Exam 6 - Equine Resp Diseases Flashcards by AE G

what is the most sensitive sample to test for Strangles

nasopharyngeal wash

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what diagnostic test can be done to detect subclinically infected carrier animals

PCR of endoscopically guided guttural pouch lavage

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what diagnostic test can be done to confirm Strangles if lavage PCR is negative

visual detection of inflam of guttural pouch resp epithelium and presence of empyema, chondroids and enlarge retropharyngeal LN

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what does an SeM Ab titer > 12,800 indicate

existing S.equi associated purapura hemorrhagica or metastatic abscessation

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when can you vaccine an animal for Strangles

titer < 3200

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complications of strangles

metastatic “bastard” strangles

immune mediated dz:
purpura hemorrhagica
myositis
myocarditis

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treatment for Strangles

majority no treatment
NSAIDs if not dehydrated
Penicillin if needed
if empyema/chondroids - lavage, grasping, surgery

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screening technique for Strangles

GP endoscopy + culture + PCR testing

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risk factors of R. equi

foal density
large farms
transient mares
host factors

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clinical signs of R. equi

young foals < 4 mo
subclinical
respiratory
extrapulmonary - abdominal, bone, joint, non-septic synovitits, other

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gold standard diagnostic for R. equi

others?

culture via TTW or endoscopy

PCR, US, rads

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treatment for R. equi

adverse effects

macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, gamithromycin) + rifampin

life threatening colitis in mares, mild diarrhea in foals, hyperthermia in foals, resp distress and hematuria

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when do you not treat foals with R. equi

subclinical disease, abscess < 10cm bc antimicrobial resistance

do not use prophylatic azithromycin

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prevention of R. equi

decrease foal density
remove manure
reduce dust
screen foals starting at 3 weeks of age
no vx but can give hyperimmune plasma on endemic farms

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differentials for right laryngeal hemiplegia

chondritis
neuropathy
laryngeal dysplasia (4-BAD)
EPM

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how can you assess arytenoid abduction?

swallowing (more sensitive) rather than nasal occlusion

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treatment for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

treat primary etiology - palatal/subepiglottic ulcers, pharyngitis or lower airway disease
tongue tie
cornell collar
laryngeal tie forward

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disease common in < 3 year old race horses due to local immune response to inhaled antigens

pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia/pharyngitis

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pink foam from nostrils is a sign of what?

pulmonary edema secondary to upper airway obstruction

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treatment of upper airway obstruction causing resp distress

emergent trachetomy +/- furosemide for pulmonary edema

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example of intrathoracic obstructive disorders

asthma or heaves

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example of intrathoracic restrictive disorders

pneumonia, pleuritis
pneumothorax

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treatments for intrathoracic disorders

bronchodilators
steroids
epinephrine
pleurocentesis

airflow turbulence determined by?

airflow velocity
airway lumen architecture

what would you hear with pleural effusion, consolidation or masses and where

ventral chest dull quality, soft intensity, high pitch

what would you hear with a pneumothorax and where

dorsal chest clear quality, loud intensity, low pitch

common equine respiratory viruses

EHV-1,4 equine influenza equine viral arteritis virus

EHV-1 symptoms

respiratory abortion storms neonatal foal death neurologic (equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy) chorioretinopathy

EHV-4 symptoms

respiratory sporadic abortion

pathogenesis of EHV

1. infection of resp epithelium of URT 2. infection of LN 3. cell associated viremia responsible for vascular endothelium infection of the uterus and CNS

true/false just because a horse has the neuropathic strain of EHV does not mean they have CNS signs

true

what EHV causes Equine Multinodular Pulmonary Fibrosis (EMPF)

EHV-5

what EHV causes coital exanthema

EHV-3

diagnostics for an active infection of EHV

**whole blood** sample (buffy coat due to cell associated viremia) NOT serum unless it's a CF titer > 1:2048 nasal swab/resp secretions tissue (fetal membranes/fluid or CNS tissue)

what does a serum / virus neutralization titer > 1:1024 indicate for EHV

recent infection because vaccines do not induce high VN titers

what does a complement fixation titer > 1:2048 indicate for EHV

preliminary evidence of infection - titers rise immediately after infection and peak rapidly

control measures for EHV

isolation/husbandry vaccination (does not protect against neuro disease) antivirals (not rec)

Equine Influenza pathogenesis

1. lesions in LRT 2. impairs mucociliary clearance & causes resp epithelial erosion 3. bacterial pneumonia risk

Diagnostic for Equine Influenza

nasal swabs resp tissues serum for acute & conv titers (retrospective info) RT-PCR more sensitive than virus isolation

Equine Influenza control

husbandy/isolation vaccination (best control) antivirals (not rec)

Equine Arteritis Virus symptoms what is responsible for majority of the clinical signs

sporadic resp disease in adults abortion fatal pneumonia & enteritis in foals nasal discharge, ocular discharge, "pink eye", photophobia, skin rash, ventral edema, edema in lower limbs, scotrum and mammary glands vasculitis

what is the key to the persistence of EAV in the equine population

stallions as the carriers

EAV carrier state in stallions is _____ dependent

testosterone castration resolves infection

diagnostic samples for EAV

semen, nasal/eye swabs, serum, whole blood or tissues

what is the gold standard for detection of serum antibodies to EAV

microneutralization of serum

how to confirm the carrier state for EAV

virus isolation PCR test breed a suspect stallion to two seronegative mares which are monitored for clinical signs and seroconversion

vaccinations for EAV

safe in stallions & non-pregnant mares cannot differentiate vx titer from natural infection (NOT DIVA) protects stallions against becoming carriers

what other clinical signs does pleuropneumonia include in addition to fever, lethargy, anorexia, mucopurulent discharge, increased rr

edema in forelimb & chest no/mild cough

pathogenesis of pneumonia

impaired upper airway defenses (cough, epithelium, clearance)

pathogenesis of pleuropneumonia

exudative stage fibropurulent stage organization stage

bacteria involved in pneumonia? pleuropneumonia?

pneumonia - gram + (S. zooepidemicus & R. equi), gram - pleuropneumonia - gram +, gram - and anaeorbes

Describe the risk factors for pleuro/pneumonia.

transportation race horses, racing influenza general anesthesia overcrowing, parasites, malnutrition, heat stress, congenital immunodeficiences, concurrent diseases in foals

diagnostics for pneumonia & pleuropneumonia

thoracic ultrasound TTW/aspirate + culture

medical treatment for pneumonia

pencillin, ampicillin, TMS

medical treatment for pleuropneumonia

pencillin combined with aminoglycoside (gentamicin) enrofloxacin TMS chloramphenicol metronidazole (anaerobes)