Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bacteriology IP5 > export_bacteriology test 4 > Flashcards

export_bacteriology test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Salmonella Choleraesuis

A

This salmonella serotype, host adapted to swine, is a cause of septicemia and pneumonia often w/o an associated enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

E. Coli

A

A toxigenic type of this agent has been labeled as an “attaching and effacing type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium

A

This salmonella is the most common serotype associated w/ disease in dogs in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Salmonella enteritidis

A

This salmonella serotype is the most common serotype isolated from poultry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enterobacter aerogenes, E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

These bacterial species are known as coliforms (name 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

This agent, associated w/ wood product bedding, is a cause of mastitis in dairy cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Klebsiella pneumnoiae and E. Coli

A

These two agents are the most common gram negative pathogens causing endometritis in the horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

This agent is the cause of Bubonic Plague in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

E. Coli

A

This agent which produces Shiga toxin Stx2e causes a disease in Swine called edema disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Salmonella Dublin

A

this salmonella serotype, host-adapted to cattle, is a cause of abortion in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

E Coli O157:H7

A

this agent which produces a toxin labeled STx1 causes a hemorrhagic diarrhea in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium

A

This Salmonella serotype, the most common serotype isolated from horses is a cause of acute enterocolitis w/ high death loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

This agent is a CDC category A potential bio-terrorism agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

A vaccine has been used to protect Black footed ferrets against this agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Salmonella typhimurium

Salmonella enteritidis

A

These 2 salmonella serotypes are the most common serotypes associated w/ food poisoning in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osmotic effects w/ subsequent malabsorption

A

Nutritional diarrhea in an orphaned foal fed milk replacer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Increased permeability of the intestinal wall

A

Colitis due to E. Coli serotype O157:H7 in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Active hypersecretionof water and electrolytes

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli in a neonatal calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malabsorption due to villous atrophy

A

Parvovirus infection in a young dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antiseptics

A

Chemicals used to prevent growth or destroy potential pathogens on body surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

R-factors

A

Term used for plasmids that carry resistance to antimicrobial agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pasteurize

A

Exposure of liquids used for food to heat to kill pathogenic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Gene cassettes

A

The term for the modular DNA sequences encoding for antimicrobial resistance that are carried and transferred b/t integrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Biocontainment

A

A system of management practices directed at reducing the risk of spreading an existing disease b/t animals from different premises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dihydrofolic acid

A

The use of this compound by bateria in purine synthesis is the target of the Trimethoprim type of anitmicrobials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transcription

A

Term used to describe the process of DNA producing RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sterilize

A

Term referring to the complete destruction of all microorganisms by physical means or chemical means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Synergistic antimicrobials

A

The term for antimicrobial action in which the use of two antimicrobials increases the level of activity above the level of activity for either one alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Time dependent Antimicrobials

A

To be clinically effective, this type of antimicrobial must maintain a blood level that is greater than the MIC for duration of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ergosterol

A

This substance in the plasmalemma of fungi is the target of many of the antimicrobials that affect fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Minimum Bacterial Concentration

A

The concentration of an antimicrobial drug that will kill bacteria in vitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Efflux pumps

A

Porins that would expel antimicrobials from the bacterial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bacteriostatic antimicrobials

A

The term in disease treatment for the drug type that inhibits bacterial multiplication but bacteria are not killed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

F antigens

A

Major adhesion antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

K antigens

A

Capsular antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

H antigens

A

Flagellar antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

O antigens

A

Lipopolysaccharide goes with?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Process of translation

A

Doxycycline, in regards to site of action in the bacteria, affects?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

This antimicrobial family has very poor activity against obligately anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Non-proliferative mature villous epithelium

A

The cells mainly responsible for intestinal absorption of fluids are?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Macrolides

A

Gamithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Cefovecin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Amikacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Carbapenems

A

Imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Polypeptides

A

Polymyxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Acetamides

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Azoles

A

Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

facultatively anaerobic

A

In relationship to growth in the presence of oxygen, Salmonella would be classified as?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gram -, oxidase -, non-spreforming rods

A

A description of the family Enterobacteriaceae would be as follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

DNA replication

A

Enrofloxacin, in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Polymyxin B

A

This antimicrobial is known for alleviating the adverse effects of endotoxin in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Salmonella enterica

A

What is the only validly named species of Salmonella in the following list?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Gentamicin

A

What is the antimicrobial of choice for treatment of a Yersinia pestis infection in cats?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bacteriocidal and concentration dependent

A

Gentamicin, in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria is?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Malabsorption

A

villous atrophy as occurs w/ some of the major intestinal virus diseases of animals such as rotavirus causes a diarrhea primarily due to?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bacteriocidal and Time dependent

A

Cephadroxil, in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria is?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

cell wall synthesis

A

Cephadroxil, in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lactose positive

A

The term coliform bateria are identified as those members of the family Enterobacteriaceae that are?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Outer variable oligosaccharide region

A

Rough mutants used for vaccination to control endotoxemia have a deficiency in which of the following parts of the LPS?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Carrier state w/o clinical disease

A

In cats, Salmonella infection can usually be characterized as?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Adhere to intestinal mucosa

A

Certain virulence factors are considered to be necessary for E. coli to be called Enterotoxigenic. These factors include the ability to?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bacteriostatic and time dependent

A

Doxycycline, in regards to use in the patient, and action on the bacteria are?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

This type of E. coli is most commonly involved in food poisoning in humans such as traveler’s diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

The type of E. coli associated w/ hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Attaching and effacing E. coli

A

This type of E. coli directs the mucosal cells to form a pedestal for the E. coli to perch on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

The type of E. coli associated w/ neonatal colibacillosis in swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Shiga toxin producing E. coli

A

The type of E. coli associated w/ edema disease in swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Oxidase test (Cytochrome oxidase test)

A

Major biochemical test used to separate the gram-negative bacteria into two major groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Selenite medium

A

Enrichment broth used for isolation of Salmonella from contaminated specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Voges-Proskauer test

A

Used to determine if a bacterial isolate produces acetoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Ornithine Decarboxylaserxn

A

MIO medium is used to determine two biochemical rxns: Indole and ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Brilliant green agar

A

Highly selective solid media used for isolation of salmonella from feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Oxidative fermentative media

A

Media used to determine if bacterial isolates would have either of these biochemical pathways: pentose phosphate shunt or entner-doudoroff pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Catalase test

A

Major biochemical test used to separate the gram-positive cocci into 2 major groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Mueller Hinton

A

Medium used for determining antimicrobial susceptibility of bacterial specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Lactose

A

The rxn on the slant of TSI is used to determine the fermentation of this sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Lysine deaminase rxn

A

A positive test separates the Proteus-providencia group from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Amphotericin B

A

This drug which is known for its nephrotoxicity is used to treat fungal infections must be given slow intravenous injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Amoxicillin

A

This drug can cause a hypersensitivity in humans. When given to an individual that is hypersensitive it can cause hives or even fatal anaphylactic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

This drug can cause a totally non-treatable fatal aplastic anemia in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Sulfadiazine

A

This drug is associated w/ a condition called keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

This drug must be used w/ caution in young horses because of its propensity to cause potentially debilitating lesions in developing cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

This agent must be used w/ caution in cats because use above 5 mg/kg can cause retinal degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Chloramphenicol
Enrofloxacin

Vancomycin

A

This FDA has forbidden off label use of these three antimicrobials in food animals because of potential human health problems

87
Q

Chlortetracycline

A

This drug when given orally to a horse will often suppress the normal flora and thus allow overgrowth of a salmonella in the digestive tract resulting in an often fatal salmonellosis

88
Q

E. coli

A

At necropsy of 2 pigs w/ CNS symptoms, you observed edema of eyelids and edema of submucosa along the greater curvature of the stomach. What is the probably etiologic agent?

89
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

Principal cause of Sylvatic plague in cats

90
Q

Salmonella Enteritidis

A

This Salmonella serotype is the most common serotype isolated from poultry

91
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

This agent, associated w/ wood product bedding is a cause of mastitis in dairy cattle

92
Q

Salmonella Typhi

A

This Salmonella serotype is the cause of typhoid fever in humans

93
Q

salmonella Enteritidis

A

This salmonella serotype is the principal cause of salmonella food poisoning in humans from poultry sources

94
Q

E. coli O157:H7

A

This agent causes hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans

95
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium

A

This salmonella serotype is the principal cause of Salmonella food poisoning in humans from mammalian sources

96
Q

Salmonella dublin

A

This salmonella serotype, host-adapted to cattle, is a cause of abortion in cattle

97
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium

A

This salmonella is the most common serotype associated w/ diseases in dogs in the US

98
Q

Yersinia Pestis

A

This agent causes a lesion in humans known as a “bubo” which is a very painful enlargement of the lymph nodes

99
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

This agent is a CDC Category A potential biio-terrorism agent

100
Q

Enterobacter aerogenes, E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

These bacterial species are known as Coliforms

101
Q

Attaching and effacing E. coli

A

This type of E. coli directs the mucosal cells to form a pedestal for the E. coli to perch on

102
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

This type of E. coli associated w/ hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans

103
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

This type of E. coli is most commonly involved in food poisoning in humans such as Traveler’s Diarrhea

104
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

The type of E. coli associated w/ neonatal colibaclilosis in swine

105
Q

Antiseptics

A

Chemicals used to prevent growth or destroy potential pathogens on body surfaces

106
Q

Disinfectants

A

Term referring to the destruction of potentially pathogenic microorganisms by chemical means

107
Q

Synergistic Antimicrobials

A

The term for antimicrobial action in which the use of 2 antimicrobials increases the level of activity above the level of activity for either one alone

108
Q

Transduction

A

This process refers to the transfer of genes b/t bacteria via bacterial viruses

109
Q

Bacteriostatic antimicrobials

A

The term in disease treatment for the drug type that inhibits bacterial multiplication but bacteria are not killed

110
Q

Minimum inhibitory concentration

A

The concentration of a antimicrobial that will prevent bacteria replication in vitro

111
Q

R-factors

A

Plasmids that carry genes coding for bacterial resistance

112
Q

Gene cassettes

A

Term for the modular DNA sequences encoding for antimicrobial resistance that are carried and transferred b/t integrons

113
Q

Transposons

A

These are genes that are capable of transferring copies of themselves and assocaited genes to a new site w/ in a replicon or to different replicons

114
Q

Beta lactamases

A

Enzymes responsible for resistance of gram positive bacteria to penicillin

115
Q

Dihydrofolic acid

A

The use of this compound by bacteria in Purine synthesis is the target of the Trimethoprim type of antimicrobials

116
Q

Time dependent Antimicrobials

A

To be clinically effective, this type of antimicrobial must maintain a blood level that is greater than the MIC for duration of treatment

117
Q

Post Antibiotic Effect

A

Term for the antibiotic effect on bacteria after the antibiotic is no longer in the system

118
Q

Sterilize

A

Complete destruction of all microorganisms by physical means or chemical means

119
Q

F antigens

A

Major adhesion antigens

120
Q

K antigens

A

Capsular antigens

121
Q

H antigens

A

Flagellar antigens

122
Q

Increased permeability of the intestinal wall

A

Enteritis due to E. coli serotype O157:H7 in humans

123
Q

Osmotic effects w/ subsequent malabsorption

A

Nutritional diarrhea in an orphaned foal fed milk replacer

124
Q

Malabsorption due to villous atrophy

A

Parvovirus infection in a young dog

125
Q

Active hypersecretionof water and electrolytes

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli in a neonatal calf

126
Q

Lysine deaminase rxn

A

A positive test separates the proteus-providencia group from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae

127
Q

Indole test

A

A positive test indicates metabolism of tryptophan

128
Q

Oxidative fermentative media

A

Media used to determine if bacterial isolates would have either of these biochemical pathways: Pentose Phosphate Shunt or Entner Doudoroff pathway

129
Q

Oxidase test

A

Major biochemical test used to separate the Gram-negative bacteria into 2 major groups

130
Q

KOH test

A

Test used to determine the gram rxn of a bacterial isolate

131
Q

VP test

A

Used to determine if a bacterial isolate produces acetoin

132
Q

Catalase test

A

Major biochemical test used to separate the Gram-positive coccin into 2 major groups

133
Q

Mueller Hinton Agar

A

Medium used for determining antimicrobials susceptibliity of bacterial specimen

134
Q

Acetamides

A

Chloramphenicol

135
Q

Glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin

136
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Ceftiofur

137
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Amikacin

138
Q

Azoles

A

Fluconazole

139
Q

polypeptide

A

Polymyxin B

140
Q

Macrolides

A

Azithromycin

141
Q

Lincosaminides

A

Clindmycin

142
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Enrofloxacin

143
Q

Malabsorption

A

Villous atrophy as occurs w/ some of the major intetinal virus diseases of animals such as Rotavirus causes a diarrhea primarily due to?

144
Q

Facultatively anaerobic

A

in relationship to growth in the presence of oxygen, Salmonella would be classified as?

145
Q

Hypermotility is not known to be a major primary or contributing cause of diarrhea

A

According to current knowledge, how would we rate hypermotility in the SI as a cause leading to diarrhea in animals?

146
Q

A carrier state w/o clinical disease

A

In cats, Salmonella infection can usually be characterized as?

147
Q

Chlortetracycline

A

This drug, when given orally to a horse, will often suppress the normal flora and thus allow overgrowth of a salmonella in the digestive tract resulting in often fatal salmonellosis

148
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

This drug can cause a totally non-treatable fatal aplastic anemia in humans

149
Q

Sulfadiazine

A

This drug is associated w/ a condition called keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs

150
Q

Tilmicosin

A

This macrolide drug used to treat cattle and swine is known for having significant toxicity on accidental injection in humans

151
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

This drug must be used w/ caution in young horses because of its propensity to cause potentially debilitating lesions in developing cartilage

152
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

This agent must be used w/ caution in cats because use above 5 mg/kg can cause retinal degeneration

153
Q

Amoxicillin

A

This drug can cause a hypersensitivity in humans. When given to an individual that is hypersensitive it can cause hives or even fatal anaphylactic shock

154
Q

Chloramphenicol
Enrofloxacin

Vancomycin

A

The FDA has forbidden off label use of these 3 antimicrobials in food animals because of potential human health problems

155
Q

Lactose positive

A

The term coliform bacteria are identified as those members of the family enterobacteriaceae that are

156
Q

Adhere to intestinal mucosa

A

Certain virulence factors are considered to be necessary for E. coli to be called enterotoxic. These factors include the ability to:

157
Q

The bite of infected fleas

A

The principal means by which Yersinia pestis is spread though susceptible populations is by?

158
Q

Salmonella enterica

A

What is the only validly named species of Salmonella in the following list

159
Q

Gram negative, oxidase negative, non-sporeforming rods

A

A description of the family Enterobacteriaceae would be as follows?

160
Q

Iron metabolism in the bacteria

A

Ab produced by vaccines using the Siderophore receptor and proin technology work because they disrupt:9

161
Q

Non-proliferative mature villous epithelium

A

The cells mainly responsible for intestinal absorption of fluids are?

162
Q

Outer variable oligosaccharide region

A

Rough mutants used for vaccination to control endotoxemia have a deficiency in which of the following parts of the LPS

163
Q

Bacteriocidal and time dependent

A

Cephalosporins, in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria are?

164
Q

Cell wall synthesis

A

Cephalosporins, in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

165
Q

Bacteriostatic and time dependent

A

Doxycycline, in regards to use, in the patient, and action on the bacteria are?

166
Q

Process of translation

A

Doxycycline, in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

167
Q

Gentamicin

A

What is the antimicrobial of choice for treatment of a Yersinia pestis infection in cats?

168
Q

Bacteriocidal and concentration dependent

A

Aminoglycosides, in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria are?

169
Q

E. coli O157:H7

A

This agent is a common cause venereal transmitted equine metritis w/ infertility in the US

170
Q

Salmonella Dublin

A

This salmonella is a very common cause of salmonellosis in cattle and is considered to be host-adapted to cattle

171
Q

Salmonella Newport

Salmonella Typhimurium

A

These 2 Salmonella serovars are associated w/ significant mortality in horses

172
Q

Salmonella Choleraesuis

A

This Salmonella serovar is a common cause of septicemia and pneumonia in swine

173
Q

Proteus mirabilis

A

This agent is known for its propensity to swarm on blood agar

174
Q

Neonatal Colibacillosis
2. Edema disease

  1. Enteric infection w/ Enterotoxigenic E. coli in adult humans
A

4 things that the primary infection site is the SI

175
Q

LI

A

What is the primary site of infection of Enteric infection w/ enterohemorrhagic E. coli in humans?

176
Q

Both SI and LI

A

What is the primary infection site of enteric infections w/ Salmonella typhimurium in a young pig?

177
Q

Griseofulvin

A

This drug should not be used for treatment of pregnant queens because of the potential for teratogenic effects

178
Q

Lincomycin

A

This drug, a feed additive for swine, will cause a non-responding fatal diarrhea when accidentally fed to horses

179
Q

Stx

A

Shiga toxin

180
Q

Increased permeability of the intestinal wall

A

Enteritis due to salmonella typhimurium in a 150# pig

181
Q

Malabsorption due to villous atrophy

A

Coronavirus infection in a neonatal pig

182
Q

Process of translation

A

The family aminoglycosides in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

183
Q

Bacteriocidal

Time dependent

A

Penicillin in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria is?

184
Q

cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillin in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

185
Q

Bacteriostatic and time dependent

A

Erythromycin (a macrolide), in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria is?

186
Q

Process of translation

A

Erythromycin (a macrolide), in regards to site of action in the bacteria, affects

187
Q

Bacteriocidal and concentration dependent

A

Fluoroquinolones in regards to use in the patient and action on the bacteria is?

188
Q

DNA replication

A

Fluoroquinolones in regards to site of action in the bacteria affects?

189
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin

190
Q

Acetamides

A

Chloramphenicol

191
Q

Macrolide

A

Timicosin

192
Q

Lincosaminides

A

Clindamycin

193
Q

A phage type of the bacterium

A

What does DT 104 stand for in the designation of Salmonella Typhimurium DT 104?

194
Q

Tetrathionate broth

A

In isolation of Salmonella from the feces, which of the following is commonly used as an Enrichment Media to improve the chances of finding the Salmonella by inhibiting E. coli growth?

195
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

Which of these diarrheogenic E. coli cause the most serious disease after zoonotic spread from animals to man in the US?

196
Q

Inflammation of the bladder

A

The term cystitis refers to?

197
Q

Increased hypersecretionof water and electrolytes

A

The primary mechanism which causes the diarrhea produced by enterotoxigenic E. coli can best be characterized as?

198
Q

Kilebsiella pneumoniae

A

This agent is a common cause venereal transmitted equine metritis w/ infertility in the US

199
Q

E. coli

A

A toxin produced in the intestinal tract by this gram negative bacterium is absorbed into the blood stream and then causes damage to small blood vessels resulting in brain ischemia w/ encephalomalacia resulting in CNS symptoms in swine

200
Q

Salmonella Newport

A

The very virulent Salmonella serovar has been implicated in severe enteric fevers and death in immunocompromised humans who have consumed undercooked beef products

201
Q

Both SI and LI

A

What is the primary site of infection for enteric infections w/ Salmonella typhimurium in a young pig?

202
Q

Camp test

A

The ability of other bacteria to enhance the hemolytic zones of Staph aureus is determined w/ this test

203
Q

Oxidative fermentative media

A

Used to determine if a bacterial isolate can oxidize glucose

204
Q

Mueller Hinton Agar

A

Medium used to in antibacterial susceptibility testing

205
Q

Triple Sugar Iron Agar

MacConkey Agar

A

Two media that can be used to determine if a bacterial isolate can ferment lactose

206
Q

Brilliant green agar

MacConkey agar

A

Two media classified as selective

207
Q

Malabsorption due to villous atrophy

A

Rotavirus infection in a neonatal calf

208
Q

Osmotic effects w/ subsequent malabsorption

A

Nutritional diarrhea in an orphaned foal fed milk replacer

209
Q

Increased hypersecretionof water and electrolytes

A

The primary mechanism which causes the diarrhea produced by enterotoxigenic E. coli can best be characterized as?

210
Q

Amoxicillin and Doxycycline

A

You decided to use a combo of antimicrobials in your treatment of a mixed infection in a dog. Which of the following combos would be irrational to use because the drugs have a high potential for antagonims w/ each other?

211
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

Which of these diarrheogenic E. coli present the most serious zoonotic threat in the US?

212
Q

Porin protein

A

Bacterial LPS consists of all of the following compounds except?

213
Q

Proliferative immature crypt epithelium

A

The cells mainly responsible for intestinal secretion of fluids are the?

Bacteriology IP5 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions