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exam try 2 Flashcards

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1
Q 
Which of the following is magnesium classified as?
Select one:
a. Macronutrient
b. Vitamin
c. Trace mineral  
d. Macromineral
A

d. Macromineral

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2
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

A

a. Hamstrings and erector spinae

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3
Q 
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
Select one:
a. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) 
b. The Tanaka formula
c. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula
d. The talk test
A

d. The talk test

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4
Q 
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
Select one:
a. 15 to 60 seconds
b. 90 to 120 seconds
c. 60 to 90 seconds  
d. 0 to 15 seconds
A

a. 15 to 60 seconds

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5
Q 
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
Select one:
a. YMCA 3-minute step test  
b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
A

d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

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6
Q 
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Select one:
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Stretching phase
c. Muscular-power phase
d. Explosive-shortening phase
A

a. Stretch-shortening cycle

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7
Q 
Which of the following is a ketone body?
Select one:
a. Lactic acid
b. Acetoacetic acid
c. Glycogen  
d. Pyruvate
A

b. Acetoacetic acid

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8
Q 
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Select one:
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 4  
c. Zone 1
d. Zone 3
A

d. Zone 3

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9
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
b. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
c. Being more explosive
d. Increasing speed

A

b. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

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10
Q 
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a. Core strength
b. Core power
c. Core stability  
d. Core endurance
A

a. Core strength

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11
Q 
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Select one:
a. Stabilization-focused exercise
b. Balance exercise
c. Strength-focused exercise  
d. Plyometric exercise
A

a. Stabilization-focused exercise

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12
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
b. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
c. Increased lipogenesis
d. Increased lipolysis

A

d. Increased lipolysis

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13
Q 
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
Select one:
a. About 5,500
b. About 3,500
c. About 500
d. About 1,000
A

b. About 3,500

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14
Q 
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 30 to 50 g
b. 15 to 20 g  
c. 60 to 70 g
d. 20 to 40 g
A

d. 20 to 40 g

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15
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
b. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
d. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.

A

c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

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16
Q 
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Select one:
a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis  
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
A

d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

17
Q 
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell and medicine ball  
b. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
c. ViPR and sandbag
d. TRX suspension and ViPR
A

c. ViPR and sandbag

18
Q 
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
Select one:
a. 5 minutes
b. 30 seconds  
c. 0 seconds
d. 60 to 120 seconds
A

d. 60 to 120 seconds

19
Q

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
b. Pregnancy and diabetes
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Young children and older adults

A

c. Cancer and bleeding disorders

20
Q 
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:
a. 5 or 6 sets
b. 1 or 2 sets 
c. 3 or 4 sets
d. 7 to 8 sets
A

c. 3 or 4 sets

21
Q 
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?
Select one:
a. Adduction and abduction
b. Abduction and extension
c. Supination and pronation  
d. Flexion and extension
A

d. Flexion and extension

22
Q 
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Select one:
a. Raking leaves
b. Cleaning
c. Moving a grocery cart
d. Getting in and out of the car
A

b. Cleaning

23
Q 
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Select one:
a. Bench press strength assessment
b. Overhead press
c. Push-up test
d. Pushing assessment
A

c. Push-up test

24
Q 
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:
a. Heart rate
b. Thermoregulation 
c. Peripheral vasodilation
d. Blood pressure
A

c. Peripheral vasodilation

25
Q 
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Erector spinae
c. Hip flexor  
d. Gluteus medius
A

d. Gluteus medius

26
Q 
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Peer pressure  
b. Societal influence
c. Health influence
d. Group influence
A

d. Group influence

27
Q 
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Select one:
a. Prediabetes
b. Gestational
c. Type 1 
d. Type 2
A

d. Type 2

28
Q 
What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed?
Select one:
a. Periodization
b. Macrocycle
c. Training plan
d. Acute variables
A

c. Training plan

29
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases

A

c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

30
Q 
eavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Phases 3 and 4 
b. Phases 2 and 3
c. Phases 4 and 5
d. Phases 1 and 3
A

c. Phases 4 and 5

31
Q 
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Select one:
a. Superior  
b. Posterior
c. Anterior
d. Lateral
A

b. Posterior

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