Exam 3 - Chapter 12: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors

Question 1

3

Developmental disorders often stem from ______ and are often apparent during the ______ of bone formation.

Question 2

3

What are two types of bone abnormalities?

Question 3

3

Dystosis is a group of disorders that cause ______, often in _______. (_______)

Question 4

3

Bone dysplasia refers to a group of conditions that cause ________.

Question 5

3

Acquired disorders of bone and cartilage appear in _____.

Question 6

4

What are 5 developmental disorders of bone and cartilage?

Question 7

5

What is the inheritance pattern of Cleidocoranial dysplasia?

Question 8

5

What is the inheritance pattern of Achondroplasia?

Question 9

5

What is the inheritance pattern of osteogenesis imperfecta?

Question 10

5

What is the inheritance pattern of Osteopetrosis?

Question 11

5

What is the inheritance pattern of Mucopolysaccharidosis?

Question 12

5

What is the gene involved in Cleidocranial dysplasia?

Question 13

5

What is the gene involved in Achondroplasia?

Question 14

5

What is the gene involved in osteogenesis imperfecta?

Question 15

5

What is the gene involved in Osteopetrosis?

Question 16

5

What is the gene involved in Mucopolysacharidosis?

Question 17

5

The etiology of Cleidocranial dysplasia is defects in _____ and _____.

Question 18

5

The etiology of Achondroplasia is defects in _______ and _____.

Question 19

5

The etiology of Osteogenesis imperfecta is defects in ______.

Question 20

5

The etiology of Osteopetrosis is defects in ______.

Question 21

5

The etiology of Mucopolysacharridosis is defects in _________ involved in ________.

Question 22

5

What are three clinical features of Cleidocranial dysplasia?

Question 23

5

What is the main clinical feature of Achondroplasia?

Question 24

5

What are three main clinical features of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Question 25

6

What are 3 main clinical features of Osteopetrosis?

Question 26

6

What are two main clinical features of Mucopolysaccharidosis?

Question 27

6

Cleidocranial dysplasia involves delayed closure of _______.

Question 28

6

What are wormian bones seen in Cleidocranial dysplasia?

Question 29

8

Type I collagen involved in Osteogenesis Imperfecta is found in ____, ______, ____, ______, ____, ____, and ______. It is the most common _______.

Question 30

9

What is the key feature of Osteopetrosis?

Question 31

10

Two buzzwords associated with Osteopetrosis are ______ Deformity and _____ Vertebra.

Question 32

14

What are five metabolic diseases of bone?

Question 33

15

What are the two types of etilogy of Osteopenia and Osteoporosis?

Question 34

15

What are two main clinical features of osteopenia and osteoporosis?

Question 35

15

What are two treatments for osteopenia and osteoporosis?

Question 36

15

What is the etiology for Rickets / Osteomalacia?

Question 37

15

What are 3 main clinical features of Rickets / Osteomalacia?

Question 38

15

What are two main clinical features of osteomalacia?

Question 39

15

What are three treatments for Rickets and Osteomalacia?

Question 40

15

What is the etiology of Hyperparathyroidism?

Question 41

15

What are three main clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism?

Question 42

15

What are two treatments for Hyperparathyroidism?

Question 43

16

Osteopenia means decreased bone mass that is ___ to ____ standard deviation below peak bone mass.

Question 44

16

Osteoporosis is defined as osteopenia that is severe enough to significantly increase the risk of fracture. Bone mass is at least ____ standard deviation below peak bone mass and it may be localized or generalized.

Question 45

18

Rachitic rosary refers to expansion of the anterior rib ends at the ______ and is most frequently seen in ____ as nodularities at the costochondral junctions.

Question 46

23

What is the etiology for Paget disease (aka Osteitis deformans)

Question 47

23

Epidemiology of Paget’s:

Paget’s occurs in people ____ years of age and is more common in _____.

Question 48

23

In the US, are more males or females affected with Paget’s?

Question 49

23

The pathophysiology of Paget’s has three stages.

1. Begins with _____ activity.
2. ________ and _______ activity
3. _______ activity observed.

Question 50

23

Is Paget’s usually symptomatic or asymptomatic?

Question 51

23

What are the 5 main clinical features of Paget’s when it is symptomatic?

Question 52

23

How will Paget’s appear on a bone X-ray?

Question 53

23

Paget’s evaluation may show elevated ______ levels.

Question 54

23

What are two treatments for Paget’s?

Question 55

26

Bone fracture is the _______. It is one of the most common pathology affecting bone.

Question 56

27

What is simple fracture?

Question 57

27

What is compound fracture?

Question 58

27

What is comminuted fracture? What causes it?

Question 59

27

What is displaced fracture?

Question 60

27

What is stress fracture?

Question 61

27

What is Greenstick fracture?

Question 62

27

Almost all greenstick fractures affect _______.

Question 63

29

What is another name for necrosis?

Question 64

30

Osteonecrosis can be limited to the ______ or involve both the ____ and ____.

Question 65

30

The two most common causes of osteonecrosis are ____ and _______.

Question 66

30

What are the two main predisposing conditions to osteonecrosis?

Question 67

33

Osteomyleitis is the inflammation of ____ and _____. It typically results from ____.

Question 68

33

What is the time frame for acute osteomyelitis?

Question 69

33

What is the time frame for chronic osteomyeletis?

Question 70

34

What type of osteomyelitis does and does not have a preceding acute phase?

Question 71

35

What are two examples of osteomyelitis predisposing conditions?

Question 72

35

What are two things that can cause local damage to or disease to the jaws?

Question 73

36

Acute osteomyelitis affects what age?

Question 74

36

Is acute osteomyelitis greater in the maxilla or the mandible?

Question 75

36

Acute osteomyelitis usually lasts _______ to _______.

Question 76

36

What are the radiographic changes in acute osteomyelitis in early stages? What about after 1-2 weeks?

Question 77

36

Clinical features of acute osteomyelitis include _______ may be present; _______ if due to staphylococcus infection; most frequently caused by ______ of periapical infection.

Question 78

36

What age is affected by chronic osteomyelitis?

Question 79

36

Is the maxilla or mandible more affected by chronic osteomyelitis?

Question 80

36

Chronic osteomyelitis lasts ______ to _____.

Question 81

36

What are the radiographic features of chronic osteomyelitis?

Question 82

36

Clincial features of chronic osteomyelitis:

-usually _____ but may be _____
- most cases are related to _____ of bone of dental origin; many cases are not _____
-non-vital tooth should be ____ or _____; this is _____

Question 83

39

Suppurative osteomyelitis (acute or chronic) involves ______ and _____infections.

Question 84

39

What ages are affected by supparative osteomyelitis?

Question 85

39

Is supparative osteomyelitis more common in the mandible or maxilla?

Question 86

39

Clinical features of supparative osteomyelitis are ______ and ____, _____ tender, and ____ inflamed.

Question 87

39

After 1-2 weeks of supparative osteomyelitis, radiographic features include ________; ______ may be seen.

Question 88

39

Other features of supparative osteomyelitis include ______ infection and _______ of jaws.

Question 89

39

Two treatments for supparative osteomyelitis are _____ and ____.

Question 90

39

Diffuse sclerosis osteomyleitis is more common in ____.

Question 91

39

Diffuse scelrosis osteomyelitis involves _____ and _____ may occur.

Question 92

39

What are the radiographic features of early lesions of diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis?

Question 93

39

What are the radiographic feaatures of late lesions of diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis?

Question 94

39

Diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis does not respond consistently to _____.

Question 95

39

Focal sclerosing OM involves bone reaction to _______.

Question 96

39

Focal sclerosis OM is greater in the ___ and ___ areas of the mouth.

Question 97

39

Focal sclerosing OM is associated with ____ or _____.

Question 98

39

Radiographic features of focal sclerosing OM involve ________ related to ____ of tooth; _____ of PDL

Question 99

39

With focal sclerosing OM, _____ should not be present. To treat, you need to ______.

Question 100

39

Proliferative periostitis (Garre OM) is more commonly seen in _____ and ______

Question 101

39

Proliferative periostitis (Garre OM) is more commonly seen in the ________ and is associated with ___ lesions and ______ of inflammation.

Question 102

39

What is the key radiographic feature of Proliferative Periostitis? Similar changes are seen in what other disease?

Question 103

39

What is the treatment of Proliferative Periostitis?

Question 104

39

For proliferative periostitis, how long does bone take to remodel?

Question 105

47

What is the common location of osteochondroma?

Question 106

47

What is the age range for Osteochondroma?

Question 107

47

What is the morphology for Osteochondroma?

Question 108

47

What is the common location for Chondroma?

Question 109

47

What is the age range for Chondroma?

Question 110

47

What is the morphology for Chondroma?

Question 111

47

What is the common location of Chondroblastoma?

Question 112

47

What is the age range for Chondroblastoma?

Question 113

47

What is the morphology for Chondroblastoma?

Question 114

49

What are two common locations for Chondrosarcoma?

Question 115

49

What is the age range for Chondrosarcoma?

Question 116

49

Morphology of Chondrosarcoma:

It extends from the ____ through the ____ into the soft tissue, and there are ____ with increased cellularity and atypia.

Question 117

47

What are the three benign cartilage forming primary bone tumors?

Question 118

49

What is the malignant cartilage forming primary bone tumor?

Question 119

51

What are the two benign bone forming primary bone tumors?

Question 120

51

What is the common location of Osteoid Osteoma?

Question 121

51

What is the age range for Osteoid OSteoma?

Question 122

51

People with Osteoid OSteoma present with _____ pain caused by _____ which is relieved by _____ and other _____.

Question 123

51

What is the common location for Osteoblastoma?

Question 124

51

What is the age range for Osteoblastoma?

Question 125

51

Osteoblastomas cause pain that is _______.

Question 126

54

What is an example of a malignant bone forming primary tumor?

Question 127

54

What are. two common locations for osteosarcoma?

Question 128

54

What is the age range for Osteosarcoma?

Question 129

54

Osteosarcoma extends from ____ to lift ____; malignant cells produce ____ bone.

Question 130

56

What is an example of a benign bone tumor of unkown origin?

Question 131

56

What is the common location of giant cell tumor?

Question 132

56

What is the age range for giant cell tumor?

Question 133

56

Giant cell tumor destroys the _____ and _____; sheets of _____.

Question 134

58

What is an example of a malignant bone tumor of unknown origin?

Question 135

58

What is a common location of Ewing sarcoma?

Question 136

58

The affected site in Ewing sarcoma is frequently ___, ____, and _____; there may be systemic findings taht mimic infection including ____, elevated _____, ______, and _____. A very key feature is sheets of __________. Radiographic images may show _______ of the periosteum.

Question 137

63

What are the two clinically important forms of arthritis?

Question 138

64

What is the primary pathogenic abnormality of osteoarthritis?

Question 139

64

The role of inflammation in osteoarthritis may be ______. Inflammatory mediators exacerbate ______.

Question 140

64

The joints involved in Osteoarthritis are primarily _____, including the ____ and _____.

Question 141

64

Pathology of osteoarthritis includes ______ and fragmentation, bone spurs, subchondral cysts, and minimum inflammation.

Question 142

64

Are there any serum antibodies associated with Osteoarthritis?

Question 143

64

Are there are other organs involved in Osteoarthritis?

Question 144

64

What is the primary pathogenic abnormality in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Question 145

64

The role of inflammation in Rheumatoid Arthritis is _____; cartilage destruction is caused by _____ and ____ reactive with joint antigens.

Question 146

64

In rheumatoid arthritis, it often begins with ___joints of _____; progression leads to _______.

Question 147

64

Pathology of Rheumatoid Arthritis involves the _______ invading and destroying cartilage; there is also severe chronic inflammation and joint fusion known as ______.

Question 148

64

What is the main serum antibody associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Question 149

64

What are the two other organs involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Question 150

65

How long does morning stiffness last in Osteoarthritis?

Question 151

65

What are the associated nodes called in Osteoarthritis?

Question 152

65

Is Osteoarthritis asymmetrical or symmetrical?

Question 153

65

How long does morning stiffness last in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Question 154

65

Is Rheumatoid arthritis symmetrical or asymmetrical?

Question 155

66

___ are a common feature of osteoarthritis.

Question 156

67

Rheumatoid arthritis involves bone ____ and swollen inflamed ________ membrane.

Question 157

68

What are four types of infectious arthritis?

Question 158

68

Supparative arthritis is caused by in children younger than 2, while ____ is the main causative agent in older children and adults.

Question 159

69

In crystal induced arthritis, endogenous crystals include ______ (___), ________ (_____), and basic _______.

Question 160

69

Exogenous crystals such as ____ used in _____ can induce arthritis as they accumulate with wear.

Question 161

72

Soft tissue tumors refer to _____ tissue, excluding the skeleton, joints, CNS, and hematopietic an dlymphoid tissues.

Question 162

72

Except for skeletal muscle neoplasms, benign sofft tissue tumors are ___-fold more frequent than their malignant counterparts, the sarcomas.

Question 163

73

What is the name for an adipose benign tumor?

Question 164

73

What is the name for an adipose malignant tumor?

Question 165

73

What is the name for a fibrous benign tumor?

Question 166

74

What is the name for a benign skeletal muscle tumor?

Question 167

74

What are two examples of malignant skeletal muscle tumors?

Question 168

74

What is the name for a benign smooth muscle tumor?

Question 169

74

What is the name for a malignant smooth muscle tumor?

Question 170

75

What is the name for a benign vascular tumor?

Question 171

75

What is the name for a malignant vascular tumor?

Question 172

75

What are two examples of benign nerve sheath tumors?

Question 173

75

What is the name for a malignant nerve sheath tumor?