Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Sciences > Exam 6 - Equine Resp Diseases > Flashcards

Exam 6 - Equine Resp Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most sensitive sample to test for Strangles

A

nasopharyngeal wash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what diagnostic test can be done to detect subclinically infected carrier animals

A

PCR of endoscopically guided guttural pouch lavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what diagnostic test can be done to confirm Strangles if lavage PCR is negative

A

visual detection of inflam of guttural pouch resp epithelium and presence of empyema, chondroids and enlarge retropharyngeal LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does an SeM Ab titer > 12,800 indicate

A

existing S.equi associated purapura hemorrhagica or metastatic abscessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when can you vaccine an animal for Strangles

A

titer < 3200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

complications of strangles

A

metastatic “bastard” strangles

immune mediated dz:
purpura hemorrhagica
myositis
myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatment for Strangles

A

majority no treatment
NSAIDs if not dehydrated
Penicillin if needed
if empyema/chondroids - lavage, grasping, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

screening technique for Strangles

A

GP endoscopy + culture + PCR testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

risk factors of R. equi

A

foal density
large farms
transient mares
host factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

clinical signs of R. equi

A

young foals < 4 mo
subclinical
respiratory
extrapulmonary - abdominal, bone, joint, non-septic synovitits, other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gold standard diagnostic for R. equi

others?

A

culture via TTW or endoscopy

PCR, US, rads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for R. equi

adverse effects

A

macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, gamithromycin) + rifampin

life threatening colitis in mares, mild diarrhea in foals, hyperthermia in foals, resp distress and hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when do you not treat foals with R. equi

A

subclinical disease, abscess < 10cm bc antimicrobial resistance

do not use prophylatic azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

prevention of R. equi

A

decrease foal density
remove manure
reduce dust
screen foals starting at 3 weeks of age
no vx but can give hyperimmune plasma on endemic farms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

differentials for right laryngeal hemiplegia

A

chondritis
neuropathy
laryngeal dysplasia (4-BAD)
EPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how can you assess arytenoid abduction?

A

swallowing (more sensitive) rather than nasal occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treatment for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

treat primary etiology - palatal/subepiglottic ulcers, pharyngitis or lower airway disease
tongue tie
cornell collar
laryngeal tie forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

disease common in < 3 year old race horses due to local immune response to inhaled antigens

A

pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia/pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pink foam from nostrils is a sign of what?

A

pulmonary edema secondary to upper airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment of upper airway obstruction causing resp distress

A

emergent trachetomy +/- furosemide for pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

example of intrathoracic obstructive disorders

A

asthma or heaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

example of intrathoracic restrictive disorders

A

pneumonia, pleuritis
pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatments for intrathoracic disorders

A

bronchodilators
steroids
epinephrine
pleurocentesis

24
Q

airflow turbulence determined by?

A

airflow velocity
airway lumen architecture

25
Q

what would you hear with pleural effusion, consolidation or masses and where

A

ventral chest
dull quality, soft intensity, high pitch

26
Q

what would you hear with a pneumothorax and where

A

dorsal chest
clear quality, loud intensity, low pitch

27
Q

common equine respiratory viruses

A

EHV-1,4
equine influenza
equine viral arteritis virus

28
Q

EHV-1 symptoms

A

respiratory
abortion storms
neonatal foal death
neurologic (equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy)
chorioretinopathy

29
Q

EHV-4 symptoms

A

respiratory
sporadic abortion

30
Q

pathogenesis of EHV

A
  1. infection of resp epithelium of URT
  2. infection of LN
  3. cell associated viremia responsible for vascular endothelium infection of the uterus and CNS
31
Q

true/false
just because a horse has the neuropathic strain of EHV does not mean they have CNS signs

A

true

32
Q

what EHV causes Equine Multinodular Pulmonary Fibrosis (EMPF)

A

EHV-5

33
Q

what EHV causes coital exanthema

A

EHV-3

34
Q

diagnostics for an active infection of EHV

A

whole blood sample (buffy coat due to cell associated viremia)
NOT serum unless it’s a CF titer > 1:2048
nasal swab/resp secretions
tissue (fetal membranes/fluid or CNS tissue)

35
Q

what does a serum / virus neutralization titer > 1:1024 indicate for EHV

A

recent infection because vaccines do not induce high VN titers

36
Q

what does a complement fixation titer > 1:2048 indicate for EHV

A

preliminary evidence of infection - titers rise immediately after infection and peak rapidly

37
Q

control measures for EHV

A

isolation/husbandry
vaccination (does not protect against neuro disease)
antivirals (not rec)

38
Q

Equine Influenza pathogenesis

A
  1. lesions in LRT
  2. impairs mucociliary clearance & causes resp epithelial erosion
  3. bacterial pneumonia risk
39
Q

Diagnostic for Equine Influenza

A

nasal swabs
resp tissues
serum for acute & conv titers (retrospective info)

RT-PCR more sensitive than virus isolation

40
Q

Equine Influenza control

A

husbandy/isolation
vaccination (best control)
antivirals (not rec)

41
Q

Equine Arteritis Virus symptoms

what is responsible for majority of the clinical signs

A

sporadic resp disease in adults
abortion
fatal pneumonia & enteritis in foals

nasal discharge, ocular discharge, “pink eye”, photophobia, skin rash, ventral edema, edema in lower limbs, scotrum and mammary glands

vasculitis

42
Q

what is the key to the persistence of EAV in the equine population

A

stallions as the carriers

43
Q

EAV carrier state in stallions is _____ dependent

A

testosterone

castration resolves infection

44
Q

diagnostic samples for EAV

A

semen, nasal/eye swabs, serum, whole blood or tissues

45
Q

what is the gold standard for detection of serum antibodies to EAV

A

microneutralization of serum

46
Q

how to confirm the carrier state for EAV

A

virus isolation
PCR
test breed a suspect stallion to two seronegative mares which are monitored for clinical signs and seroconversion

47
Q

vaccinations for EAV

A

safe in stallions & non-pregnant mares
cannot differentiate vx titer from natural infection (NOT DIVA)
protects stallions against becoming carriers

48
Q

what other clinical signs does pleuropneumonia include in addition to fever, lethargy, anorexia, mucopurulent discharge, increased rr

A

edema in forelimb & chest
no/mild cough

49
Q

pathogenesis of pneumonia

A

impaired upper airway defenses (cough, epithelium, clearance)

50
Q

pathogenesis of pleuropneumonia

A

exudative stage
fibropurulent stage
organization stage

51
Q

bacteria involved in pneumonia? pleuropneumonia?

A

pneumonia - gram + (S. zooepidemicus & R. equi), gram -

pleuropneumonia - gram +, gram - and anaeorbes

52
Q

Describe the risk factors for pleuro/pneumonia.

A

transportation
race horses, racing
influenza
general anesthesia
overcrowing, parasites, malnutrition, heat stress, congenital immunodeficiences, concurrent diseases in foals

53
Q

diagnostics for pneumonia & pleuropneumonia

A

thoracic ultrasound
TTW/aspirate + culture

54
Q

medical treatment for pneumonia

A

pencillin, ampicillin, TMS

55
Q

medical treatment for pleuropneumonia

A

pencillin combined with aminoglycoside (gentamicin)
enrofloxacin
TMS
chloramphenicol
metronidazole (anaerobes)

Clinical Sciences (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions