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Pathology > Exam 4 - Chapter 14. Head and Neck > Flashcards

Exam 4 - Chapter 14. Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

2

What are 4 ulcerative conditions?

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2
Q

2

What is an ulcer?

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3
Q

2

What is another name for immune mediated ulcers?

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4
Q

2

What is the name for viral and fungal infectious ulcers?

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5
Q

2

What is another name for neoplastic ulcers?

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6
Q

3

What is one of the most common oral mucosal pathoses?

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7
Q

3

What percent of the population is affected by recurrent apthous ulcers?

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8
Q

3

What percent of people get their first apthous ulcer before age 30?

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9
Q

3

What age group are recurrent apthous ulcers seen more frequently in?

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10
Q

3

Are recurrent apthous ulcers painful?

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11
Q

4

What is another name for recurrent apthous ulcers?

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12
Q

4

Recurrent apthous ulcers are found on what kind of mucosa?

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13
Q

4

Are recurrent apthous ulcers preceeded by vesicles?

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14
Q

4

Are minor type recurrent apthous ulcers solitary or seen with others?

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15
Q

4

What is the diameter of minor type recurrent apthous ulcers?

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16
Q

4

What is the shape of the border in minor type recurrent apthous ulcers?

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17
Q

4

How long does it take for minor type recurrent apthous ulcers to heal? Does a scar form?

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18
Q

4

What is the diameter of major type recurrent apthous ulcers?

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19
Q

4

How long does it take for major type recurrent apthous ulcers to heal? Is there a scar?

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20
Q

4

Are there single or multiple herpetiform type recurrent apthous ulcers?

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21
Q

4

What is the diameter of herpetiform type recurrent apthous ulcers?

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22
Q

4

Is there a scar formed from herpetiform type apthous ulcers?

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23
Q

4

What is the cause (or proposed cause) or recurrent apthous ulcers?

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24
Q

4

What are four things that can precipitate recurrent apthous ulcers?

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25
Q

4

What is the quote for what precipitates recurrent apthous ulcers?

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26
Q

4

Which type of recurrent apthous ulcer is debilitating?

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27
Q

4

Recurrent apthous ulcers are more severe in patients with what?

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28
Q

4

Does the incidence of recurrent apthous ulcers increase or decrease with age?

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29
Q

4

Is the biopsy for recurrent apthous ulcers specific or nonspecific?

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30
Q

9

What are the 4 possible treatment options for someone with recurrent apthous ulcers?

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31
Q

10

What kind of virus is the Human Herpes Virus Induced Ulcers?

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32
Q

10

How many types of Human Herpes Induced Ulcers are there?

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33
Q

10

What can all 8 types of Human Herpes Virus Induced Ulcers cause?

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34
Q

10

Human Herpes Virus can be shed from _____, ______, or _______.

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35
Q

10

What is HHV-1 also known as?

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36
Q

12

Viral progeny of HSV-1 productive infection at epithelial cells enters the _________. Then, _____ travel by retrograde transport reaching the nucleus, located in the soma of the neuron at the _______. Here, HSV-1 genome enters the nucleus and remains as an episome in a ______. Under stress conditions, HSV-1 reactivates expressing its genome, and initiating a controlled productive infection in neurons. Then, capsides travel back by _____ reaching the initial site of infection at epithelial cells. The progeny released initiate a ______ at this place.

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37
Q

13

What is the symptomatic presentation of Primary Herpetic Virus Infection in children?

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38
Q

13

What is the Symptomatic presentation of Primary Herpetic virus infection in adults?

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39
Q

13

What age of children are affected by Primary Herpetic virus infection?

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40
Q

13

What do primary herpetic virus infections start as, and what do they rupture to form?

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41
Q

13

What surfaces can Primary Herpetic virus infection occur on?

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42
Q

13

What are two symptoms usually seen in someone with primary herpetic virus infection?

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43
Q

13

What is the cause of Primary Herpetic virus infection?

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44
Q

13

Describe the healing of Primary Herpetic Virus infection. How long does it take to heal?

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45
Q

13

Primary Herpetic Virus

Antivirals should be administered within the first __________ to reduce duration of disease; antibodies provide ______.

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46
Q

13

What groups are affected by Secondary herpes simplex infection?

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47
Q

13

Secondary herpes simplex infection may have prodromal symptons of _____, _____, or _____, followed by multiple ______ leading to ______.

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48
Q

13

What are three areas where Secondary herpes simplex infection are most common?

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49
Q

13

What is it called when the fingers are affected by Secondary herpes simplex infection?

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50
Q

13

What does secondary herpes simplex infection represent?

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51
Q

13

What are 5 causes of Secondary herpes simplex infection?

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52
Q

13

Describe the healing of Secondary herpes simplex virus. How long does it take to heal? Is there a scar formed?

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53
Q

13

In what stage are the Secondary herpes simplex infections infectious?

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54
Q

13

Secondary herpes simplex infection patients must be cautioned against _____.

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55
Q

13

Seconary herpes simplex infection can affect any site infected in ______.

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56
Q

13

For secondary herpes simplex virus, medication needs to be administed within the first _____.

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57
Q

14

What does this describe?

painful, enlarged and erythematous gingiva and yellowish mucosal ulcerations

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58
Q

15

What does this describe?

Numerous, coalescing irregular, and yellowish ulcerations on the pharynx and tonsils, in addition to headache and fever?

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59
Q

16

What are the only two places where intraoral secondary herpes infection is seen? What is the exception to this rule?

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60
Q

16-17

What does this describe?

Multiple coalescing ulcerations on the hard palate

Numerous shallow herpetic erosions on the hard palate

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61
Q

18

What does this describe?

Multiple fluid-filed vesicles on the lip vermillion

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62
Q

19

For herpes labialis, what two areas do most secondary herpetic lesions occur?

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63
Q

19

Do patients with secondary herpetic lesions in herpes labialis have discomfort or any systemic signs/symptoms?

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64
Q

19

What is the most infectious stage of herpes labialis?

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65
Q

19

Late in the ulcerative stage of herpes labialis, where has the virus likely retreated to?

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66
Q

19

When can a patient in the infectious stage of herpes labialis come back for their appointment?

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67
Q

20

What does this describe?

Recurrent herpetic infection of the finger

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68
Q

21

What happens to the epithelial cells in Herpes Simplex Infection? What does this produce?

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69
Q

22

In Herpes Simplex, there are altered epithelial cells exhibiting ______, margination of ______ (_______) and _______.

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70
Q

22

When does candida become candidiasis?

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71
Q

24

What are the three types of Candidiasis?

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72
Q

24

What are the three main predisposing factors for Candidiasis? What are three additional predisposing factors?

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73
Q

24

What is the treatment for Candidiasis?

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74
Q

25

What age groups is pseudomembranous candidiasis seen in?

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75
Q

26

What is characteristic of Erythematous Candidiasis and what are two areas where it can be seen?

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76
Q

27

What is characteristic of Hyperplastic Candidiasis?

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77
Q

28

Reactive (Proliferative) Lesions:

  1. ________
  2. __________
  3. __________
  4. __________
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78
Q

28

How do pyogenic granuloma, peripheral ossifying fibroma, and peripheral giant cell granuloma all present?

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79
Q

28

Why is pyogenic granuloma a misnomer?

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80
Q

28

Where are peripheral ossifying fibromas and peripheral giant cell granulomas exclusively found?

A
81
Q

29

What age ranges get fibromas?

A
82
Q

29

What site do fibromas occur at?

A
83
Q

29

Clinical Features of Fibromas:

  1. _____
  2. ______
  3. _____
  4. _______
  5. _______
A
84
Q

29

What is the histopathology for fibromas?

A
85
Q

29

What is the treatment for fibromas?

A
86
Q

29

What 2 age groups are pyogenic granulomas seen in?

A
87
Q

29

What is the site where pyogenic granulomas are seen?

A
88
Q

29

Clinical Features of Pyogenic Granuloma:

  1. _____
    2________
  2. ________
  3. ________
A
89
Q

29

What is the histopathology for pyogenic granuloma?

A
90
Q

29

What is the treatment for pyogenic granuloma?

A
91
Q

29

What is the age range that peripheral ossifying fibromas are seen in?

A
92
Q

29

At what site are peripheral ossifying fibromas found?

A
93
Q

29

Clinical Features of Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma:

  1. _________
  2. ______
  3. ________
A
94
Q

29

What is the histopathology for Peripheral Ossifying Fibromas?

A
95
Q

29

What is the treatment for Peripheral Ossifying Fibromas?

A
96
Q

29

What is the age range for Peripheral Giant Cell Granulomas?

A
97
Q

29

At what site are Peripheral Giant Cell Granulomas found?

A
98
Q

29

Clinical Features of Peripheral Giant Cell Granulomas:

  1. _______
  2. ______
  3. _______
A
99
Q

29

What is the histopathology for Peripheral Giant Cell Granulomas?

A
100
Q

29

What is the treatment for Peripheral Giant Cell Granulomas?

A
101
Q

30

What does sessile mean?

A
102
Q

31

What does pedunculated mean?

A
103
Q

34

What are two groups that Oral Hairy Leukoplakia is seen in?

A
104
Q

34

What does Epstein Barr-Virus include?

  1. ____
  2. _____
  3. _______
  4. _____
A
105
Q

35

What is Oral Hair Leukoplakia?

A
106
Q

35

What are two things seen on the lateral border of the tongue in someone with Oral Hairy Leukoplakia? Can they be scraped off?

A
107
Q

37

Oral Lesions Assocated with Systemic Infections:

  1. ____
  2. ______
  3. _____-
  4. _____
  5. ______
A
108
Q

38

Scarlet Fever is Group ___ Streptococcus.

A
109
Q

38

What are two assocaited oral changes seen in Scarlet Fever?

A
110
Q

38

What is Measles?

A
111
Q

38

What are three oral changes seen in Measles?

A
112
Q

38

What are three associated oral changes of Infectious Mononucleosis?

A
113
Q

38

What is the associated oral change in Diptheria?

A
114
Q

38

What are three associated oral changes of HIV?

A
115
Q

41

How long can the acute pharyngitis and tonsilitis last in infectious mononucleosis?

A
116
Q

44

Precancerous and Cancerous Lesions (NOTE WHICH ARE PRECANCEROUS AND WHICH ARE CANCEROUS)

  1. _______
  2. ______
  3. _______
A
117
Q

45

What is Leukoplakia?

A
118
Q

45

The term Leukoplakia is reserved for lesions that are __________.

A
119
Q

45

What age group experiences Leukoplakia?

A
120
Q

45

What is the ratio of males to females affected by Leukoplakia?

A
121
Q

45

Where within the oral cavity can Leukoplakia occur?

A
122
Q

45

What percent of Leukoplakias are premalignant?

A
123
Q

45

Unless proven otherwise by histological evaluations, all leukoplakias must be considered _____.

A
124
Q

46

Where do you do a biopsy for leukoplakia?

A
125
Q

47

What is Erythroplakia?

A
126
Q

45

How is the epithelium described in Erythroplakia?

A
127
Q

47

What age group is affected by Erythroplakia?

A
128
Q

47

What is the ratio of males to females affected by Erythroplakia?

A
129
Q

47

Where in the oral cavity can Erythroplakias occur?

A
130
Q

47

Is the risk of malignant transformation higher in Leukoplakia or Erythroplakia?

A
131
Q

47

What are the intermediate forms of Erythroplakia that have the characteristics of both leukoplakia and erythroplakia called?

A
132
Q

47

What percent of Erythroplakias become cancerous?

A
133
Q

47

How will speckled leukoplakia appear?

A
134
Q

49

What percent of cancers of the head and neck are squamous cell carcinoma?

A
135
Q

49

How many new cases of squamous cell carcinoma will be diagnosed each year?

A
136
Q

49

What three things are involved in the multifactorial pathogenesis of squamous cell carcinoma?

A
137
Q

49

In the oropharynx, approximately ___% of squamous cell carcinomas harbor oncogenic variants of ____, especially ______.

A
138
Q

50

What are three areas where squamous cell carcinoma can be found in the oral cavity?

A
139
Q

51

What age group is affected by Squamous Cell Carcinoma assocaited with HPV-16? What about not associated with HPV-16?

A
140
Q

51

What is the risk factor for Squamous Cell Carcinoma Associated with HPV-16?

A
141
Q

51

What are the two risk factors for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV?

A
142
Q

51

What is the location for Squamous Cell Carcinoma associated wit HPV-16?

A
143
Q

51

What is the location for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV?

A
144
Q

51

What is the clinical presentation for Squamous Cell Carcinoma associated with HPV-16?

A
145
Q

51

What is the clinical presentation for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV?

A
146
Q

51

What is the histology for Squamous Cell Carcinoma associated with HPV-16?

A
147
Q

51

What is the histology for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV?

A
148
Q

51

Is distant metastasis in Squamous Cell Carcinoma Associated with HPV-16 rare or common?

A
149
Q

51

Is distant metastasis for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV-16 rare or common?

A
150
Q

51

Are the clinical outcomes good or poor for Squamous Cell Carcinoma associated with HPV-16?

A
151
Q

51

Are the clinical outcomes good or poor for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV?

A
152
Q

51

Is the risk of second primary high or low for Squamous Cell Carcinoma associated with HPV-16?

A
153
Q

51

Is the risk of second primary for Squamous Cell Carcinoma not associated with HPV-16 high or low?

A
154
Q

54

What is a tumor of the nose and nasopharynx?

A
155
Q

55

Nasopharyneal Angiofibromas are ____, _______ tumors.

A
156
Q

55

What group does Nasopharyngeal Angiofibromas occur almost exclusively in?

A
157
Q

55

Where does nasopharyngeal angiofibroma arise?

A
158
Q

55

What are three things caused by Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma?

A
159
Q

55

Nasopharyngeal Angiofibromas are often ____ aggressive, with ____ extension.

A
160
Q

55

What are the recurrent rates for Nasopharyngeal Angiofibromas?

A
161
Q

55

What percent of cases of Nasopharyngeal Angiofibromas are fatal?

A
162
Q

55

How do you treat Nasopharyngeal Angiofibromas?

A
163
Q

57

Characterizations of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. ______
A
164
Q

57

Where geographically is Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma seen commonly in children?

A
165
Q

57

Where geographically is Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma seen more commonly in adults?

A
166
Q

57

In the US, what age groups are rarely affected by Nasopharyngeal Carcinomas?

A
167
Q

57

What two things do Nasopharyngeal Carcinomas cause?

A
168
Q

57

What is the 5 year survival rate after treatment for Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma?

A
169
Q

59

Neck Disorders:

  1. _______ (_______)
  2. _________
  3. ______
A
170
Q

60

What age group is most affected by Branchial Cysts?

A
171
Q

60

What is a Branchial Cyst and where is it found?

A
172
Q

60

Characterizations of Branchial Cysts:

  1. _______
  2. ______
  3. ______
A
173
Q

60

What kind of epithelium lines Branchial Cysts?

A
174
Q

60

Fibrous cyst walls of branchial cysts contain what type of tissue?

A
175
Q

60

How are branchial cysts treated?

A
176
Q

60

Can branchial cysts become malignant?

A
177
Q

62

What is a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst?

A
178
Q

62

Where are Thyroglossal Duct Cysts seen?

A
179
Q

62

What is the cyst diameter for Thyroglossal Duct Cysts?

A
180
Q

62

What type of epithelium lines Thyroglossal Duct Cysts?

A
181
Q

62

What does a fibrous cyst wall of a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst contain?

A
182
Q

62

What is the treatment for Thyroglossal Duct cysts?

A
183
Q

64

What is another name for a Paraganglioma?

A
184
Q

64

Where do Paragangliomas arise from? Where do they occur?

A
185
Q

64

At what ages do Paragangliomas arise in?

A
186
Q

64

What is a common site where Paragangliomas arise?

A
187
Q

64

What percent of extra-adrenal paragangliomas occur in the head and neck?

A
188
Q

64

Is the pathogenesis of paragangliomas well understood?

A
189
Q

64

There is greater incidence of paragangliomas seen in people living in what environments?

A
190
Q

64

Does a paranganglioma grow slowly or quickly? Is it painful or not?

A
191
Q

64

A paraganglioma rarely exceeds what measurement?

A
192
Q

64

Paragangliomas arise close to the _______. (This is the most common site).

A
193
Q

64

What percent of paragangliomas are fatal due to infiltrative growth?

A
194
Q

65

What are two locations for sympathetic pheochromocytomas?

A
195
Q

65

What are 3 locations for sympathetic extra-adrenal paragangliomas?

A
196
Q

65

What are three locations for parasympathetic extra-adrenal paragangliomas?

A

Pathology (8 decks)

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