Exam 3 - Chapter 10: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System Flashcards

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What does CFU-C stand for?

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2
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What does CFU-L stand for?

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3
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What are megakaryocytes?

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4
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What two things can pluripotent stem cells (CFU-S) differentiate into?

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5
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What are 5 things that CFU-C differentiate into?

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6
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What are 2 things that CFU-L can differentiate into?

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7
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What do B cells differentiate into?

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8
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14

What is the life span of erythroblasts in the bone marrow?

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9
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What is the life span of reticulocytes in the bone marrow and in the blood?

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10
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What is the life span of erythrocytes in the blood?

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11
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15

What is anemia?

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12
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What is hematocrit?

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13
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What are the three subtypes of anemia?

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14
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What are the four vague symptoms of anemia?

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15
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16

What are three oral symptoms of anemia?

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16
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16

In what cases of anemia would you see atrophic glossitis?

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17
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17

What are 5 screening tests for anemia?

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18
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17

What does the RBC indices MCV stand for and what does it mean?

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19
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17

What does the RBC indices MCH stand for and what does it mean?

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20
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17

What does the peripheral blood smear morphology screening test evaluate?

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21
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17

What does the serum ferritin screening test for anemia measure?

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22
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18

What are four symptoms that would be seen in severe anemia?

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23
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19

What does microcytic mean?

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24
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19

What is the MCV in microcytic anemia?

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25
19 What does macrocytic mean?
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19 What is the MCV in macrocytic anemia?
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19 What does hypochromic mean?
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19 What is the MCH in hypochromic anemia?
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19 What does poikilocytosis mean?
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19 What does anisocytosis mean?
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19 What are target cells in anemia?
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25 Hemolytic anemias are an ____ rate of _______.
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25 Hemolytic anemias can be due to what 4 things?
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27 What is involved in hemolytic anemia of mechanical injury?
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27 What causes microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
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27 What are two things that can result from microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
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27 Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is induced by ______ and is characterized by _____. ______, and _______.
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28 In immune mediated hemolytic anemias, red cells are _____ with _____, usually ______.
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28 What does the Coombs test detect?
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28 Opsonized RBCs are targets for removal by the _____, which recognizes them as abnormal.
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28 What percent of immune mediated hemolytic anemias are idiopathic?
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28 For the immune mediated hemolytic anemias that are not idiopathic, they are associated with another disease. What are 4 diseases that could cause immune mediated hemolytic anemias?
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29 Malaria may result in ______.
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29 The parasite that causes malaria, ______, can directly _____.
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30 Hemoglobinopathies are a group of ______ characterized by the presence of a ________.
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30 Hemoglobinopathies result in _________ and often acute hemolysis under certain ______ and ______ stress.
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30 What are two examples associated with hemoglobinopathies that result in decreased red cell survival and acute hemolysis under certain biochemical and physiologic stress?
48
31 What are the components of normal hemoglobin?
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31 How many amino acids long are the 2 alpha chains of hemoglobin?
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31 How many amino acids long are the 2 beta chains of hemoglobin?
51
33 What is the mutation that occurs in sickled RBCs (sickle cell anemia)?
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33 The change from glutamic acid to valine at the sixth position of the 146 amino acids of the beta chain leads to the formation of ________ and a change of the normal red blood cells to a sickle-shaped RBC.
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35 What type of inheritance pattern is Sickle Cell Anemia?
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35 Worldwide, sickle cell anemia is the most common form of _______.
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35 HbS polymerizes when it is _____ and it _____, producing the characteristic sickle shape.
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35 Heterozygotes for sickle cell anemia have about ____% HbS and ____% HbA. There is little tendency to sickle except under _______.
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35 What percent of African Americans are heterozygous for HbS?
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36 Sickled red cells are removed from circulation by the spleen, reducing their life span from ____ to ___ days.
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36 Sickled red cells may cause ________, resulting in ____ tissue injury.
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36 What are two complications associated with sickle cell anemia?
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36 What is autosplenectomy?
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37 What can be a finding on skull radiographs in someone with sickle cell anemia?
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37 What can be an oral radiographic finding on for a patient with sickle cell anemia?
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38 An oral manifestation of sickle cell anemia is ____ and ____ pain with absence of _____. This may be due to ______.
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38 In someone with sickle cell anemia, there may be ______ of the oral mucosa and _____ of teeth.
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38 In what percent of patients is the step ladder trabecular pattern in the mandible seen?
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38 _______ significantly lowers caries in children with Sickle Cell Anemia, by preventing infection by _______.
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40 What does the name Thalassemia mean?
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40 Thalasssemia is a ____ group of genetic disorders of Hb synthesis characterized by a ____ or _____ synthesis of _______.
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40 What is Beta thalassemia vs. Alpha thalassemia?
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40 Thalassemia is ____ and ______.
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41 How many genes are mutated in Thalassemia major?
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41 What are 6 symptoms seen in Thalassemia major?
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41 How many genes are mutated in Thalassemia minor?
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41 What are the symptoms in Thalassemia minor?
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42 What type of inheritance pattern is Thalassemia?
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44 What are 5 symptoms seen in alpha Thalassemia?
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44 What are 4 symptoms seen in Beta Thalassemia?
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44 How is diagnosis of Alpha and Beta Thalassemia made?
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44 What is the mutation associated with Alpha Thalassemia?
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44 What is the genetic mutation associated with Beta Thalassemia?
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44 In the homozygous condition of Alpha Thalassemia, _________ occurs and the fetus ______.
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44 In the homozygous condition of Beta Thalassemia, the fetus _______ because of _______. The child will have ______.
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45 What are two symptoms of severe hemolytic anemia?
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45 There are severe bone growth abnormalities in severe hemolytic anemia due to the _____ of the _________ that leads to _________.
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45 Why is there massive erythopoiesis in Thalassemia major?
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45 With Thalassemia major, death usually occurs in the ____ or ____ decade due to ________.
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46 Describe the size of the maxillary sinus in Thalassemia major.
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46 Describe the size of the maxilla in Thalassemia major.
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46 Describe the bone marrow spaces in Thalassemia major.
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46 In Thalassemia major, the roots are ____ shaped and ____.
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46 What is taurodontism?
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46 Describe the lamina dura in Thalassemia major.
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46 What are three features of Chipmunk face seen in Thalassemia major?
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46 In Thalassemia major there is _____ caries, but no increase in ___________.
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46 What may result in the increased caries in Thalassemia major?
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48 When doing dental procedures on Thalassemia patients, minimize stress or anxiety for patients through _____ and effective _______.
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48 What should you do to get clarity on whether extra precautions need to be taken for a thalassemia patient prior to invasive dental treatment?
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48 In patients with thalassemia, adrenaline-based local anesthesia may interfere with _______, so it is preferable to use _______.
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48 Thalassemia patients may have _____ due to iron deposition from blood transfusions.
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49 What is the term for anemia of suppression of bone marrow cells?
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49 What are the three anemias of diminished erythropoiesis?
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49 What is the term for anemia of autoimmune process?
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50 Aplastic anemia is suppression of __________ resulting in ______. There are reduced ___, ____, and _____.
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50 What percent of aplastic anemia cases are idiopathic?
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50 Known causes of aplastic anemia include toxic exposure to ____ and ____ such as benzene.
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50 What three drugs may cause aplasia of the marrow?
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50 Aplastic anemia is mediated by _______.
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50 What are two treatments for aplastic anemia?
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52 What are two oral manifestations of aplastic anemia?
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52 Hemorrhage in aplastic anemia includes _____ and spontaneous _______.
112
53 What are the two types of anemia that result from iron deficiency anemia?
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54 What are the hemoglobin levels for iron deficiency anemia?
114
54 What are the hematocrit levels for iron deficiency anemia?
115
54 What are the MCV levels for iron deficiency anemia?
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54 What are the MCH levels for iron deficiency anemia?
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54 What are the serum ferritin levels for iron deficiency anemia?
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54 What is serum ferritin and what does it correlate well with?
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54 What is a good diagnostic test for iron deficiency anemia?
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54 What are the serum iron levels in iron deficiency anemia?
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55 What is the most important cause of iron deficiency anemia in developed countries?
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55 What causes chronic blood loss in women?
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55 What causes chronic blood loss in men?
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55 What is a common cause of chronic blood loss, especially for patients on NSAIDs?
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55 Some dietary causes of iron deficiency anemia include: -Infants and children who are _______ beyond ____ or only given cow or goat milk. -Some ______ diets also cause iron deficiency.
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56 What is the term for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
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56 Vitamin B12 and folate are necessary for _____.
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56 In vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, RBCs are _____.
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56 What are megaloblasts?
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56 What are MCV values in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
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57 Uncorrected vitamin B12 deficiency leads to a ______ as well as anemia. Initially, the ______ nerves are involved, but as the disease progresses it involves the ______.
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57 Demyelination due to vitamin B12 deficiency is an _____ process.
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57 Vitamin B12 deficiency complication can cause _________ in the hands and feet.
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57 In older individuals with vitamin B12 deficiency complication, there may be ______ impairment that resembles ______.
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57 What is the term for the neuropsychiatric state that may develop from vitamin B12 deficiency complication?
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59 What is the initial treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
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59 In treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, once hematologic abnormalities are corrected, then _______ can be used since about ___% of oral dose is absorbed without the need for ______.
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60 What are three situations where folate (folic acid) deficiency may be observed?
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60 Folic acid antagonists are used in the treatment of leukemia such as ______.
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60 Does a folate deficiency cause demyelination?
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61 Pernicious anemia is an old term coined because the disorder was ____ before the cause and treatment were known.
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61 What causes pernicious anemia?
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61 Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the ______.
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61 What two things prevent Vitamin B12 absorption?
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62 In the stomach, B12 is released from food and is bound to _____ by the gastric parietal cells.
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62 In the ileum, IF-B12 binds to _______ and is absorbed into the cell.
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62 Once in the ileal mucosal cell B12 separates from IF and is bound to its transport protein ______. From there, _____ carries B12 to the various tissues of the body, especially the ____ and _______.
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64 Polycythemia (Rubra) Vera is a disorder that is due to _______.
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64 Polycythemia Vera causes an increase in ______.
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64 In Polycythemia Vera, the ____ mutation renders myeloid stem cells hypersensitive to erythropoietin.
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65 What are the two symptoms that appear slowly in polycthemia vera?
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65 What causes pruritus in polycythemia vera?
153
65 What causes hemorrhagic and thromotic complications in polycythemia vera?
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65 Polycythemia vera may terminate in ________ or _______.
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65 In polycythemia vera, therapeutic _______ may be necessary. It can also be treated with _______.
156
66 What are the two oral manifestations or polycythemia vera?
157
68 What are three non-neoplastic disorders of white blood cells?
158
69 What does leukopenia mean?
159
69 What does neutropenia mean?
160
69 What is agranulocytosis?
161
69 What are two forms of pathogenesis that can cause leukopenia?
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69 What would cause decreased granulocyte production?
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69 What are three potential causes of incresaed granulocyte destruction?
164
70 What is lymphopenia?
165
70 What two things might cause lymphopenia?
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71 For leukopenia, decrease in nuetrophil counts due to chemotherapy or myelodysplasia may be associated with ________.
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71 _______ for a neutropenic patient reduces bacterial oral infections.
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72 What is leukocytosis?
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72 In what infections would neutrophilic leukocytosis be seen?
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72 In what disorders would eosinophilic leukocytosis occur?
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72 In what infections would you see monocytosis occur?
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72 In what disorders would you see lymphocytosis occur?
173
73 Infectious mononucleosis is an ____, _____ disease that chiefly affects ____ and _____.
174
73 Infectious mononucleosis is caused by ____.
175
73 What are 3 symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?
176
73 What circulates in the peripheral blood in infectious mononucleosis?
177
74 What organ is often enlarged and is susceptible to rupture in infectious mononucleosis?
178
74 In infectious mononucleosis, the ____ is affected often causing a ______ with abnormal function. This may resemble other forms of ______.
179
75 What do lymphomas result in?
180
75 Leukemias involve the ___ and the _____.
181
75 What are two types of plasma cell tumors?
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77 What are the two types of Lymphomas?
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77 What is another name for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
184
77 What is Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by?
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78 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is a ________- of lymphoid cells.
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78 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma typically arises in the _______ in ___% of cases. The remainder of cases occurs in the ______ or _______.
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80 Burkitt lymphoma is a _____ neoplasm.
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80 Burkitt lymphoma is endemic in parts of _____ and is sporadic _____.
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80 The African form of Burkitt lymphoma often presents with _______ of the _____ and _____.
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80 Burkitt lymphoma is ____ growing.
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80 The African form of Burkitt lymphoma is caused by _____.
192
82 What are three oral manifestations of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
193
82 What is a complication of therapy for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
194
83 Hodgkin lymphoma is a _____ disorder of _____ lineage.
195
83 Hodgkin lymphoma usually begins in a _____ or _____ and spreads in a predictable fashion to _______.
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83 Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by a distinctive neoplastic cell called the _______ cell
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83 What is the description and appearance of the Reed-Sternberg cell in Hodgkin lymphoma?
198
84 What oral manifestations might occur as a result of treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma?
199
84 To prevent Hodgkin lymphoma dental caries, patients need _____, ____ or ______.
200
85 Describe the spread of Hodgkin lymphoma vs. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
201
85 Is extranodal involvement common or uncommon in Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
202
87 What two lineages can multipotential heamtopoietic stem cells differentiate into?
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87 What four things can common myeloid progenitors directly differentiate into?
204
87 What can megakaryocytes differentiate into?
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87 What are 4 things that myeloblasts can differentiate into?
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87 What can common lymphoid progenitors differentiate into?
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88 What is the name for acute and chronic myeloid leukemias?
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88 Acute leukemias for proliferation of _____ that occurs in more than ____ blasts. Chronic leukemias are proliferation of ______.
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88 What is the name for acute lymphoid lekemia?
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88 What is the name for chronic lymphoid leukemia?
211
89 What is the cytology for acute myeloid leukemia?
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89 What are two symptoms of acute myeloid leukemia?
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89 What age groups is acute myeloid leukemia seen in?
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89 What is the prevalence for acute myeloid leukemia?
215
89 What is the cytology for chronic myeloid leukemia?
216
89 What are three symptoms of chronic myeloid leukemia?
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89 What age group is chronic myeloid leukemia common in?
218
89 What is the prevalence of chronic myeloid leukemia?
219
89 What is the cytology of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?
220
What is a symptom of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?
221
89 What group is commonly affected by acute lymohoblastic leukemia?
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89 What is the prevalence of acute lymohoblastic leukemia?
223
89 What is the cytology of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?
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89 What are two symptoms of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
225
89 What age group is most commonly affected by chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?
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89 What is the prevalence of chronic lymphoblastic leukemia?
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91 Chronic leukemia has a ___ onset with _____ symptoms.
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91 What may be the first symptom of chronic leukemia? What is it due to?
229
92 Describe the oral manifestations of chronic leukemia.
230
93 What are two plasma cell disorders?
231
94 Is multiple myeloma benign or malignant?
232
94 What causes multiple myeloma?
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94 Multiple myeloma is associated with ____, ______ lesions.
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94 What can be seen in the jaw bones of patients with multiple myeloma?
235
94 What is the average age of diagnosis for multiple myeloma?
236
95 In multiple myelona, cells produce ______ which can be detected in the blood and the urine. This is known as _______.
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95 What are the 4 main clinical problems with multiple myeloma?
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95 What are 6 dental related issues with multiple myeloma?
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95 Patients with multiple myeloma are often of ______ that results in _______.
240
96 What is a plasmacytoma?
241
96 Plasmacytomas may occur in the ____ or ______.
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96 Plasmacytomas may remain ____ for many years. But eventually they will become ____ after _____ years.
243
97 What is an example of a Langerhan cell disorder?
244
98 What is Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis?
245
98 What was Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis formerly called?
246
98 Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis may regress _____.
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98 Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis may require treatment such as ___ or ____.
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99 What is seen in the cytoplasm of Langerhan Cell Histicytosis?
249
100 What is seen in children with Langerhan cell histiocytosis?
250
101 What is seen with the teeth in Langerhan Cell Histiocytosis?
251
102 What are three examples of platelet/clotting factor disorders?
252
103 What are three potential causes of bleeding disorders (Hemorrhagic Diatheses)?
253
103 What are three examples of derangements in clotting mechanisms that can lead to bleeding disorders?
254
104 With disseminated intravascular coagulation (Comsumptive Coagulopathy), overactivation of the coagulation cascase leads to formation of ______ throughout the ______
255
104 Disseminated intravascular coagulation (Consumptive Coagulopathy) can be triggered by introduction of _______ into the systemic circulation during ____ or ______, or by widespread injury to the _________ from ______ during gram negative sepsis.
256
105 Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy results from _____ of the ________ rather than a ______. Bleeding diatheses ensue as ______ and _____ are consumed. There is widespread ________ in small vessels.
257
106 In thrombocytopenia, spontaneous bleeding occurs with platelet counts in the range of ________. The normal count is _______. Post traumatic bleeding, including surgery, may occur at ______.
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106 _______ is characteristic of thrombocytopenia, producing ___, ____, and _____.
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107 What are two potential causes of thrombocytopenia?
260
107 What is an autoimmune thrombocytopenia?
261
107 What are two examples of viral thromocytopenia?
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107 What is an example of a consumptive thrombocytopenia?
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109 Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is usually _____.
264
109 Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is more common in ____ age ________.
265
109 What causes the autoimmune process in idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
266
109 What may be necessary in some cases to treat idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
267
110 What are three examples of Hemophilias?
268
110 What are the two X-linked Hemophilias?
269
110 What is the autosomal dominant or recessive hemophilia?
270
112 What are three names for a Factor VIII Deficiency?
271
112 Factor VIII Deficiency accounts for ____ of hemophilias.
272
112 What is the inheritance pattern for Factor VIII Deficiency?
273
112 Factor VIII Deficiency occurs in ____ and rarely, _____.
274
112 ___% of Factor VIII Deficiencies are _____ mutations.
275
113 The degree of bleeding diathesis in Factor VIII deficiency correlates with the ______.
276
113 What are two symptoms of Factor VIII Deficiency?
277
113 In Factor VIII Deficiency, hemorrhage into joints known as _____ may eventually result in _____.
278
113 ____ and ____ are characteristically absent from Factor VIII Deficiency
279
113 Treatment of Factor VIII Deficiency involves ______ after injury or before surgery.
280
114 What are two other names for Factor IX Deficiency?
281
114 What is the inheritance pattern for Factor IX Deficiency?
282
114 Factor IX Deficiency clinically resembles ______, but is _____ and is usually ______.
283
115 What are the symptoms of Von Willebrand Disease?
284
115 Von Willebrand Disease is often _____.
285
115 Von Willebrand factor is necessary for _____.
286
115 What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
287
116 Patients with Von Willebrand Disease are very sensitive to ______, which may unmask _____.
288
116 A complete lack of Von Willebrand factor produces no levels of ____ and is similar to severe ______.
289
116 Von Willebrand Disease shows ______ in the presence of normal platelet count.