Extra Important Information Flashcards

1
Q

respondeat superior (“let the master respond”)

A

the employer is liable for employees’ negligent acts that occur in the course of their work

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2
Q

The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

A

-literally means “the thing speaks for itself.”
-This doctrine is sometimes applied when negligence and loss are so apparent that they would be obvious to anyone
-Although a patient may sustain some loss, the court must be convinced that the loss is a result of negligent care or treatment before the patient is entitled to dam- ages

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3
Q

Malpractice

A

-Professional negligence; an act of negligence in the context of a relationship between a professional person and a patient/client
-Examples: Error in diagnosis, complications resulting from a procedure, insufficient communication with the patient

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4
Q

Negligence

A

-Neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution. The radiographer is held to the standard of care and skill of the “reasonable radiographer” in similar circumstances (includes gross negligence, contributory negligence, and corporate negligence)
-Example: Two patient identifiers were not checked before beginning a procedure and the wrong patient was x-rayed

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5
Q

Unintentional Misconduct

A

-Negligence
-Malpractice

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6
Q

Intentional Misconduct

A

-False imprisonment
-Libel
-Slander
-Assault
-Battery

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7
Q

The Rules of Ethics

A

These rules are mandatory, specific standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all registered technologists and applicants for certification by the ARRT, and they are enforceable by the ARRT

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8
Q

The Code of Ethics and its Principles

A

establishes broad principles of professional conduct, differences between right and wrong(correct behavior)

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9
Q

The moral duties of physicians were defined in ancient Greece in the

A

Hippocratic Oath.

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10
Q

Ethics

A

Moral principles or values

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11
Q

Doctrine of the “borrowed servant”

A

a physician may be liable for wrongful acts committed by hospital employees under the physician’s orders

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12
Q

HMO vs PPO

A

-HMO: provide complete and comprehensive heath care for the cost of the premium and a small fee called a copayment for each visit, preventative healthcare and other needed health services

-PPO: a system that offers care at reduced rates within an established network of providers

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13
Q

Endospores

A

A resistant form of the bacterium that is produced within the cell when environmental conditions are unfavorable

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14
Q

Capsid

A

outer protein coating

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15
Q

Phagocytosis

A

When an infection causes the body to produce an inflammatory response, white blood cells engulf microorganisms

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16
Q

Tests for TB

A

-TST
-PPD

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17
Q

PEP(Post-exposure prophylaxis)

A

any preventive medical treatment started after exposure to a pathogen in order to prevent the infection from occurring

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18
Q

Sterlie Conscience

A

An awareness of sterile technique and the responsibility for telling the person in charge whenever you contaminate a field or onserve its contamination by someone else

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19
Q

When transferring a patient using the slider board, how should their hands be

A

Folded across their chest

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20
Q

Spill kit contains

A

-kitty litter
-heavy plastic bags
-a broom
-a dustpan
-gloves made of nitrile

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21
Q

Diaphoretic

A

Sweating

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22
Q

T wave

A

Ventricular recovery repolarization

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23
Q

PASS

A

Fire extinguisher acronym

Pull the pin
Aim the nozzle at the base of fire
Squeeze the handle
Sweep (use a sweeping motion from side to side to prevent the fire from spreading)

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24
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

140/90

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25
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

160/100

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26
Q

Rectal temperature may be contraindicated because

A

The procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve

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27
Q

Normal oxygen saturation value

A

95%-100%

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28
Q

P wave

A

Atrial contraction and the beginning of depolarization

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29
Q

U wave

A

Abnormal wave that indicates a low serum potassium level or other metabolic disturbances

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30
Q

R wave

A

Called the P-R interval and represents the time from the beginning of the atrial contraction to the beginning of the ventricular contraction

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31
Q

LOC’s Four Levels if Consciousness

A
  1. Alert and Conscious
  2. Drowsy but responsive
  3. Unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli
  4. Comatose
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32
Q

Normal Adult levels of BUN and Creatine and GFR

A

BUN: 7-18 mg/dL
Creatine: 0.2-1.3 mg/dL
GFR: 90-120 mL/min/1.73m^2

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33
Q

Systolic Pressure

A

A measure of the pumping action of the heart

34
Q

Hypotension(low blood pressure)

A

Is reflected by a diastolic pressure less than 50mmHg or a systolic pressure below 90mmHg

35
Q

Diastolic Pressure

A

Indicates the ability of the arterial system to accept the pulse of blood forced into the system when the left ventricle contracts

36
Q

Fibrillation

A

Where the heart quivers or fibrillates and loses the ability to contract effectively

37
Q

Asystole

A

when your heart’s electrical system fails entirely, which causes your heart to stop pumping(cessation of cardiac activity)

38
Q

Radiation units and measurements

A
39
Q

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure.

A

Sievert (Sv)

40
Q

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure patient dose:

A

Gray(Gy)

41
Q

ERCP uses which mobile device

A

C-arm

42
Q

Myelogram uses which type of contrast

A

Non-ionic contrast

43
Q

Epistaxis

A

A nosebleed

44
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

a numerical scale that can be used to objectively assess changes in a patient’s level of consciousness over time

45
Q

Fractures

A

-Compound: the splintered ends of bone are forced through the skin
-Closed: broken bone has not pierced the skin
-Greenstick Fracture: a break on one side and a bend or bow on the other side
-Spiral: A fracture whose line is curved, in a spiral-like pattern, instead of straight
-Overriding: A displaced fracture where the bone fragments overlap
-Comminuted: The bone is broken into more than two pieces
-Transverse: A fracture that results in the fragment being approximately 90 degrees from the shaft
-Compression: when one or more bones in the spine weaken and crumple
-Depressed(skull): part of skull is sunken in from trauma
-Avulsion: when a small chunk of bone attached to the tendon or ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone

46
Q

Allergic reaction treatments

A
47
Q

Syncope

A

Fainting

48
Q

Vertigo

A

sensation of the room spinning

49
Q

5 rights of medication

A

-Right patient
-Right drug
-Right time
-Right dose
-Right route

50
Q

Infiltration

A

Leakage from the vein into surrounding tissue

51
Q

Hemothorax

A

Blood in the pleural space

52
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the pleural space, lung collapse

53
Q

Thoracotomy

A

Treatment for either hemothorax or pneumothorax where is surgical opening is made through the chest wall and a tube is inserted between the visceral pleura and parietal pleura

54
Q

Synergistic effect

A

Responses to combined drugs that differ from their individual effect

55
Q

Idiosyncratic effect

A

Overreaction, underreaction, unusual reaction

56
Q

Contrast media that dissociates in solution is classified as

A

Ionic

57
Q

A VCUG exam is useful for diagnosing

A

Urethral obstruction for males

58
Q

ERCP stands for

A

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopacreatography

59
Q

Aqueous

A

Water is the principle solvent for the iodine compound

60
Q

T tube is used as

A

A drain for bile until the postsurgical edema in the common bile duct heals

(Used after cholecystectomy aka removal of gallbladder)

61
Q

Fistula

A

Abnormal passageway connecting 2 structures

62
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty swallowing

63
Q

Bolus

A

Substantial IV dose delivered rapidly

64
Q

Stricture

A

Narrowing of the lumen of a tubulat structure, such as blood vessel or GI tract

65
Q

Prcoedures involving radiographic or fluorscopic imaging

A

-Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
-Ureteral stent placement
-Foreign body localization

66
Q

C-arm

A

mobile imaging unit used primarily for fluoroscopic imaging during surgical and orthopedic procedures

67
Q

Contractions that propel food through the digestive tract

A

Peristalsis

68
Q

Ionic vs Nonionic

A

-Ionic: molecules dissociate
-Nonionic: molecules remain whole

69
Q

Babygram

A

-A radiograph that includes the whole body or just the chest and abdomen (thoracoabdominal babygram) on a single image, preformed in NICU

70
Q

Dialysis

A

a medical procedure for the removal of certain substances from the blood or lymph by virtue of the difference in their rates of diffusion through an external semipermeable membrane or, in the case of peritoneal dialysis, through the peritoneum. Dialysis is a treatment for chronic kidney failure

71
Q

Stimulate peristalsis; promote defecation

A

Cathartics

72
Q

Best position used to insert an enema

A

Sims

73
Q

Hiatal hernia

A

A protrusion of a portion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity

74
Q

Diverticula

A

pocket formations in mucous membranes

75
Q

Polyps

A

growths that occur on mucous membranes

76
Q

Bowel obstruction

A

A condition of partial or complete blockage of the digestive tract that maybe caused by scar tissue

77
Q

Diverticulosis

A

The presence of diverticula(pouches or pockets that form in the walls of the digestive tract) in the colon

78
Q

Iodinated contrast media are

A

Aqueous

79
Q

Visipaque

A

Isosmolar iodinated contrast media

80
Q

Cholangiography

A

X-ray examination of the bile ducts used to locate and identify an obstruction

81
Q

SI and British system radiation unit that measures patient dose

A

SI: gray(Gy)
British: radiation absorbed dose(rad)

82
Q

SI and British system radiation unit that measures occupational dose

A

SI: sievert(Sv)
British: radiation equivalent in man(rem)