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A&P I IPAP 3-17 > Exam 4 Skeletal System General > Flashcards

Exam 4 Skeletal System General Flashcards

1
Q

What portion of the Sphenoid Bone is the passageway for the Oculomotor Nerve (CN-III), Trochlear Nerve (CN-IV), Abducens Nerve (CN-VI), and Ophthalmic Branch (V1) of Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Superior Orbital Fissure

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2
Q

What branch of the Trigeminal (CN-V) passes through the Foramen Rotundum?

A

Maxillary Branch (V2)

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3
Q

What branch of the Trigeminal (CN-V) passes through the Foramen Ovale?

A

Mandibular Branch (V3)

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4
Q

What does the pneumonic Standing Room Only stand for? Regarding Branches of Trigeminal Nerve (CN-V)

A
  • Superior Orbital Fissure (V1)
  • Foramen Rotundum (V2)
  • Foramen Ovale (V3)
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5
Q

What portion of the Sphenoid Bone holds the Pituitary Gland?

A

Sella Turcica

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6
Q

What bone forms part of the Anterior portion of the cranial floor, medial wall of the orbits, superior portion of nasal septum, and superior side walls of the nasal cavity?

A

Ethmoid Bone

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7
Q

What attaches to the Falx Cerebri (dura mater subdivision that separates right and Left Cerebral Hemispheres)?

A

Crista Galli

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8
Q

The Lateral Masses of the Ethmoid Bone contain what?

A

Ethmoid Sinuses

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9
Q

What portions of the Ethmoid Bone increase vascular surface (warms air) and causes inhaled air to swirl and impact mucus (Filters Air)?

A

Superior and Middle Nasal Conchae

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10
Q

What portion of the Ethmoid Bone participate in sense of smell (Olfactory Receptors)?

A

Olfactory Foramina

Superior Conchae

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11
Q

What is the name of the suture that unites the two Parietal Bones?

A

Sagittal Suture

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12
Q

What is the name of the suture that unites the Parietal and Occipital Bone?

A

Lambdoid Suture

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13
Q

What are areas of dense connective tissue membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones of fetuses and infants that remain unossified at birth but close early in childhood?

A

Fontanels

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14
Q

Name the Major Fontanels?

A

Anterior
Posterior
Anterolateras
Posterolaterals

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15
Q

What are the Major Functions of the Fontanels?

A
  • Enable fetal skull to modify size and shape as it passes through birth canal
  • Permit rapid growth of the brain (Infancy)
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16
Q

What are the Muscles that move the Mandible?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Pterygoids

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17
Q

Where do the muscles that move the mandible have their origin and insert where?

A

Origin: Skull
Insert: Mandible

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18
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles that move the mandible?

A

Trigeminal Nerve (CN-V)

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19
Q

Every Muscle of Facial Expression is innervated by which nerve?

A

Facial Nerve (CN-VII)

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20
Q

What muscle originates (arises) from sternum and clavicle and inserts onto mastoid process of the temporal bone?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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21
Q

What Cranial Nerve innervates the Sternocleidomastoid Muscle?

A

CN- XI (Accessory)

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22
Q

Contraction of both Sternocleidomastoid Muscles causes the head and cervical vertebrae to do what?

A
  • Flexes the cervical vertebrae (Chin to manubrium)

- Extends Head (thrust chin forward, keeping head level)

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23
Q

Contraction of one Sternocleidomastoid does what?

A

Laterally flexes the neck and rotates face in opposite direction

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24
Q

What muscle group attaches the cervical vertebrae to the uppermost ribs and participate in forced inspiration?

A

Scalene Muscle Group

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25
Q

This muscle group is innervated by cervical spinal nerves (C3-C8) and Flex, laterally flex, and rotate the head?

A

Scalene Muscle Group

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26
Q

What are the muscles of Inhalation broken down by quite and forced Inhalation?

A

Quite: External Intercostals, Diaphragm
Forced: Sternocleidomastoid
Scalenes

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27
Q

What are the muscles of Exhalation (all forced)?

A 
Internal Intercostals
External Oblique
Internal Oblique
Transversus Abdominis
Rectus Abdominis
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28
Q

How many bones is the human skeleton made up of?

A

206

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29
Q

What are the principal divisions the adult skeleton is grouped into?

A

Axial Skeleton

Appendicular Skeleton

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30
Q

Of the Axial Skeleton; How many bones make-up the Cranium and Face?

A

Cranium: 8
Face: 14

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31
Q

Of the Axial Skeleton; Home many bones for each of the following are there, Hyoid, Auditory Ossicles, Vertebral Column, Thorax?

A 
Hyoid: 1
Auditory Ossicles: 6
Vertebral Column: 26
Thorax:
     Sternum: 1
     Ribs: 24
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32
Q

What is the number of bones that make-up the Axial Skeleton?

A

80

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33
Q

Of the Appendicular Skeleton; the Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdles, the Clavicle and Scapula are how many bones?

A

Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdles:
Clavicle: 2
Scapula: 2

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34
Q

Of the Appendicular Skeleton; the Upper Limbs (Extremities) Name the general bones and number?

A 
Upper Limbs (Extremities)
     Humerus: 2
     Ulna: 2
     Radius: 2
     Carpals: 16
     Metacarpals: 10
     Phalanges: 28
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35
Q

Of the Appendicular Skeleton; how many bones make-up the Pelvic (hip) girdle?

A

Pelvic (Hip) Girdle:

Hip, Pelvic, Coxal Bone: 2

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36
Q

Of the Appendicular Skeleton; Name the general bone names of the Lower limbs and the number of bones?

A 
Lower Limbs (Extremities)
    Femur: 2
    Patella: 2
    Fibula: 2
    Tibia: 2
    Tarsals: 14
    Metatarsals: 10
    Phalanges: 28
37
Q

Name The basic types of bones.

A 
Long
Short
Flat
Irregular
Sesamoid
38
Q

Give some characteristics of Long Bones:

A
  • Greater Length than width
  • Consist of shaft and Extremities
  • Slight curve increase strength
  • Diaphyses: compact bone (mostly)
  • Epiphyses: Spongy bone (Commonly)
39
Q

Name some examples of Long Bones.

A 
Femur
Tibia
Humerus
Ulna
Radius
40
Q

Give some characteristics of Short Bones:

A
  • Nearly equal length and Width

- Spongy bone except at surface (thin compact bone layer)

41
Q

Name some examples of Short Bones.

A

Carpal Bones (Except Pisiform, which is a sesamoid bone)

42
Q

Name the Characteristics of Flat Bone:

A
  • Thin
  • Composed Two nearly parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone
  • Provide protection
  • Extensive areas for muscle attachment
43
Q

Name some examples of Flat Bones.

A

Cranial Bones
Sternum
Ribs
Scapulae

44
Q

Name the Characteristics of Sesamoid Bones:

A
  • Develop in certain tendons that have considerable friction, tension, and physical stress
  • Vary from person to person
  • Not always completely ossified
45
Q

What is the function of Sesamoid Bones?

A
  • Protect tendons from excessive wear and tear

- Change of direction of pull of a tendon, thereby improving mechanical advantage at joint (may)

46
Q

Name some examples of Sesamoid Bones.

A

Patellae

Pisiform

47
Q

Key Characteristics of Sutural Bones (Aka Wormian Bones)?

A
  • Classified by location rather
  • Small bone located in sutures between cranial bones
  • Numbers vary greatly
  • Formed due to additional ossification centers in or near sutures
  • Most Commonly found in Lambdoid suture
48
Q

Key Characteristics of Irregular Bones?

A
  • Complex shape

- Varying amount of spongy and compact bone

49
Q

Name some examples of Irregular Bones.

A

Vertebrae
Hip Bones
Calcaneus

50
Q

What is a shallow depression in a bone called?

A

Fossa

51
Q

What is an opening the bone called?

A

Foramen

52
Q

What is a groove in a bone called?

A

Sulcus

53
Q

What is a tubelike passageway or canal in a bone called?

A

Meatus

54
Q

What is the part on a bond that is a large, round prominence at the end of a bone, typically part of a joint called?

A

Condyle

55
Q

What is the part of a bone that is a bony prominence on each side of the ankle called?

A

Malleolus

56
Q

What is the smooth flat articular surface of a bone called?

A

Facet

57
Q

What is the part of a bone that is a relatively small projection or bump called?

A

Eminence

58
Q

What is a very large projection on a bone called?

A

Trochanter

59
Q

What is a large, rounded, typically roughened projection on a bone called?

A

Tuberosity

60
Q

What is a small, rounded projection on a bone called?

A

Tubercle

61
Q

What are key differences between Tubercle and tuberosity’s?

A
  • Tubercles: typically near head of a bone

- Tuberosity: on shaft or base of a bone

62
Q

What is the physiological cross-section of a muscle?

A

Section that passes through practically all muscle fibers

63
Q

What is muscle force proportional to?

A

Physiological cross-section

64
Q

What is muscle velocity proportional to?

A

Muscle Fiber Length

65
Q

What type of muscle has considerable power over a short range of movement?

A

Pennate Muscles

66
Q

What type of muscle produces greater speed over a longer range of movement?

A

Parallel and fusiform

67
Q

What term is used to refer to a muscle that causes the desired action?

A

Prime Mover or Agonist

68
Q

What term is used to refer to a muscle that stretches and yields to the prime mover?

A

Antagonist

69
Q

What term is used to refer to a muscle that contracts to stabilize nearby joints?

A

Synergists

70
Q

What term is used to refer to a muscle that stabilizes the origin of the prime mover?

A

Fixator

71
Q

What is Hilton’s Law?

A

The nerve that innervates a joint tends to innervate the muscles that move the joint, and the skin that covers the attachments of those muscles

72
Q

What is caused by physical compression or irritation of major nerve trunks and peripheral nerves, producing distant nerve pain symptoms?

A

Entrapment Neuropathy

73
Q

What are some other terms that can refer to Entrapment Neuropathy?

A

Neuralgia
Neuritis
Pinched Nerve
Trapped Nerve

74
Q

Name the syndromes if the Neck is the sight in which, Symptoms of Entrapment neuropathy in the upper limbs occurs?

A
  • Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
  • Costoclavicular syndrome
  • Cervical rib syndrome
  • Scalenus Anterior Syndrome
75
Q

Symptoms in the upper limbs for entrapment neuropathy if the shoulder is the site would be called what?

A

Supraclavicular Neuritis

76
Q

Symptoms in the upper limbs for entrapment neuropathy if the Elbow is the site would be called what?

A
  • Ulnar Neuritis
  • Median Neuritis
  • Radial Neuritis
77
Q

What are some Entrapment Neuropathies at the site of the wrist named?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Ulnar Neuritis

78
Q

If Entrapment Neuropathy causes symptoms in the lower limbs caused at the site of the hip it would possibly be what?

A

Piriformis Syndrome

79
Q

Entrapment Neuropathy causing symptoms in the lower leg may be brought on by what?

A

Compartment Syndrome

80
Q

What are some Entrapment Neuropathies at the site of the foot named?

A
  • Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
  • Medial Plantar Neuritis
  • Digital Neuritis
  • Deep Fibular Neuritis (Deep Peroneal Neuritis)
81
Q

What symptoms can be associated with Entrapment Neuropathy?

A

Tingling and Pain

-Followed or accompanied by reduced sensation or complete numbness

82
Q

What signs can be associated with Entrapment Neuropathy?

A

Observed: Muscle weakness (Later than Symptoms and may associate w/ atrophy)

83
Q

What are some treatments for Entrapment Neuropathy?

A
  • Joint and Muscle Mobilization
  • Weight Loss (if underlying cause)
  • Injections (reduce inflammation)
  • Pregnancy related no Treatment
  • Surgical Decompression
84
Q

What are the two main circulatory routes?

A

Systemic

Pulmonary

85
Q

What are the four sections of the Aorta?

A

Ascending Aorta
Arch of the Aorta
Thoracic Aorta
Abdominal Aorta

86
Q

What are Venae Comitantes?

A

Veins that closely accompany arteries

87
Q

What benefits arise from Venae Comitantes?

A
  • Countercurrent Heat Exchange

- Arteriovenous Pump

88
Q

What is defined by: all the muscles or parts of muscles receiving innervation from one spinal nerve?

A

Myotome

89
Q

In Anatomy Recurrent mean?

A

Running in reverse Direction/ Turning back so as to reverse direction

A&P I IPAP 3-17 (16 decks)

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