Exam 4 LO Flashcards

1
Q

Major roles of saliva

A

Starch breakdown
Food solubilization
Protection
Absorption
Lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Major digestive enzyme present in the saliva, responsible for starch breakdown

A

alpha amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alpha amylase’s ability to function depends on…

A

how well food is chewed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Starch breakdown is important in the mouth because…

A

amylase is deactivated in the stomach due to acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Breaking down food releases chemicals that activate…

A

taste receptors in mouth, if something doesn’t get broken down then you cannot taste it as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In food solubilization, dissolved chemicals diffuse into…

A

pores in tongue, sensed by taste hairs that depolarize the membrane—activating NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Protects against chewing of sharp material

A

Mucins producing thick mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pH of saliva and it’s role

A

Alkaline pH buffers against acidic foods and stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Absorption of what molecules can occur directly in the mouth? What happens when molecules are absorbed directly in the mouth?

A

Low molecular weight. they bypass (bypass hepatic portal vein) the first round of liver metabolism and go straight into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do mucins produce and how it is relevant for lubrication?

A

glycoproteins that coat the food so you can move it around and important for swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Swallowing is what kind of reflex

A

Long reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the voluntary phase of swallowing

A

Tongue pushes food bolus back and upward’s towards the back of the mouth, once food touches the soft palate and back of mouth which triggers swallowing reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain the pharyngeal phase of swallowing

A

Medulla initiates swallowing reflex, causing soft palate to elevate, closing the glottis and opening the esophageal sphincter (once food moves into esophagus and sphincter closes, glottis opens and breathing continues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain reflex arc of swallowing
Controlled variable:
Stimulus:
Sensor:
Input:
Controlled center:
Output:
Effectors:
Response:
Negative feedback:

A

Controlled variable: open and clear back of mouth
Stimulus: food touching palate
Sensor: mechanoreceptor
Input: afferent neuron
Controlled center: medulla
Output: somatic motor neuron
Effectors: skeletal muscle
Response: contract,elevate soft palate; larynx closes and epiglottis moves down; opening of UES (relaxation)
Negative feedback: moves bolus to clear back of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What occurs in the esophageal phase

A

food moves down esophogus by peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As food moves into the stomach, the LES…

A

relaxes and opens allowing food to enter into stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If food gets stuck what occurs?

A

Short reflexes will continue peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Distinguish between the walls of the esophagus and those represented by small intestine

A

GI tract has smooth muscle
Upper 3rd of esophogus has skeletal muscle
Lower 2/3rds of esophogus has smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Stretch of smooth muscle responds by contraction in ENS

A

myogenic reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain what happens at the cellular level with stretching of smooth muscle

A

stretch activates mechanically gated channels, allowing calcium to enter the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Higher calcium concentration where?

A

Outside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain what happens at the subcellular level with stretching of smooth muscle

A
  1. calcium in cell binds to calmodulin forming the ca-calmodulin complex
  2. Ca-calmodulin complex activates MLCK
  3. Active MLCK binds to and phosphorylates myosin
  4. Myosin binds to actin, initiating contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If MLCK is elevated what occurs:

If you inhibit phosphorylation of myosin:

A

more likely to be contracted

Predict it will lead to muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the reflex arc in esophogus that responds to stretch
Controlled variable:
Stimulus:
Sensor:
Input:
Controlled center:
Output:
Effectors:
Response:
Negative feedback:

A

Controlled variable: Muscle length
Stimulus: Stretch
Sensor: Mechanoreceptor (sensitive to stretch)
Input: Sensory neuron
Controlled center: ENS (interneuron)
Output:Myenteric plexus (innervate smooth muscle)
Effectors: Smooth muscle (contracts in response to ENS input)
Response: Contraction
Negative feedback: Moves bolus and restores muscle length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe how the closing of the LES is aided by positive pressure abdominal pressure
LES located outside thoracic cavity because it experiences normal atm pressure which helps keep the LES closed, forming a barrier between acid and esophogus
26
What is Gatroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD)? Who is at risk?
High pressure in stomach At risk: Obsese people, pregnant women, anyone who has overeaten
27
What is the role of longitudinal muscle? Circular? in the muscularis externia
Long= propels food in one direction Circular= wraps around the intestine and closes off the lumen in contraction
28
What occurs in the mucosa?
90% absorption
29
What innervates the GI tract?
Submucosa
30
Role of the submucosa
Enzyme secretion of glands, filled with BV and glands
31
The inner most layer, facing the inside of the stomach
Gastric mucosa
32
The gastric mucosa is able to secrete...? What does it contain
Mucus and bicarb; G cells, delta cells, and parietal cells
33
Characteristics of mucus secretion
80% carb chains, alkaline, high in bicarb
34
Only substance secreted by the stomach that's essential to life
Intrinsic factor
35
Large glycoprotein that complexes with vitamin B12
Intrinsic factor
36
When is vitamin B12 absorbed?
When complexed with intrinsic factor (in intenstine)
37
Explain how acidic environment helps with iron absorption?
Iron absorbed as ferrous iron (Fe2+); acidic environment helps prepare the iron absorption in intestine
38
People taking anti-acids or a proton pump inhibitor can suffer from...
1. Iron mal-absorption (If ferrous iron is oxidized) 2. Bacterial infections (less acidic enviornment to kill bacteria) 3. Decreased activation of pepsinogen and protein digestion (pepsin cannot be formed)
39
Function of mucus
lubricates food, protects against acidic stomach
40
Play a critical role in maintaining mucosal integrity, HCO3- secretion, and mucus production
Prostagladins
41
What is the effect of drugs that inhibit prostaglandins?
Drugs: NSAIDS, ibuprofen; ulcers
42
Intrinsic factor secreted from partietal cells stimulated by...
ACh, gastrin, and histamine with vitamin b12 to permit absorption
43
Explain the long reflex (extrinsic)
Chemo/Mechanoreceptor--> sensory neuron--> medulla--> vagus nerve-->smooth muscle cell/gland--> muscle contraction or secretion
44
What is typically secreted for the long reflex mechanism of acid secretion
Acetylcholine release from submucosal plexus and PSNS that binds parietal cell
45
What is typically secreted for the Short reflex mechanism of acid secretion
Acetylcholine release from submucosal plexus and PSNS that binds parietal cell
46
Explain the short reflex (intrinsic)
Chemo/Mechanoreceptor--> sensory neuron-->interneuron--> myenteric/submucosal plexus (ENS)-->smooth muscle cell/gland--> muscle contraction or secretion
47
What is typically secreted for the paracrine mechanism of acid secretion
histamine is released from H cells that bind receptors present in neighboring parietal cells
48
What is typically secreted for the endocrine mechanism of acid secretion
G cells in mucosa secrete gastrin into blood that binds to receptors on the parietal cell and histamine cell (allowing for histamine release)
49
One cell releases a hormone that affects a neighboring cell (close target), acts on a nearby cell that expresses the hormone's receptor
Paracrine
50
Hormone released into the blood and effects cells expressing the hormone's receptor (too far for diffusion)
Endocrine
51
Outputs for Long and short reflex
Long- parasym NS Short- ENS
52
what is the mechanism for acid secretion in the lumen of stomach
1. Co2 from blood is converted into H+ and HCO3- (by CA) 2. H+ is pumped against its gradient by proton pump into the lumen of stomach 3. HCO3- moves into the blood through Cl- exchanger, making blood that moves through stomach more basic (alkaline tide)
53
What is the proton pump
Moves H out and K in through primary transport
54
Lowering the hydrogen ion concentration results in...
CO2 diffusion into the cell
55
What is the inhibitor of acid secretion and explain how it inhibits?
Somatostatin released by delta cells if high H+ in lumen; acts directly on pariteal cell
56
If someone is over-produicing gastrin what can you expect to happen?
increased HCl levels and increased histamine release
57
An inactive enzyme synthesized and stored intracellularly. Give an example.
Zymogen, pepsinogen
58
Zymogen is released by __ and to be activated....
chief cells, requires acid presence
59
Explain pepsin's activation, regulation, and function.
Activation= pepsinogen activated by HCl in stomach lumen (HCl cleaves pepsinogen into pepsin) Regulation= by acid secretion in stomach lumen Function= enzyme responsible for cleaving proteins and peptides in stomach, responsible for 20% protein digestion
60
Describe how the gastric muscularis promotes mechanical breakup of chyme through peristalsis
3 muscle layers: oblique, circular, and longitidudinal Peristalsis allows mixing and moving of chyme (1 way movement)
61
Explain the Basal electrical rhythm (BER)
Pacemaker cells in stomach generate a spontaneous, rhythmic depolarization---resulting in contraction of the long. muscle
62
Describe the intrinsic BER
Myogenic and submucosal plexus, short reflexes
63
Describe the extrinsic stimulators of motility in the stomach. Shift? What's released?
1. Parasym. NS= increased activation shifts the resting MP toward threshold (increases # of AP) 2. Sym NS= increased activation shifts the resting MP away from threshold (decreasing # of AP) Parasym NS releases ACH on pacemaker cells Sym NS releases norepi (inhibitory) on pacemaker cells
64
Describe the interaction of excitatory and inhibitory stimuli in regulation of gastric emptying
Increased PSNS would increase gastric emptying, decreased PSNS would decrease emptying Increased sym output would lead to less/decreased gastric emptying
65
When food enters the stomach, what happens to the pH? When there's gastric emptying, what happens to the pH?
increases, excitatory decreases, inhibits acid
66
The myenteric plexus receives its messages from the
vagus nerve
67
Produces peristaltic waves
submucosa plexus
68
Describe the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on the intrinsic activity of the gut....
Sympathetic= release NE on smooth muscle and pacemaker cells, inhibits digestive activity (decrease AP) Parasympathetic= release ACh on smooth muscle and pacemaker cells, stimulates digestive activity (Increase AP)
69
Biggest contributor to parasympathetics stimulation of GI tract/gut is....
Vagus nerve
70
The ENS serves as the control center for...
local short reflexes
71
The ENS respond to what kind of input from the SNS and PSNS
Extrinsic
72
Stretching activates sensory neurons that increase motility through the...
activation of the ENS (stretch increases Ca2+ permeability)
73
What are the effects of stretch on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
opens the mechanically gated Ca2+ channels, causing Ca2+ to flow into the cell allowing for contraction
74
What are the effects of Ach on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
As Ach binds to the receptor, it will increase the rate of pacemaker firing and calcium into the cell---increasing contraction/strength of contraction
75
What are the effects of atropine on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
blocks Ach from binding to and activating the GPCR, relaxing the smooth muscle (no contraction)
76
What are the effects of epi/norepi on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
As epi binds to the receptor, it inhibits Ca2+ release from the SR and decreases the rate of pacemaker firing--leading to muscle relaxation Epi/norepi hyper-polarizes the membrane
77
What are the effects of elevated extracellular K+ on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
cell depolarizes to threshold which promotes pacemaker cells to generate AP's quicker and increases intracellular Ca2+----muscle contraction
78
If you elevate the extracellular K+ on the smooth muscle GI tissue, what happens to the gradient
increases the gradient (Increase ECF K+ depolarizes the cell by preventing K+ from exiting)
79
What are the effects of BaCl--K+ inhibitor on the smooth muscle GI tissue (from lab)
BaCl causes our muscles to produce less/weaker contractions because re-polarization inhibits pacemaker cells from reaching threshold as often (intracellular Ca2+ decreases)
80
Describe the contraction in the intestine (peristaltic waves)
A slow wave must reach threshold 1. The depolarization from the AP spreads through the intestine (gap junctions) depolarizing smooth muscle cells. 2. Depolarization is sensed by voltage gated Ca2+ channels causing them to open. 3. Ca2+ enters the smooth muscle cells and initiates muscle contraction.
81
Distension of the stomach ___ force of contractions and rate of emptying
increases
82
Presence of fat, acid, and amino acids in the intestine ___ gastric motility
inhibits
83
Waves of contraction become stronger as it moves towards the __. What occurs here? What else is affected?
antrum; most of mixing, pyloric sphincter starts relaxing (and open)
84
Somatostatin inhibits acid secretion and ____ Somatostatin is released in response to what?
release of CCK and secretin from enteroendocrine cell Increased H levels, CCK, and secretin
85
Effects of secretin, CCK, and enteroendocrine cells on gastric emptying/motility
inhibit gastric emptying/motility
86
Force and duration of muscle contractions are directly related to...
frequency of AP's
87
As a peristaltic wave moves toward the antrum, what happens to the pyloric sphincter?
Opens and then shuts allowing small amount of chyme to be released from stomach into SI
88
Where are precursor cells located
Crypts of L
89
Replace the dying epithelium by dividing and pushing cells upward to repolarize the villi tip from hypoxic environment
Precursor cells
90
90% of villi cells are
absorptive cells
91
Abundant in the first part of the intestine when we have a high level of acid coming from chyme in the stomach
Goblet cells
92
Entereoendocrine cells are located
villi
93
Describe the countercurrrent mechanism of villi
Tip of the villi becomes hypoxic because the oxygen is high as it enters the villi, diffuses down gradient into the venous blood (arterial and venous blood mixed) :cells then die
94
Highest turnover rate of cells is in the
SI
95
Relationship between precursor cells and chemotherapy/radiation
Chemo targets= fast dividing cells such as precursor cells
96
Role of circular folds in the SI
maximize absorption by increasing SA and increase surface diffusion
97
Why is it important to neutralize chyme
Enzyme function Mucosal protection Micelle formation
98
Secretin is released by ___ in response to ___
enteroendocrine cells, increased H+
99
Explain the mechanism of secretin acting on the pancreas and SI
1. As CO2 diffuses into a ductal cell in pancreas, HCO3 and H+ is formed by CA 2. HCO3- is pumped down gradient though HCO3/Cl- exchanger (secondary transport) into lumen of SI from pancreas 3. HCO3- helps neutralize gastric acid
100
Secretin goes to the __, activates ___ to release ___ from _____ to _____
pancreas, ductal cells, bicarb, pancreatic duct to SI
101
Secretin in the blood has what effect on gastric motility CCK in the blood has what effect on gastric motility Gastrin has what effect on gastric motility
Inhibits Inhibits Stimulates
102
If enteroendocrine cells cannot secrete secretin (if there's a mutation for example) what effect does this have?
no bicarb production and cannot neutralize pH in intestine
103
If there's a plug in the pancreatic duct or an obstruction in duct, what effect does this have?
Bicarb cannot move into the SI (low pH in SI) but secretin is still being secreted
104
Hormone released from mucosal cells in response to fasting
Motilin
105
Motilin stimulates the Migrating Motor Complex that....
increases intestinal peristalsis (long peristalic wave from stomach to LI)
106
CCK is released from ____ when in the presence of ___
enteroendocrine cells; fats, peptides, and carbs
107
Signals the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from liver into SI
CCK
108
Describe CCK secretion
1. When an increase in lipase, CCK secreted from enteroendocrine cells into the blood 2. From the blood CCK.... - Targets pancreas to release digestive enzymes to digest lipids that go to the lumen of SI - Targets gall bladder to secrete bile to emulsify fat in prep for absorption
109
What cell releases digestive enzymes and zymogens in the pancreas
Acinar cells
110
Breaks up fat allowing digestive enzymes to digest and breakup fats and amino acids
Bile
111
Potent stimulator for acid secretion
Gastrin
112
Gastrin is secreted from the ___
Antrum by G cells
113
How does gastrin work to stimulate gastric motility
Gastrin binds to receptors on the parietal cells (for acid release) and histamine cells
114
What controls the movement of peristalsis and segmentation
ENS: Intrinsic
115
Serve as a control for short reflexes
Interneurons in the ENS
116
Stretch activates mechanoreceptors on sensory nerves that ____ motility by activating the ____
increase, myenteric plexus
117
Acid in the SI activates ___ on the sensory nerves that increase ____ by activating the ___
chemoreceptors, bicarb secretion, submucosal plexus
118
What controls the forward movement and mechanical breakup of the chyme
Long reflex (ANS)
119
Explain how the ANS/neural (long reflex) effects gastric motility (digestive activity)
Parasym (vagus) NS= cholinergic fibers (Ach) stimulates digestive activity Sympathetic= NE inhibits digestive activity
120
Pancreas has an exocrine function because
it releases secretin and CCK into pancreatic DUCT
121
Describe protein digestion
1. Digestive enzymes from acinar cells enter into the small intestine (as zymogens) from pancreatic duct 2. Trypsinogen is activated by brush border enzymes on microvilli (convert into trypsin) 3. Trypsin activates other inactive enzymes to break down proteins
122
Protein is broken down into…
Smaller peptides then single AA
123
Describe carbohydrate digestion
Glucose polymers to disaccharides to monosaccharides (broken down by amylase) Digestive enzymes breakdown glucose
124
Describe fat digestion…
Large lipid globules + bile salts= small lipid globules
125
Don’t break bonds but separating larger lipids into smaller lipids
Emulsification, bile salts
126
Describe the process of fat absorption
1. Bile salts from liver coat fat droplets (emulsification) 2. Lipases from pancreas break down fat into monoglycerides and fatty acids 3. Monoglycerides and fatty acids enter cells of SI by diffusion 4. Absorbed fats combine with cholesterol and proteins in the cell to form chylomicrons (lipid droplet) 5. Chylomicrons are removed by the lymphatic system by exocytosis into the vena cava
127
What effects do the parasympathetic and sympathetics have on the pancreas
Parasympathetic= enhances rate of secretion of alkaline juices (bicarbonate) and digestive enzymes Sympathetic= inhibits rate of secretion of alkaline juices (bicarbonate) and digestive enzymes
128
Identify the 3 main vessels that move blood and bile within the liver: What do they carry? Direction of flow?
1. Hepatic artery= arrives rich oxygenated blood, toward the central vein 2. Hepatic portal vein= nutrients, toward the central vein 3. Bile duct= bile from hepatocytes, away from central vein
129
Why do the hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery have in common?
Same direction of flow, oxygen and nutrients sent to every hepatocytes before dumped into central vein (mixed)
130
Describe carb absorption
Sodium moves down gradient into cell and glucose moves up gradient into the cell by sodium glucose transporter (2°)
131
Carbohydrate absorption prevents…
Glucose from leaving in feces
132
What are the ways protein can be absorbed (most to least common)
1. Amino acids enter the cell by 2° transport by Na+ down gradient (uses energy from Na/K ATPase) & AA in cell enter blood by facilitated diffusion 2. Di and tri-peptides co transport with H+ into the cell 3. Peptides carried across cell by transcytosis
133
Is Na+ high or low in the interstitial fluid
High
134
What enhances and inhibits the rate of secretion of alkaline juices (bicarbonate) and digestive enzymes from the pancreas
Ach parasympathetics=enhance NE sympathetics= inhibits
135
Describe the properties of a hormone
Potent in small concentrations, regulate biological functions, work thru certain receptors, work with other hormones to elicit a cellular response
136
Chemical substance secreted by a group of cells into bodily fluids that has a physiological effect on other cells that express the hormones receptors
Hormone
137
Steroid hormone derivative
Cholesterol
138
What hormone can diffuse through the membrane vs. cannot, dissolves in plasma
Diffuse through= steroid (non-polar, lipid soluble) Dissolves in plasma, no carrier= protein
139
In steroid hormones… Chemistry: Half life: Transportation: Receptor location: Mechanism of action:
Chemistry: slow acting but long lasting Half life: longer (longer to degrade) Transportation: protein carrier in the blood Receptor location: Intracellular receptor (in cell) Mechanism of action: initiates cellular transcription
140
How is the steroid hormone slow acting but long lasting
Slow acting: activate transcription and protein synthesis Long lasting: protein carriers shield the steroid hormone from degradation
141
Most common protein carrier
Albumin
142
Steps for the mechanism of action for steroid hormones
1. Lipid soluble hormone diffuses through plasma membrane 2. Hormone finds receptor in cell and binds to it 3. Hormone finds a specific DNA region 4. Produce mRNA —transcription of gene for effector protein 5. mRNA read by ribosome 6. Synthesis of effector protein—causes cellular response
143
Example of steroid hormones
Sex hormones
144
In body builders, testosterone is taken exogenously, which results in ___ formation because ___. As a result, they take a ___
Estrogen, balance Often take an aromatase inhibitor
145
In protein hormones… Chemistry: Half life: Transportation: Receptor location: Mechanism of action:
Chemistry: fast acting but short lasting Half life: short (not shielded in blood) Transportation: dissolved in the blood Receptor location: plasma membrane receptor Mechanism of action: binds plasma membrane receptors to second messenger system
146
How are protein hormones fast acting but short lasting?
Fast acting= amplification Short acting= freely degraded, not shielded like steroid hormones
147
Mechanism of action in protein hormone?
1. Protein hormone binds to receptor in plasma membrane 2. Binding activates a protein kinase 3. Protein kinase phosphorylates effector protein 4. Activates a cellular response
148
In what hormone is there no new protein synthesis occurring
Protein
149
Why can a small amount of protein hormone have s large cellular effects
Amplification
150
Activation at each step activates a larger and larger number of proteins in…
Amplification of 2nd messenger systems
151
Ability of a target cell to respond to a hormone
Sensitivity
152
What’s a reflection of the number of receptors more__ = more receptors
Sensitivity, sensitive
153
Decrease in number of receptors Increase in number of receptors
Down regulation, up regulation
154
What happens to receptor expression and sensitivity in down regulation vs. up regulation
Decreases vs increases
155
Chronic stress__ regulates GH receptor Exercise __ regulates insulin receptor number on muscle cells
Down Up
156
Hormone A has a small response but exposure of hormone A to this type of hormone results in a greater response
Permissive effect
157
Epinephrine weakly stimulates lipolysis but in the presence of T3 and T4 it strongly stimulates lipolysis (increase sensitivity)
Permissive hormone effect
158
Hormone A and B have a small effect on their own but when released together their effects are greater than the sum of the individual hormones
Synergistic hormone effects
159
Glucagon and epinephrine work to increase blood glucose levels on their own, but together blood glucose rises even further then the sum of the 2 individual effects
Synergistic
160
The binding of receptors to second messenger systems amplify the response of a signal in what type of hormone effect
Synergistic
161
One hormone opposes the actions of another hormone
Antagonistic
162
Insulin and glucagon have opposing results; insulin decreases glucose levels but glucagon increases glucose levels
Antagonistic hormone effect
163
Once an endocrine cell secretes a hormone into a fluid (like the blood) the hormone then… 1. 2.
1. Travels until it reaches a capillary bed where it diffuses out into the extracellular space (interstitial fluid) 2. Hormone binds to cells w its receptor and activates response
164
Explain carbohydrate metabolism function of the liver
Helps store excess glucose as glycogen and helps replenish plasma when glucose levels low
165
Explain conjugation of toxic substances in the liver
Increases the hydrophilicity of a substance (more contained and less toxic)
166
Where are conjugated substances of the liver released?
Released into blood/ cleared or secreted by kidneys (smaller particles) OR released with bile and cleared by intestine (large molecules)
167
How can the gallbladder get stimulated or inhibited?
Stimulated= CCK (parasympathetics) act directly on smooth muscle of gall bladder Sympathetic inhibit smooth muscle contraction
168
Why is emulsifying fats by bile important?
Increases SA for digestive enzymes to degrade lipids
169
Bile salts remain in the small intensive until….
Absorbed by the ileum
170
How are bile salts recycled?
Reabsorbed bile salts return back to gallbladder and wait to be secreted; small amount lost in feces
171
If bile salts/acids aren’t returned to the liver, what will the response be?
Liver increases bile production
172
Contractions of the haustra in the small intestine help….
Squeeze out water from feces
173
Function of mass movements of LI
Peristaltic contractions help propel feces forward
174
Internal anal sphincter: Type of muscle? Function?
Involuntary/smooth When feces touches this it relaxes
175
External anal sphincter: Type of muscle? Function?
Voluntary/ skeletal Have control over when we “hold it”
176
What reflex plays a larger role in inhibiting defecation
Long reflex
177
Explain the defecation reflex for long reflex
Stretch Mechanoreceptor Sensory nerve Integrating center: sacral spinal nerve Efferent nerve: parasympathetic activation Increased peristaltic waves in colon and rectum Relaxations of sphincters=defecation
178
Explain the short reflex defecation reflex
Stretch Mechanoreceptor Sensory nerve Integrating center: interneuron Efferent nerve: myenteric plexus Increased peristaltic waves in colon and rectum Relaxations of sphincters=defecation
179
stimulating hormones that target other glands resulting in the release of a second hormone (peripheral hormone)
Tropic hormones
180
Tropic hormones activated the release of what tier of hormones
3 for cellular response
181
move through the blood until they reach their target organ in the body
Peripheral hormones
182
A hormone that is secreted from the pituitary that does not elicit the secretion of a new hormone is a…
Direct hormone
183
A patient has a tumor in the anterior pituitary that causes hyper release of stimulating hormones. In regards to the cortisol pathway, which hormones would you expect to be elevated? What would be low?
ACTH and cortisol are elevated and CRH is low
184
A person with Graves disease produces proteins called antibodies that mimic the actions of TSH (The body thinks the antibodies are TSH). If you were to take a blood sample from this patient, describe the levels of TRH, TSH and T3 and T4 that you would expect to see.
TRH and TSH are decreasing T3 and T4= increasing
185
Explain the 3 tiers of the anterior pituitary
Tier 1= releasing hormones from hypothalamus Tier 2= delivery of hypothalamus hormones and release of AP hormones (stimulating hormones) Tier 3= delivery of AP hormones to target organs (peripheral hormones)
186
What is an extension of the hypothalamus and how
Posterior pituitary: neurosecretory cell bodies originate in the hypothalamus and axons extend into PP
187
What hormones do neurosecretory cells produce
Oxytocin and ADH
188
Doesn’t have specialized cells that secrete hormones
Posterior pituitary
189
Doesn’t synthesize hormones, hormones come from cells in hypothalamus
Posterior pituitary
190
Contains a set of hormone, special secreting cells that are sensitive to hormones secreted from hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
191
Hormones secretes by the hypothalamus will activate a subset of cells in the ___ that respond by secreting a 2nd hormone into the blood
Anterior pituitary
192
The neurons in the hypothalamus are connected to the anterior pituitary by
Portal system
193
Functions of growth hormone?
1. Metabolic switch (direct)= occurs during short periods of fasting to maintain blood sugar (body switches from using glucose for energy to using fatty acids) 2. Promote growth (tropic)= GH activates the release of insulin such as (IGF-1)
194
Promotes the growth and development of bones, neurons, and other tissues
IGF-1
195
Effect of cartilage cells with IGF
Cartilage cells increase with IGF
196
What happens to the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate before puberty
when stimulated by IGF —> causes you to grow
197
What happens to the growth plate after puberty
Seals and calcifies (adult height)
198
What is growth hormones role after puberty
Maintains bone
199
Excessive bone growth= Excessive growth causes bone thickening and soft tissue overgrowth=
Gigantism Acromegaly
200
Increasing the peripheral hormones has what effect on releasing and stimulating hormones
Inhibits them (tier 3 inhibits tier 1 and 2)
201
Increasing the stimulating hormones has what effect on the releasing hormone
Inhibits (tier 2 inhibits 1)
202
Inhibiting the release of releasing and stimulating hormone allows for…
Regulation of the amount of peripheral hormone
203
Stimulates gluconeogenesis, raise BP, anti-inflammatory
Cortisol
204
What’s the stimulus for cortisol release
Stress (low blood sugar, trauma, cytokines)
205
Describe the cycle of cortisol release and negative feedback
Stress—> CRH released through the hypothalamic portal system —> ACTH released in bloodstream —> cortisol released from the adrenal gland Increases in cortisol inhibits the release of CRH and ACTH
206
Regulates BMR, enhance actions of epi, regulate development of nervous tissue and growth
Thyroid (T3 and T4)
207
Stimulus of thyroid (T3 and T4)
Low blood levels of T3 and T4
208
Describe the cycle of thyroid (T3 and T4) release and negative feedback
Low levels in blood —> TRH released through the hypothalamic portal system -> TSH released in bloodstream —> release of T3 and T4 Increasing T3 and T4 inhibit the release of TRH and TSH
209
Stimulus of growth hormone release
Hypoglycemia, low fatty acids in blood, and deep sleep
210
Describe the cycle of growth hormone release and negative feedback
Stimulus—> GHRH released through the hypothalamic portal system —> GH released —> release of IGF 1 (tropic) and direct effects on metabolism Increasing GH and IGF-1 inhibits the release of GHRH and GH
211
Protein digestion first occurs in the stomach before the small intestine by…
Pepsin, from pepsinogen and acidic environment
212
Absorption of water relies on the absorption of
Sodium
213
If sodium moves into the cell, then the water concentration on the outside of the cell ___
Increases
214
Increased testosterone in the plasma would feedback negatively to the hypothalamus __________ GnRH.
Inhibiting
215
Decreased GnRH leads to a decrease in
FSH and LH
216
Is homeostasis a steady state or equilibrium
Steady state
217
Dynamic process that uses the systems of the body to maintain a constant internal environment
Homeostasis
218
What fluid is regulated by homeostasis
Interstitial fluid
219
Interstitial fluid is directly related to
Plasma, if plasma o2 drops then interstitial o2 drops
220
What is not considered a part of the internal environment
Intracellular fluid
221
Semen composed of
Sperm cells and seminal plasma
222
Most semen comes from
Accessory organs
223
Support and protect the developing sperm
Sertoli cells
224
Describe the sperm anatomy
Head = acrosome, helps egg and sperm fuse in fertilization (contains enzymes) Midpiefe= mitochondria to provide atp for tail Tail= allow movement in ejaculation
225
Describe meiosis in males and females in reproductive system
Parent cell germ cell 1. Diploid (23 and 23) 2. Crossing over occurs: 46 and 46 3. Divides into 2 cells (each with two 23 - cells are genetically different from parent) 4. Those cells divide into 4 cells, haploid that are unique In females: 1 parent cell= 1 egg cell (oocyte) and 3 polar bodies
226
Describe mitosis in reproduction
Parent cell is somatic cell 1. Begins with a diploid cell 2. Dna replication, cell contains 2 sets of 46 3. Splits into two cells each with two sets of 23 (genetically identical)
227
Explain the process of gametogenesis/spermatogenesis The the phase of spermiogenesis
Spermatids are formed and differentiation of spermatids to sperm cells
228
Explain the process of gametogenesis/spermatogenesis The the phase of spermiation
Sperm released from serotoli cells and enter seminiferous tubules
229
Explain the process of gametogenesis/spermatogenesis The phases in order
Spermatocytogenesis Spermiogenesis Spermiation
230
Explain the process of gametogenesis/spermatogenesis The the phase of spermatocytogenesis
1. Spermatogonium undergoes Mitosis which produces and replenishes stem cells 2. Meiosis 1: produces two secondary spermatids (haploid) 3. Meiosis 2: produces 4 haploid spermatids
231
Produce testosterone
Leydig cells
232
Increase transport of cholesterol into these cells, increase transcription of enzyme involved in testosterone production
Leydig cells
233
Leydig cells are stimulated by
LH
234
Testosterone from the leydig cells diffuse over to…
Sertoli cells (and blood) and stimulate spermatogenesis
235
FSH stimulates the production of substances that promote the development of sperm in what cell
Sertoli cell
236
What produces ABP and inhibin
Sertoli cells
237
Function of ABP
Binds diffusing testosterone to keep levels high in Sertoli cells enhancing spermatogenesis
238
When sperm production levels are high enough, the Sertoli cell produces
Inhibin
239
What cell expresses inhibin produced? What produces inhibin?
FSH producing cells Sertoli cells
240
Inhibin inhibits what
FSH and LH release in AP
241
Feedback regulation or hypothalamus and AP (regulation of LH and fsh)
Testosterone
242
Describe the relationship of testosterone during pre-puberty
Very sensitive to testosterone and little testosterone can turn off hormones in hypothalamus and AP, hypothalamus has an increased number of testosterone receptors
243
Describe the relationship of testosterone during puberty
Brain becomes less sensitive to testosterone, results in increased hormone and ABP production
244
What two things do you need to produce and/or restore sperm production if decreased
FSH and testosterone
245
Describe the pathway of testosterone release
Low testosterone levels (stimulus)—> GnRH released from hypothalamus through portal system —> LH and FSH released from AP into bloodstream
246
Pathway of FSH in males
Stimulates ABP and inhibin production—> spermatogenesis
247
Describe the pathway of LH in males
LH stimulates Leydig cells —> testosterone produced —> diffuses into Sertoli cell
248
Negative feedback of testosterone release and inhibin: increase in inhibin… Increases in testosterone…
Increases in inhibin, inhibits the release of FSH and LH (TIER 2) Increases in testosterone inhibits GnRH and LH and FSH (tier 2 and 1)
249
Used by sperm to make Atp
Citric acid
250
Clots semen after ejaculation
Clotting enzymes
251
What in the seminal secretions is protective from the acidic environment
Bicarbonate and clotting enzymes
252
Break down clots in seminal secretions once acidic environment is neutralized
Proteolytic enzymes
253
Antibiotic in seminal secretions
Seminal plasmin
254
Development of male or female internal and external genitalia
Phenotypic sex
255
Do the genotypic and phenotypic sex match always?
Don’t always match if XY male doesn’t have SRY gene
256
SRY gene Located where:
Y chromosome
257
Stimulates neutral gonadal tissue differentiation into testes (testes formation)
SRY gene
258
The lack of the SRY gene results in
Female genitalia
259
Two functions of the ovaries
Produce eggs and secrete sex hormones
260
Follicles contain a __ and once it’s matured it is a __
Oocyte, ovum
261
In oogenesis, for every 1 oogonium there’s..
1 ovum (gamete) formed
262
What happens in meiosis 1 of oogenesis
Produces a primary oocyte from oogonium
263
What happens in meiosis 2 in oogenesis
Secondary oocyte and 1st polar body is produced, ovulation of secondary oocyte, after fertilization meiosis 2 resumes and oocyte turns into ovum and 2nd polar body
264
What joins together in ferlization?
Secondary oocyte and sperm cell
265
Explain the pathways for female sex hormones and estrogen release (LH and FSH pathway)
GnRH released from hypothalamus —> LH and FSH released into blood LH in blood —> stimulates theca cells to produce androgens —> androgens diffuse into granulosa cells —> converted to estrogen FSH in blood —> stimulate estrogen production —> when estrogen levels rise, granulosa cells secrete inhibin
266
Explain the negative and positive feedback of female sex hormones… Increases in inhibin…. Mid levels of estrogen…
Increases in inhibin, inhibits FSH and LH (tier 2) Mid levels of estrogen inhibits GnRH, FSH, and LH release Positive feedback: estrogen continues to be produced and granulosa cells continue to divide until LH spike (ovulation)
267
Works as a transcription factor what 2 female hormones?
Estrogen and progesterone
268
Endometrial proliferation, granulosa cell expansion (division) increases this hormone…
Estrogen
269
Prepares the uterine tract for pregnancy, growth and differentiation of endometrium (becomes thicker and turns into a gland during implantation)
Progesterone
270
Suppresses myometrium contractile activity (keeps smooth muscle quiet until labor)
Progesterone
271
Inhibits milk production, from the placenta
Progesterone
272
When FSH levels are too high, what is released
Inhibin
273
Explain why perimenopausal women have anovulatory periods
Harder to ovulate because no period, LH spike; GnRH, LH, and FSH increase and estrogen decreased
274
Explain why a young girl may have a period without ovulation?
Estrogen levels may increase and proliferation of the uterus may occur but not enough to activate LH spike, differentiation of uterus
275
In a period, over time, follicles will die and estrogen will decrease resulting in…
Shedding of endometrium
276
Explain how oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation?
Taking exogenous estrogen and progesterone inhibits GnRH, LH, FSH and turns off granulosa and theca cells —> no estrogen or LH spike
277
When you take oral contraceptives, what happens to endogenous estrogen and proliferation or endometrium
Decreases
278
The sugar birth control pills represent….
Corpus albicans (what’s shed in period)
279
What happens during menopause
Ovaries run out of follicles, estrogen decreased and GnRH, LH, and FSH increased
280
Relationship of estrogen and sensitivity in pre- puberty and during puberty…
Pre= hypothalamus super sensitive to estrogen During= brain less sensitive, less receptors (increased GnRH, LH, FSH, estrogen, androgens, and inhibin)
281
If pregnancy occurs, what happens to the corpus luteum?
Will stay alive and continue to produce hormones until the placenta can take over
282
If corpus luteum dies during pregnancy what happens….
No glycogen produced, lining can’t thicken for egg (miscarriage)
283
If pregnancy doesn’t occur what happens to the corpus luteum?
It does and forms corpus albicans, doesn’t produce hormones and endometrium sheds (menstruation)
284
Order of cycle in female
Follicular phase, contains proliferation phase Ovulation Luteal phase, contains secretory phase of egg implants Menstruation if not pregnant
285
What happens during the proliferation phase in female
Uterine lining thickens, From menstruation shedding lining (result of high estrogen)
286
Describe the follicular phase if there are low levels of estrogen
1. Releases GnRH from hypothalamus 2. LH and FSH released from AP (targets ovaries) 3. LH goes to Theca cells to stimulate androgen production 4. FSH accumulates in antrum/follicle and stimulates estrogen production in granulosa cells 5. Granulosa cells take up androgens and make estrogen 6. Estrogen expands granulosa population (which thickens lining) and they keep dividing in ovary until high enough estrogen levels 7. Estrogen from follicle stimulates endometrial growth and proliferation
287
Has cholesterol backbone, aromatase modifying
Androgen
288
The dominant follicle will accumulate the most… and is the most sensitive
FSH
289
When there are midrange levels of estrogen, what occurs
Inhibits GnRH, LH, FSH Estrogen produced until ovulation
290
When there are high levels of estrogen, what occurs
Activates the release of GnRH because LH spike
291
Result of LH spike that releases the egg, marks the end of follicular phase and star of luteal phase
Ovulation
292
How does ovulation occur?
1. High levels of estrogen from granulosa cells stimulates GnRH release 2. Increased GnRH results in a surge of mainly LH from AP 3. Increase LH from high estrogen=LH spike which released the egg
293
What determines when ovulation occurs and how?
Follicle; once it makes enough estrogen
294
What happens at the secretory phase in females
Glycogen is produced, GnRH, LH, FSH inhibited; promotes differentiation of lining converting it into a gland
295
Progesterone inhibits what tiers and why?
1 and 2, you don’t want those hormones being released and want to see if egg gets fertilized
296
Explain the steps in the luteal phase
1. Ruptured follicle turns into corpus luteum 2. CL secretes high levels of progesterone and some estrogen 3. Progesterone promotes differentiation of lining and turns it into a gland for egg 4. Estrogen helps with growth and maintenance of endometrium
297
Primary hormone producing structure in luteal phase
Corpus luteum
298
The corpus luteum consists of
Granulosa cells
299
More receptors for __ = most responsive follicles
LH and FSH
300
Describe what happens when egg is fertilized by sperm?
1. Sperm binds to ZP3 receptor on egg's surface 2.Triggers the acrosomal reaction and release of enzymes onto egg's surface 3. Acrosomal rxn dissolves a hole in the zona pellucida allowing the sperm entrance into egg
301
fusion of sperm to egg activates pathways that block
polyspermy
302
How is polyspermy prevented?
Immediately after egg is fertilized, it initiates cortical rxn
303
Explain the cortical reaction, what two things occur to prevent polyspermy?
1. Deactivation of all remaining ZP3 receptors (prevents other sperm from binding egg) 2. Depolarization of oocyte: hardens zona pellucida
304
Describe dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins
Dizygotic- 2 eggs, 2 sperm (fraternal) Mono- 1 egg, 1 sperm (identical twins)
305
Describe the embryonic development of forming a blastocyst
1. Zygote divides by mitosis 2. Development of many cell types start by day 5 to form blastocyst - Trophoblast and inner cell mass
306
Forms the placenta, forms outside shell of blastocyst
trophoblast
307
Located inside blastocyst, will become the embryo
inner cell mass
308
Embryo burrow deep into uterine wall
implantation
309
Inner cell mass aligns with the wall of uterus and releases enzymes to attach to wall in what
implantation
310
The endometrium is rich in ___ due to what hormone
glycogen and blood vessels, progesterone
311
The blastocyst secretes __ in what phase
HCG, implantation
312
IN the implantation phase, the release of ___ breaks down the uterine wall to gain access to the blood source
proteolytic enzymes
313
What phase do cells in blastocyst become specialized, 3 layer differentiate
Gastrulation
314
Becomes the lining of GI in fetus= Becomes skin and nervous tissue= BEcomes muscle, bonds, and connective tissue
endoderm Ectoderm Mesoderm
315
Where does gas and nutrient exchange occur in mother and fetus
chroionic villi and mother blood supply
316
What is released from mom to fetus and how: What is released from fetus to mom and how:
Mom to fetus: by veins, O2, nutrients, hormones, antibodies, and drugs Fetus to mom: by arteries, CO2, metabolic waste, hormones
317
Females who are pregnant do not get periods because
high progesterone, inhibits menses
318
Produced by placenta
Estrogen and progesterone
319
How does progesterone keep myometrium quiescent (non-contractile)
1. Increased K+ channel expression (easier for K+ to leave, hyper-polarizes membrane) 2. Suppresses gap junctions between smooth muscles
320
Progesterone inhibits what
Gnrh, FSH, LH, and prolactin
321
Main hormone producer in pregnancy
placenta
322
Estrogen increases what receptor during pregnancy
oxytocin
323
How does HCG communicate with the CL to increase production of estrogen and progesterone
bind LH receptor
324
Known as the pregnancy hormone, increases in first trimester until placenta takes over
HCG
325
HCG signals from __ to ___
embryo, CL
326
Stages of labor
Stage 1: dilation of cervix (to 10cm) Stage 2: expulsion of baby Stage 3: placental delivery
327
What helps to soften cervix in first stage of labor
prostaglandins
328
What increases in the second stage of labor? When does this stage end?
Increased oxytocin release stimulates strong uterine contractions, ends when baby is born
329
What occurs to prevent hemorrhage in placental delivery
Blood vessel constriction and nursing baby
330
Positive feedback regulation of labor: Controlled variable: Stimulus: Sensor: Input: Controlled center: Output: Effectors: Response: positive feedback:
Controlled variable: muscle length of cervix Stimulus: Stretch Sensor: Mechanoreceptor Input: sensory neuron Controlled center: hypothalamus (PP) Output: oxytocin release Effectors: uterus Response:smooth muscle contraction Positive feedback: more stretch of cervix
331
What ends positive feedback loop in labor
delievery of baby
332
Describe milk letdown Stimulus: Receptor: Input: Controlled center: Output: Effectors: Response: Positive or negative feedback
Stimulus: nursing at breast Receptor: mechano Input: sensory nerve Controlled center: hypo (PP) Output: oxytocin release from PP Effectors: myoepithelial cells on mammary glands Response: contraction and milk ejection Positive
333
In pregnant females the ability to increase.... goes away. The reflex target is mainly on the ___ rather than the ___
TPR; heart, blood vessels
334
Explain the baroreceptor reflex arcs of an decrease BP as stimulus Controlled variable: Receptors: Input: Control center: Output: Effectors: Response:
Controlled variable: BP Receptors: baroreceptors Input: stretch less, decreases AP rate Control center: medulla Output: Increased symp and decreased parasym stimulation Effectors: heart- increase heart rate and contractility Response: increase BP
335
Explain the baroreceptor reflex arcs of an increase BP as stimulus Controlled variable: Receptors: Input: Control center: Output: Effectors: Response:
Controlled variable: BP Receptors: baroreceptors Input: stretch more, increases rate of AP Control center: medulla Output: decreased symp and increased parasympathetic stimulation Effectors: decrease heart rate/contractility and vasodilation/decreased TPR Response: decreased bp
336
Stroke volume depends on
contractility
337
A drop in TPR (low BP) will activate baroreceptor reflex arc--whats the correct input and response
Input: less stretch, less AP firing, increase SNA Response: increase contractility and heart rate
338
passing of solutes from the blood into nephron in glomerulus
filtration
339
If freely filtered, not secreted and not absorbed, clearance ______ GFR If reabsorbed: clearance ___ GFR If secreted: clearance ___ GFR
equals less than Gfr greater than gfr
340
what happens to the capillary pressure and GFR when the afferent arteriole dilates
both increase; increase in hydrostatic pressure= increase GFR, decrease in hydrostatic pressure= decrease GFR
341
If clearance increases, and something is not reabsorbed or secreted: what happens to GFR
increases as well
342
How would you expect drug dosage to change during pregnancy (Ex. lithium)
Clearance of drugs are higher during pregnancy (increased dosage)
343
Why is it important to increase blood volume during pregnancy? Increases blood volume, also increases what during pregnancy?
To meet increased demand for nutrients, oxygen, and waste removal due to growing baby HR, CO, and contractility
344
What organ in females also produces renin during pregnancy
Ovaries
345
Increase in renin release results in increased Na and H2o reabsorption (increases blood volume): How?
Angiotensin II increases aldosterone production: insertion of new Na channels and Na/K ATPases, increases Na reabsorption Also increases ADH production (from posterior pituitary): insertion of aquaporin channels, increases H2o reabsorption
346
Highest Na+ concentration and highest H2o water concentration
lumen of distal nephron
347
Lowest Na+ concentration and lowest H2o water concentration
cytoplasm of cell
348
As Na+ leaves the lumen of the collecting duct, what happens to H2O Concentration
increases in the lumen