gardnerella (gram variable).
  5. Lactobacillus.
  6. Listeria.
  7. Mycobacteria (acid fast).
  8. Propionibacterium.
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22
Q

Mention the gram(-) enterics.

A
  1. E.coli
  2. Shigella
  3. Salmonella
  4. Yersinia
  5. Klebsiella
  6. Proteus
  7. Enterobacter
  8. Serratia
  9. Vibrio
  10. Campylobacter
  11. Helicobacter
  12. Pseudomonas
  13. Bacteroides
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23
Q

Mention the gram(-) respiratory bacteria.

A
  1. Haemophilus (pleiomorphic)
  2. Legionella (silver)
  3. Bordetella
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24
Q

Mention the gram(-) zoonotic bacteria.

A
  1. Francisella
  2. Brucella
  3. Pasteurella
  4. Bartonella
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25
Q

Mention the 2 branching filamentous bacteria.

A
  1. Actinomyces

2. Nocardia (weakly acid fast)

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26
Q

Mention the 2 pleiomorphic bacteria.

A
  1. Rickettsiae (Giemsa)

2. Chlamydiae (Giemsa)

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27
Q

Mention the 3 spirochetes.

A
  1. Treponema
  2. Borrelia (Giemsa)
  3. Leptospira
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28
Q

Does Mycoplasma + UREAPLASMA gram stain?

A

No - No cell wall - Contain sterols, which do not Gram stain.

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29
Q

Bacteria with unusual cell membranes/walls.

A

Mycoplasma –> Contain sterols and have no cell wall.

Mycobacteria –> Contain mycolic acid. High lipid content.

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30
Q

Mention some bacteria that do NOT gram stain well.

A
  1. Treponema
  2. Mycobacteria
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Legionella pneumophila
  5. Rickettsia
  6. Chlamydia
    + Leptospira
    + Ureaplasma
    + Bartonella
    + Ehrlichia
    + Anaplasma
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31
Q

What is the mnemonic for the bacteria that do NOT gram stain very well?

A

These Microbes May Lack Real Color.

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32
Q

What is the problem with treponema?

A

Too thin to be visualized.

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33
Q

What do we do to visualize treponemes?

A

Dark-field microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining.

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34
Q

What is the problem with Mycobacteria?

A

High lipid content in cell wall detected by carbofuchsin in acid-fast stain.

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35
Q

How do we stain Legionella?

A

Silver stain.

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36
Q

What does Giemsa stain?

A
  1. Chlamydia
  2. Rickettsiae
  3. Borrelia
  4. Trypanosomes
  5. Plasmodium
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37
Q

What is the mnemonic for the bugs that Giemsa stain?

A

Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience.

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38
Q

When do we use PAS (periodic acid-Schiff)?

A

Stains glycogen - mucopolysaccharides - used to diagnose Whipple disease –> Trophyrema Whipplei.

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39
Q

When do we use Ziehl-Nielsen (carbol fuchsin)?

A
  1. Acid-fast organisms - Nocardia, Mycobacterium (stains mycolic acid in cell wall).
  2. Protozoa - CRYPTOSPORIDIUM OOCYSTS.
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40
Q

When do we use India ink?

A

C.neoformans - mucicarmine can also be used to stain thick polysaccharide capsule RED.

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41
Q

When do we use silver stain?

A
  1. Fungi (PCP + COCCIDIOIDES)
  2. Legionella
  3. H.pylori
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42
Q

What is the medium used for isolation of H.influenza?

A

Chocolate agar with V(NAD+) + X (hematin).

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43
Q

What is the medium used for Neisseria isolation?

A

Thayer-Martin (or VPN):
V –> Vancomycin –> Kills Gram(+).
P –> Polymyxin (TMP + Colistin) –> Kills Gram(-) except Neisseria.
N –> Nystatin –> Kills Fungi.

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44
Q

What is the medium used for B.pertussis?

A
  1. Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar (Bordet for Bordetella).

2. Regan-Lowe medium –> Charcoal + Blood + Antibiotic.

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45
Q

What is the medium used for C.diphtheriae isolation?

A
  1. Tellurite agar.

2. Loeffler medium.

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46
Q

What is the medium used for M.tuberculosis isolation?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar.

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47
Q

What is the medium for M.pneumoniae?

A

Eaton agar - Requires cholesterol.

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48
Q

What are the media used for Lactose-fermenting enterics’ isolation?

A

MacConkey agar –> Pink colonies - Fermentation produces acid, turning colony pink.

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49
Q

What is the medium used for Legionella?

A

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine + iron.

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50
Q

What is the medium for fungi?

A

Sabouraud agar - “Sab’s is a Fun guy!”

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51
Q

Mention some obligate aerobes.

A
  1. Nocardia
  2. P.aeruginosa
  3. M.tuberculosis
    Use and O2-dependent system to generate ATP.
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52
Q

Mention the main obligate anaerobes.

A
  1. Clostridium
  2. Bacteroides
  3. Actinomyces
  4. Fusobacterium.
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53
Q

What are the main features of obligate anaerobes?

A
  1. Lack catalase and SOD
  2. Susceptible to oxidative damage.
  3. Generally foul-smelling (short-chain fatty acids).
  4. Difficult to culture.
  5. Produce GAS in tissue (CO2, H2)
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54
Q

Are aminoglycosides effective against obligate anaerobes?

A

NO - Aminoglycosides require O2 to enter into bacterial cell.

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55
Q

Mention the obligate intracellular bugs.

A

Chlamydia + Rickettsia + COXIELLA - Can’t make own ATP.

56
Q

Mention the facultative intracellular bugs.

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Neisseria
  3. Brucella
  4. Mycobacterium
  5. Listeria
  6. Francisella
  7. Legionella
  8. Yersinia
57
Q

Mention the main encapsulated bacteria.

A
  1. S.pneumoniae
  2. H.influenza type B
  3. N.meningitidis
  4. E.coli
  5. Salmonella
  6. K.pneumoniae
  7. Group B strep
  8. PSEUDOMONAS.
58
Q

Mention some main catalase (+) bacteria.

A
  1. Pseudomonas
  2. Listeria
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Candida
  5. E.coli
  6. S.aureus
  7. Serratia
59
Q

What is the mnemonic for the cat(+) bacteria?

A

You need PLACESS for your cats.

60
Q

Mention the urease(+) bugs.

A
  1. Cryptococcus
  2. H.pylori
  3. Proteus
  4. Ureaplasma
  5. Nocardia
  6. Klebsiella
  7. S.epidermidis
  8. S.saprophyticus
61
Q

What is the mnemonic for urease(+) bugs?

A

CHuck Norris hates PUNKSS.

62
Q

Mention some pigment-producing bacteria.

A
  1. A.israelli
  2. S.aureus.
  3. P.aeruginosa (Aerugula = Green)
  4. Serratia marcescens.
63
Q

What pigment does A.israellii produce?

A

YELLOW sulfur granules - composed of filaments of bacteria.

64
Q

What pigment does S.aureus produce?

A

YELLOW

65
Q

What pigment does P.aeruginosa produce?

A

Blue-green

66
Q

What pigment does Serratia marcescens produce?

A

RED

67
Q

What is the role of bacterial virulence factors?

A

Promote evasion of host immune response.

68
Q

What is the protein A?

A

Binds Fc region of IgG - Prevents opsonization + Phagocytosis - Expressed by S.aureus.

69
Q

What is the IgA protease?

A

Enzyme that cleaves IgA.

70
Q

Which bugs secrete IgA protease?

A
  1. S.pneumoniae
  2. H.influenza type B
  3. Neisseria
    in order to colonize the respiratory mucosa.
71
Q

What is the M protein?

A

Helps prevent phagocytosis.

72
Q

Which bug expresses protein M?

A

Group A strep.

73
Q

What is the location of the genes of exotoxin and endotoxin?

A

Exotoxin –> Plasmid or phage.

Endotoxin –> Bacterial chromosome.

74
Q

Exotoxin or endotoxin is more toxic?

A

Exotoxin –> High (fatal doses on the order of 1μg).

Endotoxin –> Low (fatal doses on the order of hundreds or micrograms).

75
Q

Compare the clinical effects of exotoxin and endotoxin.

A

Exotoxin –> Various effects.

Endotoxin –> Fever, shock (hypotension), DIC

76
Q

What is the mode of action of exotoxin?

A

Various modes.

77
Q

What is the mode of action of endotoxin?

A

TNF, IL-1, and IL-6.

78
Q

Compare the antigenicity of exotoxin and endotoxin.

A

Exotoxin –> Induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins.
Endotoxins –> Poorly antigenic.

79
Q

Compare the vaccines for exotoxins and endotoxins.

A

Exotoxin –> Toxoids used as vaccines.

Endotoxin –> No toxoid formed and no vaccine available.

80
Q

Compare the heat stability of endotoxin/exotoxin.

A

Exotoxin –> Destroyed rapidly at 60C - except staph enterotoxin.
Endotoxin –> Stable at 100C for 1hr.

81
Q

Mention typical diseases associated with exotoxins.

A
  1. Diphtheria
  2. Botulism
  3. Tetanus
82
Q

Mention typical diseases associated with endotoxin.

A
  1. Meningococcemia

2. Sepsis by gram(-) rods.

83
Q

What is the toxin of C.diphtheriae?

A

Diphtheria toxin

84
Q

What is the toxin of P.aeruginosa?

A

Exotoxin A

85
Q

What is the mechanism of BOTH diphtheria toxin and exotoxin A?

A

Inactivate EF-2.

86
Q

What are the manifestations of C.diphtheriae?

A

Pharyngitis with pseudomembranes in throat and severe lymphadenopathy (bull neck).

87
Q

What are the manifestations of P.aeruginosa?

A

Host cell death via exotoxin A.

88
Q

What is the toxin of Shigella spp.?

A

Shiga toxin (ST).

89
Q

What is the toxin of EHEC (incl. O157:H7 strain)?

A

Shiga-like toxin (SLT)

90
Q

What is the mechanism of Shiga toxin (ST) and Shiga-like toxin (SLT)?

A

Inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA.

91
Q

What are the manifestations of Shigella?

A
  1. GI mucosa damage –> Dysentery.

2. ST also enhances cytokine release –> HUS.

92
Q

What are the manifestations of EHEC?

A
  1. SLT enhances cytokine release –> HUS

2. Unlike shigella, EHEC does not invade host cells.

93
Q

What are the 2 toxins of ETEC?

A
  1. Heat-labile toxin (HL)

2. Heat stable toxin (ST)

94
Q

What is the mechanism of LT ETEC toxin?

A

Overactivates cAMP –> UP Cl secretion in gut and H2O efflux.

95
Q

What is the mechanism of ST toxin of ETEC?

A

Overactivates cGMP –> DOWN resorption of NaCl and H2O in gut.

96
Q

What are the manifestations of ETEC?

A

Watery diarrhea –> Labile in the Air (Adenylate cyclase)

–> Stable on the Ground (Guanylate cyclase).

97
Q

What is the toxin of B.anthracis?

A

Edema toxin.

98
Q

What is the mechanism of B.anthracis?

A

Mimics the adenylate cyclase enzyme (UP cAMP).

99
Q

What are the manifestations of B.anthracis?

A

Likely responsible for characteristic EDEMATOUS BORDERS of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax.

100
Q

What is the toxin produced by V.cholerae?

A

Cholera toxin.

101
Q

What is the mechanism of cholera toxin?

A

Overactivates cAMP by permanently activating Gs –> Incr. Cl secretion in gut and H2O efflux.

102
Q

What are the manifestations of cholera toxin?

A

Voluminous “rice-water” diarrhea.

103
Q

What is the toxin of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Pertussis toxin.

104
Q

What is the mechanism of Pertussis toxin?

A

Overactivates adenylate cyclase –> UP cAMP –> By DISABLING Gi.
===> Impairing PHAGOCYTOSIS to permit survival of microbe.

105
Q

What does B.pertussis cause?

A

Whooping cough:

  1. Child coughs on expiration and “whoops” on inspiration.
  2. Toxin may actually be a cause of cough.
  3. Can cause 100-day cough in adults.
106
Q

What is the toxin of C.tetani?

A

Tetanospasmin

107
Q

What is the toxin of C.botulinum?

A

Botulinum toxin.

108
Q

What is the mechanism of BOTH tetanospasmin and botulinum toxins?

A

BOTH are PROTEASES –> Cleave SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptor), a set of proteins required for neurotransmitter release via vesicular fusion.

109
Q

What are the manifestations of C.tetani?

A
  1. Spasticity
  2. Risus sardonicus
  3. “Lock-jaw”
  4. Toxin prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and glycine) neurotransmitters from Renshaw cells in spinal cord.
110
Q

What are the manifestations of C.botulinum?

A
  1. Flaccid paralysis
  2. Floppy baby
  3. Toxin prevents release of stimulatory ACh at neuromuscular junction –> Flaccid paralysis.
111
Q

What is the toxin of C.perfringens?

A

Alpha toxin

112
Q

What is the mechanism of alpha toxin?

A

Phospholipase (LECITHINASE) that degrades tissue and cell membranes.

113
Q

What are the manifestations of C.perfringens?

A

Degradation of phospholipids:

  1. MYONECROSIS (“gas gangrene”).
  2. HEMOLYSIS (“double zone” of hemolysis on blood agar).
114
Q

What is the toxin of S.pyogenes?

A

Streptolysin O

115
Q

What is the mechanism of Streptolysin O?

A

Protein that degrades cell membrane.

116
Q

What are the manifestations of S.pyogenes?

A
  1. Lyses RBCs.
  2. Contributes to β-hemolysis.
  3. Host antibodies against toxin (ASO) used to diagnose rheumatic fever (do not confuse with immune complexes of poststreptococcal GN).
117
Q

What toxins act like superantigens causing shock?

A
  1. TSST-1 (S.aureus)

2. Exotoxin A (S.pyogenes)

118
Q

What is the mechanism of superantigen-toxins?

A

Bring MHC II and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IL-1 + IL-2 + IFN-gamma + TNF-alpha –> SHOCK.

119
Q

What are the manifestations of toxic shock syndrome?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Rash
  3. Shock
  4. Other toxins cause scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin) and food poisoning (enterotoxin).
120
Q

Mention 4 bacteria that inhibit protein synthesis.

A
  1. C.diphtheriae
  2. P.aeruginosa
  3. Shigella
  4. EHEC (incl. O157:H7)
121
Q

Mention 3 bacteria that increase fluid secretion.

A
  1. ETEC
  2. B.anthracis
  3. V.cholerae
122
Q

Mention a bacterium that inhibits phagocytic ability.

A

B.pertussis

123
Q

Mention 2 bacteria that inhibit release of neurotransmitters.

A
  1. C.tetani

2. C.botulinum

124
Q

Mention 2 bacteria that lyse cell membranes.

A
  1. C.perfringens

2. S.pyogenes (streptolysin O)

125
Q

Mention 2 bacteria that release superantigens causing shock.

A
  1. S.aureus (TSST-1)

2. S.pyogenes (exotoxin A)

126
Q

What does endotoxin activate?

A
  1. Macrophages (TLR4)
  2. Complement
  3. Tissue factor
127
Q

What happens when the macrophages are activated via endotoxin?

A

IL-1 –> Fever.
TNF –> Fever and hypotension.
NO –> Hypotension.

128
Q

What happens when the complement is activated via endotoxin?

A
  1. C3a –> Hypotension, edema.

2. C5a –> Neutrophil chemotaxis.

129
Q

What happens when tissue factor is activated via endotoxin?

A

Coagulation cascade –> DIC.

130
Q

What is the mnemonic for endotoxin?

A

ENDOTOXIN:

Edema
NO
DIC/Death
Outer membrane
TNF-α
O-antigen
eXtremely heat stable
IL-1
Neutrophil chemotaxis
131
Q

What is termed transformation in bacterial genetics?

A

Ability to take up naked DNA (i.e., from cell lysis) from environment (also known as “competence”). Any DNA can be used.

132
Q

Transformation is a feature of which bacteria?

A
  1. S.pneumoniae
  2. H.influenza type B
  3. Neisseria
    (SHiN)
133
Q

What happens in F+ x F- conjugation?

A
  1. F+ plasmid contains genes required for sex pilus and conjugation.
  2. Bacteria without this plasmid are termed F-.
  3. Sex pilus on F+ bacterium contacts F- bacterium.
  4. A SINGLE STRAND of plasmid DNA is transferred across the conjugal bridge (“mating bridge”).
  5. NO TRANSFER OF CHROMOSOMAL GENES.
134
Q

What happens in Hfr x F- conjugation?

A
  1. F+ plasmid can become incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA, termed high-frequency recombination (Hfr) cell.
  2. Replication of incorporated plasmid DNA may include some flanking chromosomal DNA.
  3. Transfer of plasmid and chromosomal genes.
135
Q

What is termed “transposition”?

A
  1. Segment of DNA (transposon) that can “jump” (excision and reintegration) from one location to another.
  2. Can transfer genes from plasmid –> chromosome and vice versa.
136
Q

What happens in generalized transduction?

A
  1. A “packaging” event.
  2. Lytic phase infects bacterium –> cleavage of bacterial DNA.
  3. Parts of bacterial chromosomal DNA may become packaged in PHAGE caspid.
  4. Phage infects another bacterium –> transfers these genes.
137
Q

What happens in specialized transduction?

A
  1. An “excision” event.
  2. Lysogenic phage infects bacterium.
  3. Viral DNA incorporates into bacterial chromosome.
  4. When phage DNA is excised –> flanking bacterial genes may be excised with it.
  5. DNA is packaged into phage viral capsid and can infect another bacterium.
138
Q

Which bacterial toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage?

A
  1. ShigA-like toxin
  2. Botulinum toxin (certain strains)
  3. Cholera toxin
  4. Diphtheria toxin
  5. Erythrogenic toxin of S.pyogenes
    ABCDE

Microbiology (46 decks)

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