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Pathology > Exam 3 - Chapter 10: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Chapter 10: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System Flashcards

1
Q

13

What does CFU-C stand for?

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2
Q

13

What does CFU-L stand for?

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3
Q

13

What are megakaryocytes?

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4
Q

13

What two things can pluripotent stem cells (CFU-S) differentiate into?

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5
Q

13

What are 5 things that CFU-C differentiate into?

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6
Q

13

What are 2 things that CFU-L can differentiate into?

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7
Q

13

What do B cells differentiate into?

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8
Q

14

What is the life span of erythroblasts in the bone marrow?

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9
Q

14

What is the life span of reticulocytes in the bone marrow and in the blood?

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10
Q

14

What is the life span of erythrocytes in the blood?

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11
Q

15

What is anemia?

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12
Q

15

What is hematocrit?

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13
Q

15

What are the three subtypes of anemia?

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14
Q

15

What are the four vague symptoms of anemia?

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15
Q

16

What are three oral symptoms of anemia?

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16
Q

16

In what cases of anemia would you see atrophic glossitis?

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17
Q

17

What are 5 screening tests for anemia?

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18
Q

17

What does the RBC indices MCV stand for and what does it mean?

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19
Q

17

What does the RBC indices MCH stand for and what does it mean?

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20
Q

17

What does the peripheral blood smear morphology screening test evaluate?

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21
Q

17

What does the serum ferritin screening test for anemia measure?

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22
Q

18

What are four symptoms that would be seen in severe anemia?

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23
Q

19

What does microcytic mean?

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24
Q

19

What is the MCV in microcytic anemia?

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25
Q

19

What does macrocytic mean?

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26
Q

19

What is the MCV in macrocytic anemia?

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27
Q

19

What does hypochromic mean?

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28
Q

19

What is the MCH in hypochromic anemia?

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29
Q

19

What does poikilocytosis mean?

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30
Q

19

What does anisocytosis mean?

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31
Q

19

What are target cells in anemia?

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32
Q

25

Hemolytic anemias are an ____ rate of _______.

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33
Q

25

Hemolytic anemias can be due to what 4 things?

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34
Q

27

What is involved in hemolytic anemia of mechanical injury?

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35
Q

27

What causes microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

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36
Q

27

What are two things that can result from microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

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37
Q

27

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is induced by ______ and is characterized by _____. ______, and _______.

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38
Q

28

In immune mediated hemolytic anemias, red cells are _____ with _____, usually ______.

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39
Q

28

What does the Coombs test detect?

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40
Q

28

Opsonized RBCs are targets for removal by the _____, which recognizes them as abnormal.

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41
Q

28

What percent of immune mediated hemolytic anemias are idiopathic?

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42
Q

28

For the immune mediated hemolytic anemias that are not idiopathic, they are associated with another disease. What are 4 diseases that could cause immune mediated hemolytic anemias?

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43
Q

29

Malaria may result in ______.

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44
Q

29

The parasite that causes malaria, ______, can directly _____.

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45
Q

30

Hemoglobinopathies are a group of ______ characterized by the presence of a ________.

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46
Q

30

Hemoglobinopathies result in _________ and often acute hemolysis under certain ______ and ______ stress.

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47
Q

30

What are two examples associated with hemoglobinopathies that result in decreased red cell survival and acute hemolysis under certain biochemical and physiologic stress?

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48
Q

31

What are the components of normal hemoglobin?

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49
Q

31

How many amino acids long are the 2 alpha chains of hemoglobin?

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50
Q

31

How many amino acids long are the 2 beta chains of hemoglobin?

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51
Q

33

What is the mutation that occurs in sickled RBCs (sickle cell anemia)?

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52
Q

33

The change from glutamic acid to valine at the sixth position of the 146 amino acids of the beta chain leads to the formation of ________ and a change of the normal red blood cells to a sickle-shaped RBC.

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53
Q

35

What type of inheritance pattern is Sickle Cell Anemia?

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54
Q

35

Worldwide, sickle cell anemia is the most common form of _______.

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55
Q

35

HbS polymerizes when it is _____ and it _____, producing the characteristic sickle shape.

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56
Q

35

Heterozygotes for sickle cell anemia have about ____% HbS and ____% HbA. There is little tendency to sickle except under _______.

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57
Q

35

What percent of African Americans are heterozygous for HbS?

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58
Q

36

Sickled red cells are removed from circulation by the spleen, reducing their life span from ____ to ___ days.

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59
Q

36

Sickled red cells may cause ________, resulting in ____ tissue injury.

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60
Q

36

What are two complications associated with sickle cell anemia?

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61
Q

36

What is autosplenectomy?

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62
Q

37

What can be a finding on skull radiographs in someone with sickle cell anemia?

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63
Q

37

What can be an oral radiographic finding on for a patient with sickle cell anemia?

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64
Q

38

An oral manifestation of sickle cell anemia is ____ and ____ pain with absence of _____. This may be due to ______.

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65
Q

38

In someone with sickle cell anemia, there may be ______ of the oral mucosa and _____ of teeth.

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66
Q

38

In what percent of patients is the step ladder trabecular pattern in the mandible seen?

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67
Q

38

_______ significantly lowers caries in children with Sickle Cell Anemia, by preventing infection by _______.

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68
Q

40

What does the name Thalassemia mean?

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69
Q

40

Thalasssemia is a ____ group of genetic disorders of Hb synthesis characterized by a ____ or _____ synthesis of _______.

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70
Q

40

What is Beta thalassemia vs. Alpha thalassemia?

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71
Q

40

Thalassemia is ____ and ______.

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72
Q

41

How many genes are mutated in Thalassemia major?

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73
Q

41

What are 6 symptoms seen in Thalassemia major?

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74
Q

41

How many genes are mutated in Thalassemia minor?

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75
Q

41

What are the symptoms in Thalassemia minor?

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76
Q

42

What type of inheritance pattern is Thalassemia?

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77
Q

44

What are 5 symptoms seen in alpha Thalassemia?

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78
Q

44

What are 4 symptoms seen in Beta Thalassemia?

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79
Q

44
How is diagnosis of Alpha and Beta Thalassemia made?

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80
Q

44

What is the mutation associated with Alpha Thalassemia?

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81
Q

44

What is the genetic mutation associated with Beta Thalassemia?

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82
Q

44

In the homozygous condition of Alpha Thalassemia, _________ occurs and the fetus ______.

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83
Q

44

In the homozygous condition of Beta Thalassemia, the fetus _______ because of _______. The child will have ______.

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84
Q

45

What are two symptoms of severe hemolytic anemia?

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85
Q

45

There are severe bone growth abnormalities in severe hemolytic anemia due to the _____ of the _________ that leads to _________.

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86
Q

45

Why is there massive erythopoiesis in Thalassemia major?

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87
Q

45

With Thalassemia major, death usually occurs in the ____ or ____ decade due to ________.

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88
Q

46

Describe the size of the maxillary sinus in Thalassemia major.

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89
Q

46

Describe the size of the maxilla in Thalassemia major.

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90
Q

46

Describe the bone marrow spaces in Thalassemia major.

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91
Q

46

In Thalassemia major, the roots are ____ shaped and ____.

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92
Q

46

What is taurodontism?

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93
Q

46

Describe the lamina dura in Thalassemia major.

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94
Q

46

What are three features of Chipmunk face seen in Thalassemia major?

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95
Q

46

In Thalassemia major there is _____ caries, but no increase in ___________.

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96
Q

46

What may result in the increased caries in Thalassemia major?

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97
Q

48

When doing dental procedures on Thalassemia patients, minimize stress or anxiety for patients through _____ and effective _______.

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98
Q

48

What should you do to get clarity on whether extra precautions need to be taken for a thalassemia patient prior to invasive dental treatment?

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99
Q

48

In patients with thalassemia, adrenaline-based local anesthesia may interfere with _______, so it is preferable to use _______.

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100
Q

48

Thalassemia patients may have _____ due to iron deposition from blood transfusions.

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101
Q

49

What is the term for anemia of suppression of bone marrow cells?

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102
Q

49

What are the three anemias of diminished erythropoiesis?

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103
Q

49

What is the term for anemia of autoimmune process?

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104
Q

50

Aplastic anemia is suppression of __________ resulting in ______. There are reduced ___, ____, and _____.

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105
Q

50

What percent of aplastic anemia cases are idiopathic?

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106
Q

50

Known causes of aplastic anemia include toxic exposure to ____ and ____ such as benzene.

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107
Q

50

What three drugs may cause aplasia of the marrow?

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108
Q

50

Aplastic anemia is mediated by _______.

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109
Q

50

What are two treatments for aplastic anemia?

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110
Q

52

What are two oral manifestations of aplastic anemia?

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111
Q

52

Hemorrhage in aplastic anemia includes _____ and spontaneous _______.

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112
Q

53

What are the two types of anemia that result from iron deficiency anemia?

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113
Q

54

What are the hemoglobin levels for iron deficiency anemia?

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114
Q

54

What are the hematocrit levels for iron deficiency anemia?

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115
Q

54

What are the MCV levels for iron deficiency anemia?

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116
Q

54

What are the MCH levels for iron deficiency anemia?

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117
Q

54

What are the serum ferritin levels for iron deficiency anemia?

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118
Q

54

What is serum ferritin and what does it correlate well with?

A
119
Q

54

What is a good diagnostic test for iron deficiency anemia?

A
120
Q

54

What are the serum iron levels in iron deficiency anemia?

A
121
Q

55

What is the most important cause of iron deficiency anemia in developed countries?

A
122
Q

55

What causes chronic blood loss in women?

A
123
Q

55

What causes chronic blood loss in men?

A
124
Q

55

What is a common cause of chronic blood loss, especially for patients on NSAIDs?

A
125
Q

55

Some dietary causes of iron deficiency anemia include:

-Infants and children who are _______ beyond ____ or only given cow or goat milk.
-Some ______ diets also cause iron deficiency.

A
126
Q

56

What is the term for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

A
127
Q

56

Vitamin B12 and folate are necessary for _____.

A
128
Q

56

In vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, RBCs are _____.

A
129
Q

56

What are megaloblasts?

A
130
Q

56

What are MCV values in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

A
131
Q

57

Uncorrected vitamin B12 deficiency leads to a ______ as well as anemia. Initially, the ______ nerves are involved, but as the disease progresses it involves the ______.

A
132
Q

57

Demyelination due to vitamin B12 deficiency is an _____ process.

A
133
Q

57

Vitamin B12 deficiency complication can cause _________ in the hands and feet.

A
134
Q

57

In older individuals with vitamin B12 deficiency complication, there may be ______ impairment that resembles ______.

A
135
Q

57

What is the term for the neuropsychiatric state that may develop from vitamin B12 deficiency complication?

A
136
Q

59

What is the initial treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

A
137
Q

59

In treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, once hematologic abnormalities are corrected, then _______ can be used since about ___% of oral dose is absorbed without the need for ______.

A
138
Q

60

What are three situations where folate (folic acid) deficiency may be observed?

A
139
Q

60

Folic acid antagonists are used in the treatment of leukemia such as ______.

A
140
Q

60

Does a folate deficiency cause demyelination?

A
141
Q

61

Pernicious anemia is an old term coined because the disorder was ____ before the cause and treatment were known.

A
142
Q

61

What causes pernicious anemia?

A
143
Q

61

Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the ______.

A
144
Q

61

What two things prevent Vitamin B12 absorption?

A
145
Q

62

In the stomach, B12 is released from food and is bound to _____ by the gastric parietal cells.

A
146
Q

62

In the ileum, IF-B12 binds to _______ and is absorbed into the cell.

A
147
Q

62

Once in the ileal mucosal cell B12 separates from IF and is bound to its transport protein ______. From there, _____ carries B12 to the various tissues of the body, especially the ____ and _______.

A
148
Q

64

Polycythemia (Rubra) Vera is a disorder that is due to _______.

A
149
Q

64

Polycythemia Vera causes an increase in ______.

A
150
Q

64

In Polycythemia Vera, the ____ mutation renders myeloid stem cells hypersensitive to erythropoietin.

A
151
Q

65

What are the two symptoms that appear slowly in polycthemia vera?

A
152
Q

65

What causes pruritus in polycythemia vera?

A
153
Q

65

What causes hemorrhagic and thromotic complications in polycythemia vera?

A
154
Q

65

Polycythemia vera may terminate in ________ or _______.

A
155
Q

65

In polycythemia vera, therapeutic _______ may be necessary. It can also be treated with _______.

A
156
Q

66

What are the two oral manifestations or polycythemia vera?

A
157
Q

68

What are three non-neoplastic disorders of white blood cells?

A
158
Q

69

What does leukopenia mean?

A
159
Q

69

What does neutropenia mean?

A
160
Q

69

What is agranulocytosis?

A
161
Q

69

What are two forms of pathogenesis that can cause leukopenia?

A
162
Q

69

What would cause decreased granulocyte production?

A
163
Q

69

What are three potential causes of incresaed granulocyte destruction?

A
164
Q

70

What is lymphopenia?

A
165
Q

70

What two things might cause lymphopenia?

A
166
Q

71

For leukopenia, decrease in nuetrophil counts due to chemotherapy or myelodysplasia may be associated with ________.

A
167
Q

71

_______ for a neutropenic patient reduces bacterial oral infections.

A
168
Q

72

What is leukocytosis?

A
169
Q

72

In what infections would neutrophilic leukocytosis be seen?

A
170
Q

72

In what disorders would eosinophilic leukocytosis occur?

A
171
Q

72

In what infections would you see monocytosis occur?

A
172
Q

72

In what disorders would you see lymphocytosis occur?

A
173
Q

73

Infectious mononucleosis is an ____, _____ disease that chiefly affects ____ and _____.

A
174
Q

73

Infectious mononucleosis is caused by ____.

A
175
Q

73

What are 3 symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?

A
176
Q

73

What circulates in the peripheral blood in infectious mononucleosis?

A
177
Q

74

What organ is often enlarged and is susceptible to rupture in infectious mononucleosis?

A
178
Q

74

In infectious mononucleosis, the ____ is affected often causing a ______ with abnormal function. This may resemble other forms of ______.

A
179
Q

75

What do lymphomas result in?

A
180
Q

75

Leukemias involve the ___ and the _____.

A
181
Q

75

What are two types of plasma cell tumors?

A
182
Q

77

What are the two types of Lymphomas?

A
183
Q

77

What is another name for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
184
Q

77

What is Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by?

A
185
Q

78

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is a ________- of lymphoid cells.

A
186
Q

78

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma typically arises in the _______ in ___% of cases. The remainder of cases occurs in the ______ or _______.

A
187
Q

80

Burkitt lymphoma is a _____ neoplasm.

A
188
Q

80

Burkitt lymphoma is endemic in parts of _____ and is sporadic _____.

A
189
Q

80

The African form of Burkitt lymphoma often presents with _______ of the _____ and _____.

A
190
Q

80

Burkitt lymphoma is ____ growing.

A
191
Q

80

The African form of Burkitt lymphoma is caused by _____.

A
192
Q

82

What are three oral manifestations of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
193
Q

82

What is a complication of therapy for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
194
Q

83

Hodgkin lymphoma is a _____ disorder of _____ lineage.

A
195
Q

83

Hodgkin lymphoma usually begins in a _____ or _____ and spreads in a predictable fashion to _______.

A
196
Q

83

Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by a distinctive neoplastic cell called the _______ cell

A
197
Q

83

What is the description and appearance of the Reed-Sternberg cell in Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
198
Q

84

What oral manifestations might occur as a result of treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
199
Q

84

To prevent Hodgkin lymphoma dental caries, patients need _____, ____ or ______.

A
200
Q

85

Describe the spread of Hodgkin lymphoma vs. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

A
201
Q

85

Is extranodal involvement common or uncommon in Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
202
Q

87

What two lineages can multipotential heamtopoietic stem cells differentiate into?

A
203
Q

87

What four things can common myeloid progenitors directly differentiate into?

A
204
Q

87

What can megakaryocytes differentiate into?

A
205
Q

87

What are 4 things that myeloblasts can differentiate into?

A
206
Q

87

What can common lymphoid progenitors differentiate into?

A
207
Q

88

What is the name for acute and chronic myeloid leukemias?

A
208
Q

88

Acute leukemias for proliferation of _____ that occurs in more than ____ blasts. Chronic leukemias are proliferation of ______.

A
209
Q

88

What is the name for acute lymphoid lekemia?

A
210
Q

88

What is the name for chronic lymphoid leukemia?

A
211
Q

89

What is the cytology for acute myeloid leukemia?

A
212
Q

89

What are two symptoms of acute myeloid leukemia?

A
213
Q

89

What age groups is acute myeloid leukemia seen in?

A
214
Q

89

What is the prevalence for acute myeloid leukemia?

A
215
Q

89

What is the cytology for chronic myeloid leukemia?

A
216
Q

89

What are three symptoms of chronic myeloid leukemia?

A
217
Q

89

What age group is chronic myeloid leukemia common in?

A
218
Q

89

What is the prevalence of chronic myeloid leukemia?

A
219
Q

89

What is the cytology of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?

A
220
Q

What is a symptom of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?

A
221
Q

89

What group is commonly affected by acute lymohoblastic leukemia?

A
222
Q

89

What is the prevalence of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?

A
223
Q

89

What is the cytology of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?

A
224
Q

89

What are two symptoms of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

A
225
Q

89

What age group is most commonly affected by chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?

A
226
Q

89

What is the prevalence of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?

A
227
Q

91

Chronic leukemia has a ___ onset with _____ symptoms.

A
228
Q

91

What may be the first symptom of chronic leukemia? What is it due to?

A
229
Q

92

Describe the oral manifestations of chronic leukemia.

A
230
Q

93

What are two plasma cell disorders?

A
231
Q

94

Is multiple myeloma benign or malignant?

A
232
Q

94

What causes multiple myeloma?

A
233
Q

94

Multiple myeloma is associated with ____, ______ lesions.

A
234
Q

94

What can be seen in the jaw bones of patients with multiple myeloma?

A
235
Q

94

What is the average age of diagnosis for multiple myeloma?

A
236
Q

95

In multiple myelona, cells produce ______ which can be detected in the blood and the urine. This is known as _______.

A
237
Q

95

What are the 4 main clinical problems with multiple myeloma?

A
238
Q

95

What are 6 dental related issues with multiple myeloma?

A
239
Q

95

Patients with multiple myeloma are often of ______ that results in _______.

A
240
Q

96

What is a plasmacytoma?

A
241
Q

96

Plasmacytomas may occur in the ____ or ______.

A
242
Q

96

Plasmacytomas may remain ____ for many years. But eventually they will become ____ after _____ years.

A
243
Q

97

What is an example of a Langerhan cell disorder?

A
244
Q

98

What is Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis?

A
245
Q

98

What was Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis formerly called?

A
246
Q

98

Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis may regress _____.

A
247
Q

98

Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis may require treatment such as ___ or ____.

A
248
Q

99

What is seen in the cytoplasm of Langerhan Cell Histicytosis?

A
249
Q

100

What is seen in children with Langerhan cell histiocytosis?

A
250
Q

101

What is seen with the teeth in Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis?

A
251
Q

102

What are three examples of platelet/clotting factor disorders?

A
252
Q

103

What are three potential causes of bleeding disorders (Hemorrhagic Diatheses)?

A
253
Q

103

What are three examples of derangements in clotting mechanisms that can lead to bleeding disorders?

A
254
Q

104

With disseminated intravascular coagulation (Comsumptive Coagulopathy), overactivation of the coagulation cascase leads to formation of ______ throughout the ______

A
255
Q

104

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (Consumptive Coagulopathy) can be triggered by introduction of _______ into the systemic circulation during ____ or ______, or by widespread injury to the _________ from ______ during gram negative sepsis.

A
256
Q

105

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy results from _____ of the ________ rather than a ______. Bleeding diatheses ensue as ______ and _____ are consumed. There is widespread ________ in small vessels.

A
257
Q

106

In thrombocytopenia, spontaneous bleeding occurs with platelet counts in the range of ________. The normal count is _______. Post traumatic bleeding, including surgery, may occur at ______.

A
258
Q

106

_______ is characteristic of thrombocytopenia, producing ___, ____, and _____.

A
259
Q

107

What are two potential causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
260
Q

107

What is an autoimmune thrombocytopenia?

A
261
Q

107

What are two examples of viral thromocytopenia?

A
262
Q

107

What is an example of a consumptive thrombocytopenia?

A
263
Q

109

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is usually _____.

A
264
Q

109

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is more common in ____ age ________.

A
265
Q

109

What causes the autoimmune process in idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A
266
Q

109

What may be necessary in some cases to treat idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A
267
Q

110

What are three examples of Hemophilias?

A
268
Q

110

What are the two X-linked Hemophilias?

A
269
Q

110

What is the autosomal dominant or recessive hemophilia?

A
270
Q

112

What are three names for a Factor VIII Deficiency?

A
271
Q

112

Factor VIII Deficiency accounts for ____ of hemophilias.

A
272
Q

112

What is the inheritance pattern for Factor VIII Deficiency?

A
273
Q

112

Factor VIII Deficiency occurs in ____ and rarely, _____.

A
274
Q

112

___% of Factor VIII Deficiencies are _____ mutations.

A
275
Q

113

The degree of bleeding diathesis in Factor VIII deficiency correlates with the ______.

A
276
Q

113

What are two symptoms of Factor VIII Deficiency?

A
277
Q

113

In Factor VIII Deficiency, hemorrhage into joints known as _____ may eventually result in _____.

A
278
Q

113

____ and ____ are characteristically absent from Factor VIII Deficiency

A
279
Q

113

Treatment of Factor VIII Deficiency involves ______ after injury or before surgery.

A
280
Q

114

What are two other names for Factor IX Deficiency?

A
281
Q

114

What is the inheritance pattern for Factor IX Deficiency?

A
282
Q

114

Factor IX Deficiency clinically resembles ______, but is _____ and is usually ______.

A
283
Q

115

What are the symptoms of Von Willebrand Disease?

A
284
Q

115

Von Willebrand Disease is often _____.

A
285
Q

115

Von Willebrand factor is necessary for _____.

A
286
Q

115

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A
287
Q

116

Patients with Von Willebrand Disease are very sensitive to ______, which may unmask _____.

A
288
Q

116

A complete lack of Von Willebrand factor produces no levels of ____ and is similar to severe ______.

A
289
Q

116

Von Willebrand Disease shows ______ in the presence of normal platelet count.

A

Pathology (8 decks)

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