Exam 4 - Chapter 13. Liver and Gallbladder Flashcards

1
Q

3

Heme is the substrate of _____.

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2
Q

3

What is heme derived from?

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3
Q

3

What does heme get degraded to by the enzyme heme oxygenase in mononuclear phagocytes?

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4
Q

3

Biliverdin is reduced to bilirubin by the enzyme _____.

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5
Q

3

Circulating bilirubin (_____) is bound to ____ and is subsequently taken up by the _____.

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6
Q

3

To make bilirubin soluble, it undergoes _____, a reaction catalyzed by __________.

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7
Q

3

Conjugated bilirubin (_____) is excreted into ____ and reaches the _____.

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8
Q

3

Bilirubin glucoronides are deconjugated by _______ and eliminated in the ______.

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9
Q

4

What are two other names for Jaundice?

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10
Q

5

What is jaundice?

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11
Q

5

Jaundice is not a diagnosis, but rather a _____________.

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12
Q

5

Jaundiced patients often present with symptoms related to the underlying pathology, such as:

  1. _____
  2. ________
  3. _______
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13
Q

6

What is scleral icterus?

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14
Q

6

Clinical presentation of jaundice as scleral icterus is best appreciated only when the serum levels reach ________. Normal serum levels of bilirubin are ________.

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15
Q

6

What ages are most commonly affected by jaundice?

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16
Q

8

Why do sclerae have a high affinity for bilirubin?

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17
Q

8

In jaundice, with further increase in serum bilirubin levels, the skin will progessively discolor ranging from ______ to ______, especially if the process is long-standing.

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18
Q

8

Green color in jaundice is due to _____.

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19
Q

8

Yellowing of the skin sparing the sclerae is indicative of ______ which occurs in healthy individuals who ________.

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20
Q

9

What are 5 pathophysiologies of jaundice?

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21
Q

9

What is one thing that could lead to excess production of bilirubin?

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22
Q

9

What is one thing that can cause reduced hepatocellular uptake?

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23
Q

9

What are two things that could lead to impaired conjugation?

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24
Q

9

What are two things that can lead to decreased hepatic excretion of bile?

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25
Q

9

What are two things that can cause imapired bile flow?

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26
Q

10

What are two effects of prehepatic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

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27
Q

10

What is one effect of hepatic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

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28
Q

10

What is one effect of posthepatic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

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29
Q

11

What percent of babies have jaundice in the first week of life?

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30
Q

11

Why do 20% of babies have jaundice in the first week of life?

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31
Q

11

What are 4 reasons why infants and children would have jaundice?

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32
Q

11

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia can be _____ in neonates.

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33
Q

11

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia can be neurotoxic in neonates, causing _______ (_______) and _______.

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34
Q

12

How long does it take for mild infant jaundice to disappear on its own?

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35
Q

12

What are two treatment modalities for infants with jaundice?

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36
Q

12

How does light therapy (phototherapy) work as a treatment for jaundice in infants?

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37
Q

14

What are two things that jaundice in adults serve as a marker for?

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38
Q

14

Most adult cases of jaundice have a more ____ course.

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39
Q

14

Treatment of jaundice in adults varies according to the _____.

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40
Q

17

When does hepatic failure occur?

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41
Q

17

Hepatic failure can be _____ or _____, without any symptoms until there is ________.

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42
Q

17

What are the two most common causes of hepatic failure?

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43
Q

17

Which group does hepatic failure affect? What group is it rare in?

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43
Q

17

Eventually, liver failure can cause a variety of symptoms, including:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. _____
  4. ______ (________)
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44
Q

18

What is acute hepatic failure?

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45
Q

18

What is a commonly used cutoff between acute and chronic hepatic failure?

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46
Q

18

______ (_________) and _______ (________) are the two most common causes of acute liver failure worldwide.

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47
Q

20

What are 5 symptoms of acute hepatic failure?

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48
Q

22

What are three general treatments for acute hepatic failure?

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49
Q

22

When can you do specific treatments for acute hepatic failure treatment?

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50
Q

22

Acute hepatic failure treatment may involve ________.

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51
Q

22

Should all patients with acute hepatic failure be hospitalized?

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52
Q

23

In chronic liver failure, progressive deterioration of liver functions for more than 6 months results in the deterioration of:

  1. ______
  2. _____
  3. _________
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53
Q

23

Chronic liver failure is a continuous process of inflammation, destruction, and regeneration of liver parenchyma that leads to _____ and ______.

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54
Q

23

What are 6 common etiologies for chronic liver failure?

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55
Q

24

Chronic liver failure results in:

  1. ______
  2. ________
  3. _______
  4. ________
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56
Q

24

While fibrosis associated with chronic liver failure is usually irreversible, when can it be reversible?

*Note that the transition time point of reversible fibrosis to irreversible fibrosis is still not completely understood.

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57
Q

24

What three things does the development rate of fibrosis depend on?

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58
Q

25

What does NAFL stand for?

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59
Q

25

What does NASH stand for?

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60
Q

26

Signs and symptoms of chronic liver failure can be ____.

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61
Q

26

What are the three nonspecific signs and symptoms of chronic liver failure?

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62
Q

29

What are two goals for chronic liver failure treatment?

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63
Q

31

What is hepatic encephalopathy and in what kind of patients does it occur in?

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64
Q

31

Though the precise pathophysiology for hepatic encephalopathy is still under discussion, what does the leading hypothesis focus on?

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65
Q

32

Hepatic Encephalopathy Clinical Features include:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. _______
  4. _______
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66
Q

32

What two motor system abnormalities do non-comatose patients with Hepatic Encephalopathy show?

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67
Q

32

What sign do non-comatose patients with Hepatic Encephalopathy show?

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68
Q

32

Describe the positive Babinski reflex.

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69
Q

35

What is cirrhosis of the liver?

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70
Q

35

The most common causes of cirrhosis of the liver are:

  1. _____
  2. _______
  3. ________
A
71
Q

39

What are the four general cirrhosis clinical features?

A
72
Q

39

There are 4 specific cirrhosis clinical features:

  1. _______
  2. ______
  3. _______
  4. ________
A
73
Q

39

What are three things seen in people with impaired protein synthesis due to cirrhosis?

A
74
Q

39

What is seen in someone with impaired nitrogen metabolism due to cirrhosis?

A
75
Q

39

What are 4 things seen in someone with impaired estrogen metabolism due to cirrhosis?

A
76
Q

39

What are two things seen in someone with impaired biliary excretion due to cirrhosis?

A
77
Q

42

For cirrhosis treatment, you need to treat the ________.

A
78
Q

42

What are 4 complications that need to be treated and prevented in cirrhosis treatment?

A
79
Q

42

With cirrhosis treatment, avoid ______ (_____).

A
80
Q

42

Cirrhosis treatment requires regular ultrasound surveillance of _______.

A
81
Q

44

What is hepatitis?

A
82
Q

44

What are three causes of hepatitis?

A
83
Q

44

What are the five most common forms of viral hepatitis?

A
84
Q

45

What are the two forms of transmission for hepatitis A?

A
85
Q

45

Is Hepatitis A a chronic infection?

A
86
Q

45

What is the prevention for Hepatitis A?

A
87
Q

45

What is the treatment for Hepatitis A?

A
88
Q

45

What are the two forms of transmission for Hepatitis B?

A
89
Q

45

Is Hepatitis B a chronic infection?

A
90
Q

45

What is the prevention for Hepatitis B?

A
91
Q

45

What is the treatment for Hepatitis B?

A
92
Q

45

What are the two transmissions for Hepatitis C?

A
93
Q

45

Is Hepatitis C a chronic infection?

A
94
Q

45

What are two preventions for Hepatitis C?

A
95
Q

45

What is the treatment for Hepatitis C?

A
96
Q

45

What are three forms of transmission for Hepatitis D?

A
97
Q

45

Is Hepatitis D a chronic infection?

A
98
Q

45

What is the prevention for Hepatitis D?

A
99
Q

45

What is the treatment for Hepatitis D?

A
100
Q

45

What are two forms of transmission for Hepatitis E?

A
101
Q

45

Is Hepatitis E a chronic infection?

A
102
Q

45

What are two forms of prevention for Hepatitis E?

A
103
Q

45

What is the treatment for Hepatitis E?

A
104
Q

46

What are three alcoholic related liver diseases?

A
105
Q

48

What is the primary site of ethanol metabolism?

A
106
Q

48

What three things does chronic and excessive alcohol consumption result in?

A
107
Q

48

What is steatosis?

A
108
Q

48

What is fibrosis/cirrhosis?

A
109
Q

49

Is steatosis reversible or irreversible?

A
110
Q

49

Steatosis is associated with disturbance of metabolism by:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. ________
  4. ________
A
111
Q

51

Alcoholic Hepatitis is characterized by rapid onset of:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. ________
A
112
Q

51

Alcholic hepatitis usually progresses to _____ if drinking is continued.

A
113
Q

51

If alchol is discontibuted, hepatitis returns to normal within _____.

A
114
Q

52

What is the final and irreversibel stage of alcohol abuse.

A
115
Q

52

In alcoholic cirrhosis, initially the liver is _____. Thereafter, it becomes _____, _____, and _____.

A
116
Q

52

End-stage cirrhosis looks the same regardless of ____.

A
117
Q

54

What are three inherited liver and gallbladder disorders?

A
118
Q

55

What is hemochromatosis?

A
119
Q

55

What is the inheritance pattern for hemochromatosis?

A
120
Q

55

Hemochromatosis results from what three gene mutations?

A
121
Q

55

In hemochromatosis, over time excess iron is stored in body tissues and organs such as:

  1. _______
  2. _______
  3. ______
  4. ______
  5. _______
A
122
Q

56

These are the 5 early symptoms of hemachromatosis:

  1. _____
  2. _____
  3. ______
  4. ______
  5. _______
A
123
Q

56

These are the 5 late symptoms of hematochromatosis:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. _______
  4. ______
  5. _______
A
124
Q

58

Is hematochromatosis greater in males or females?

A
125
Q

58

Why is hematochromatosis greater in males than people?

A
126
Q

58

Hematochromatosis is greater in people with what ancestry?

A
127
Q

58

What is the treatment for Hematochromatosis?

A
128
Q

59

What is Wilson Disease?

A
129
Q

59

What is the inheritance pattern of Wilson disease?

A
130
Q

59

What is the mutation in Wilson Disease?

A
131
Q

59

What does the ATP7B gene play a role in?

A
132
Q

59

What may happen if Wilson is not recognized and treated when symptomatic?

A
133
Q

59

What is Wilson Disease treated with?

A
134
Q

60

At what age do the first signs and symptoms appear in Wilson disease?

A
135
Q

60

What is typically the initial feature of Wilson disease?

A
136
Q

60

What are four features of Liver disease that are typically seen in Wilson disease?

A
137
Q

60

What are 8 nervous system psychiatric problems seen in Wilson Disease?

A
138
Q

60

What are two eye problems of the cornea seen with Wilson disease?

A
139
Q

62

What are two treatments for Wilson Disease?

A
140
Q

63

Is Reye Syndrome fatal?

A
141
Q

63

What is Reye Syndrome?

A
142
Q

63

What is the cause of Reye Syndrome?

A
143
Q

63

What age group is Reye Syndrome seen in?

A
144
Q

63

What group does Reye Syndrome most commonly affect?

A
145
Q

64

What are the 4 symtpoms of Reye Syndrome?

A
146
Q

64

What is the treatment for Reye Syndrome?

A
147
Q

67

What is the most common form of liver cancer?

A
148
Q

67

What percent of the time is Hepatocellular Carcinoma seen for liver cancers?

A
149
Q

67

What are the two main risk factors for Hepatocellular Carcinoma?

A
150
Q

69

Diseases of the Biliary Tract:

  1. _____
  2. ______
  3. _______
A
151
Q

71

What is the common name for Cholelithiasis?

A
152
Q

71

What is Cholelithiasis?

A
153
Q

71

What percent of men and women in the US have gallstones?

A
154
Q

71

Are most cases of Cholelithiasis symptomatic or asymptomatic? Is treatment required?

A
155
Q

71

Approximately ___% of asymptomatic gallstones in Cholelithiasis will develop symptoms over ___ years of follow-up.

A
156
Q

72

What are the 3 main pathways of stone formation for Cholelithiasis Pathogenesis?

A
157
Q

72

What can bile normally do when cholesterol is excreted by the liver?

A
158
Q

72

What does excess bilirubin cause?

A
159
Q

72

What effect does gallbladder hypomotility or impaired contractility have?

A
160
Q

72

What percent of cholelithiasis are cholesterol gallstones?

A
161
Q

73

Cholelithiasis Risk Factors:

  1. ____
  2. ______
  3. _______
  4. ______
  5. _____
  6. _______ (____ and ______)
A
162
Q

74

What are three symptoms associated with Cholelithiasis?

A
163
Q

74

What is a common trigger for gallbladder contraction?

A
164
Q

74

Cholelithiasis pain usually starts within _____ after a fatty meal.

A
165
Q

74

How is the pain described in Cholelithiasis

A
166
Q

74

How long may the constant, sharp pain in the upper right quadrant last for those with Cholelithiasis?

A
167
Q

74

What are three treatments for Cholelithiasis?

A
168
Q

76

What is Cholecystitis?

A
169
Q

76

Causes of Cholecystitis:

  1. _______
  2. _______
A
170
Q

76

Symptoms of Cholecystitis:

  1. _________
  2. ______ (especially _________)
  3. ____ and _______
  4. ________
A
171
Q

76

What is the treatment for Cholecystitis?

A
172
Q

78

What age group is carcinoma of the gallbladder seen in?

A
173
Q

78

Causes of Carcinoma of the Gallbladder:

  1. ______ (______)
  2. _______ (________)
A
174
Q

78

What is the prognosis of Carcinoma of the Gallbladder?

A